Search Results

Search found 18729 results on 750 pages for 'edit'.

Page 643/750 | < Previous Page | 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646 647 648 649 650  | Next Page >

  • Implimenting Zend MVC for my existing site-first step?

    - by Joel
    Hi guys, OK-newbie question here. I'll try not to bombard SO with lots of questions-and hopefully this first one will show me the method I'll need to follow for subsequent conversions. I have a web-based calendar system that I developed, but it was coded for me procedurally (using PHP). I'm now working on learning OO and wanting to integrate this site into my localhost Zend Framework and slowly start converting parts to OO and the Zend Framework MVC process in particular. As I've said before, I understand that this will be a slow process, and when I'm done, I still probably won't have anything as OO friendly as if I had rewritten it from scratch, but I'd like to use this as a learning experience. So, I have dropped the whole site into my localhose/zend/Public folder, and everything is showing up great and linking to the database, etc. My question is-what would be the easiest first component to switch over to the MVC model? This site has a bit of everything-forms, login, authentication, some jQuery, etc. Can anyone point to a tutorial that would address what I'm trying to do? If indeed, a form would be one of the simpler things to switch, can someone walk me through those changes? Another idea is changing over all the header info, etc? Thanks for any pointers on where to start! EDIT: Also, I understand that SO is mainly for specific coding questions-I'm happy to share specific code, once I have an idea about which section to tackle first...

    Read the article

  • How to map keys in vim differently for different kinds of buffers

    - by Yogesh Arora
    The problem i am facing is that i have mapped some keys and mouse events for seraching in vim while editing a file. But those mappings impact the functionality if the quickfix buffer. I was wondering if it is possible to map keys depending on the buffer in which they are used. EDIT - I am adding more info for this question Let us consider a scenario. I want to map <C-F4> to close a buffer/window. Now this behavior could depend on a number of things. If i am editing a buffer it should just close that buffer without changing the layout of the windows. I am using buffkil plugin for this. It does not depend on extension of file but on the type of buffer. I saw in vim documentation that there are unlisted and listed buffer. So if it is listed buffer it should close using bufkill commands. If it is not a listed buffer it should use <c-w>c command to close buffer and changing the window layout. I am new at writing vim functions/scripts, can someone help me getting started on this

    Read the article

  • Can't display image with Imageview on Android

    - by user1029167
    In my \drawable-mdpi folder, I have an image named: test.jpg In my main.xml file, in my LinearLayout section, I have: <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/test" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> In my src folder, I have only 1 file, HelloAndroidActivity.java with only the following method: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ImageView image = new ImageView(this); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.test_image); setContentView(image); } This seems to be correct, yet whenever I try to run it, I get The application HelloAndroid (process xxxxx) has stopped unexpectedly. Please try again. The strange part is it previously did display the image, but now it won't and I don't know why. Also, when I comment out the ImageDisplay code, and replace it with TextDisplay code. i.e. TextView tv = new TextView(this); tv.setText("Does this work?"); setContentView(tv); It does display the text. Edit: was asked to post logcat. Link to pastebin.

    Read the article

  • NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

    - by mybrokengnome
    I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

    Read the article

  • What's wrong with output parameters?

    - by Chris McCall
    Both in SQL and C#, I've never really liked output parameters. I never passed parameters ByRef in VB6, either. Something about counting on side effects to get something done just bothers me. I know they're a way around not being able to return multiple results from a function, but a rowset in SQL or a complex datatype in C# and VB work just as well, and seem more self-documenting to me. Is there something wrong with my thinking, or are there resources from authoritative sources that back me up? What's your personal take on this and why? What can I say to colleagues that want to design with output parameters that might convince them to use different structures? EDIT: interesting turn- the output parameter I was asking this question about was used in place of a return value. When the return value is "ERROR", the caller is supposed to handle it as an exception. I was doing that but not pleased with the idea. A coworker wasn't informed of the need to handle this condition and as a result, a great deal of money was lost as the procedure failed silently!

    Read the article

  • CSS Border spanning across another div

    - by Tux
    The problem is that the border of div#content also appears in div#navigation? <html> <head> <title>WUI</title> <style type="text/css"> div#header { } div#navigation { float: left; padding-right: 20pt; } div#content { border: 5px groove; } </style> </head> <body> <div id="header"> <h1>WUI</h1> </div> <br /> <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li>Home</li> <li>Login</li> </ul> </div> <div id="content"> <p>I like when you ride with that booty on me!</p> </div> </body> </html> EDIT: I want the left side (navigation) to appear as a sidebar to the left and the content after that (to the right). I'm applying the border to the content but that border also appears in div of navigation. I hope it is clear now.

    Read the article

  • Clear listview content?

    - by Slash
    I have a little problem with listview. How do i clear a listview content, knowing that it has a custom adapter? edit : the custom adapter class extends BaseAdapter, it looks like this : import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.view.LayoutInflater; import android.view.View; import android.view.ViewGroup; import android.widget.BaseAdapter; import android.widget.TextView; public class MyAdapter extends BaseAdapter { private Activity activity; private String[] data; private static LayoutInflater inflater=null; public MyAdapter(Activity _a, String[] _str) { activity = _a; data = _str; inflater = (LayoutInflater)activity.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); } public static class ViewHolder{ public TextView text; } @Override public int getCount() { return data.length; } @Override public Object getItem(int position) { return position; } @Override public long getItemId(int position) { return position; } @Override public View getView(int position, View view, ViewGroup parent) { View v = view; ViewHolder holder; if(v == null) { v = inflater.inflate(R.layout.rowa, null); holder=new ViewHolder(); holder.text=(TextView)v.findViewById(R.id.dexter); v.setTag(holder); }else{ holder=(ViewHolder)v.getTag(); } holder.text.setText(data[position]); return v; } }

    Read the article

  • Do I lose the benefits of macro recording if I develop Excel apps in Visual Studio?

    - by DanM
    I've written lots of Excel macros in the past using the following development process: Record a macro. Open the VBA editor. Edit the macro. I'm now experimenting with a Visual Studio 2008 "Excel 2007 Add-In" project (C#), and I'm wondering if I will have to give up this development process. Questions: I know I can still record macros using Excel, but is there any way to access the resulting code in Visual Studio? Or do I just have to copy and paste then C#-ize it? What happens with my "Personal Macro Workbook"? Can I use the macros I have stored in there within C#? Or is there some way to convert them to C#? If there is some support for opening and editing VBA macros in Visual Studio, can you provide a very brief summary of how it works or point me to a good reference? Do you have any other tips for transitioning from writing macros in VBA using Excel's built-in editor to writing them in C# with Visual Studio?

    Read the article

  • Parsing localized date strings in PHP

    - by Mikeage
    Hi, I have some code (it's part of a wordpress plugin) which takes a text string, and the format specifier given to date(), and attempts to parse it into an array containing hour, minute, second, day, month, year. Currently, I use the following code (note that strtotime is horribly unreliable with things like 01/02/03) // $format contains the string originally given to date(), and $content is the rendered string if (function_exists('date_parse_from_format')) { $content_parsed = date_parse_from_format($format, $content); } else { $content = preg_replace("([0-9]st|nd|rd|th)","\\1",$content); $content_parsed = strptime($content, dateFormatToStrftime($format)); $content_parsed['hour']=$content_parsed['tm_hour']; $content_parsed['minute']=$content_parsed['tm_min']; $content_parsed['day']=$content_parsed['tm_mday']; $content_parsed['month']=$content_parsed['tm_mon'] + 1; $content_parsed['year']=$content_parsed['tm_year'] + 1900; } This actually works fairly well, and seems to handle every combination I've thrown at it. However, recently someone gave me 24 ??????, 2010. This is Russian for November 24, 2010 [the date format was j F, Y], and it is parsed as year = 2010, month = null, day = 24. Are there any functions that I can use that know how to translate both November and ?????? into 11? EDIT: Running print_r(setlocale(LC_ALL, 0)); returns C. Switching back to strptime() seems to fix the problem, but the docs warn: Internally, this function calls the strptime() function provided by the system's C library. This function can exhibit noticeably different behaviour across different operating systems. The use of date_parse_from_format(), which does not suffer from these issues, is recommended on PHP 5.3.0 and later. Is date_parse_from_format() the correct API, and if so, how do I get it to recognize the language?

    Read the article

  • Run a shell script using cron

    - by Blanca
    Hi! I have this FeedIndexer.sh: #!/bin/sh java -jar FeedIndexer.jar Just to run FeedIndexer.jar which is in the same directory as the .sh, I would like to run it using crontab, so I did this: # /etc/crontab: system-wide crontab # Unlike any other crontab you don't have to run the `crontab' # command to install the new version when you edit this file # and files in /etc/cron.d. These files also have username fields, # that none of the other crontabs do. SHELL=/bin/sh PATH=/usr/local/sbin:/usr/local/bin:/sbin:/bin:/usr/sbin:/usr/bin # m h dom mon dow user command 17 * * * * root cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.hourly 25 6 * * * root test -x /usr/sbin/anacron || ( cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.daily ) 47 6 * * 7 root test -x /usr/sbin/anacron || ( cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.weekly ) 52 6 1 * * root test -x /usr/sbin/anacron || ( cd / && run-parts --report /etc/cron.monthly ) 01 01 * * * root run-parts --report /home/slosada/workspace/FeedIndexer/target/FeedIndexer.sh # But it doen't work. Have i made any mistake?? Thank you!

    Read the article

  • PHP session_write_close() keeps sending a set-cookie header

    - by Chiraag Mundhe
    In my framework, I make a number of calls to session_write_close(). Let's assume that a session has been initiated with a user agent. The following code... foreach($i = 0; $i < 3; $i++) { session_start(); session_write_close(); } ...will send the following request header to the browser: Set-Cookie PHPSESSID=bv4d0n31vj2otb8mjtr59ln322; path=/ PHPSESSID=bv4d0n31vj2otb8mjtr59ln322; path=/ There should be no Set-Cookie header because, as I stipulated, the session cookie has already been created on the user's end. But every call to session_write_close() after the first one in the script above will result in PHP instructing the browser to set the current session again. This is not breaking my app or anything, but it is annoying. Does anyone have any insight into preventing PHP from re-setting the cookie with each subsequent call to session_write_close? EDIT The problem seems to be that with every subsequent call to session_start(), PHP re-sets the session cookie to its own SID and sends a Set-Cookie response header. But why??

    Read the article

  • [VB.Net] TreeView update bug in the .net framework

    - by CFP
    Consider the following code: Dim Working As Boolean = False Private Sub TreeView1_AfterCheck(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.TreeViewEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.AfterCheck If Working Then Exit Sub Working = True e.Node.Checked = Not e.Node.Checked Working = False End Sub Private Sub TreeView1_MouseClick(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.MouseEventArgs) Handles TreeView1.MouseClick If e.Button = Windows.Forms.MouseButtons.Right Then MsgBox("Checked = " & TreeView1.SelectedNode.Checked) End Sub Where TreeView1 is a TreeView added to the form, with CheckBoxes set to true and one node added. The code basically cancel any node checking occuring on the form. Single-clicking the top node to check it works well : your click is immediately canceled. Yet if you double-click the checkbox, it will display a tick. But verifying the check state through a right click will yield a Checked = False dialog. How come? Is it a bug (I'm using the latest .Net Framework 4.0, and he same occurs in 2.0), or am I doing something wrong here? Is there a work around? Thanks! EDIT: Additionally, the MouseDoubleClick event is not raised before you click once again.

    Read the article

  • Provider not notified from cookbook_file

    - by wittyhandle
    I'm working on an ssl provider using Vagrant (1.0.5) and chef-solo (10.12.0) I have my provider, called ssl within a cookbook called gtm_cq, I define it as such in my cookbook's default recipe: gtm_cq_ssl "author" do # attributes will come later end I then have my cookbook_file like below that should notify my ssl provider's import action once it pushes the cert up to the server: cookbook_file "#{node[:cq][:ssl][:author_cert_location]}/foo.cer" do source "foo.cer" owner "crx" group "root" mode "0644" notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author") end When I run this, the foo.cer gets pushed up as expected, but the import action of my ssl provider is never called. The most I see of any reference is these couple of lines in the log (removed log headers): .. cookbook_file[/opt/cq5/author/foo.cer] sending import action to gtm_cq_ssl[author] (delayed) .. Processing gtm_cq_ssl[author] action import (gtm_cq::author line 34) There's a large very obvious log statement as well as the use of another cookbook_file for a test file to push something up to the server. No log statement, no test file pushed. I'm certain too that the foo.cer file is removed from the server before each test. I found that if I edit my notifies line like so with :immediately notifies :import, resources(:gtm_cq_ssl => "author"), :immediately It seems to work. And I suppose this is ok in my particular case, but it would seem something is not right if that's the only way I can call my provider. Any help on this would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jQuery ajax only works first time

    - by Michael Itzoe
    I have a table of data that on a button click certain values are saved to the database, while other values are retrieved. I need the process to be continuous, but I can only get it to work the first time. At first I was using .ajax() and .replaceWith() to rewrite the entire table, but because this overwrites the DOM it was losing events associated with the table. I cannot use .live() because I'm using stopPropagation() and .live() doesn't support it due to event bubbling. I was able to essentially re-bind the click event onto the table within the .ajax() callback, but a second call to the button click event did nothing. I changed the code to use .get() for the ajax and .html() to put the results in the table (the server-side code now returns the complete table sans the <table> tags). I no longer have to rebind the click event to the table, but subsequent clicks to the button still do nothing. Finally, I changed it to .load(), but with the same (non-) results. By "do nothing" I mean while the ajax call is returning the new HTML as expected, it's not being applied to the table. I'm sure it has something to do with altering the DOM, but I thought since I'm only overwriting the table contents and not the table object itself, it should work. Obviously I'm missing something; what is it? Edit: HTML: <table id="table1" class="mytable"> <tr> <td><span id="item1" class="myitem"></span> <td><span id="item2" class="myitem"></span> </tr> </table> <input id="Button1" type="button" value="Submit" /> jQuery: $( "Button1" ).click( function() { $( "table1" ).load( "data.aspx", function( data ) { //... } ); } );

    Read the article

  • mailing system DB structure, need help

    - by Anna
    i have a system there user(sender) can write a note to friends(receivers), number of receivers=0. Text of the message is saved in DB and visible to sender and all receivers then they login to system. Sender can add more receivers at any time. More over any of receivers can edit the message and even remove it from DB. For this system i created 3 tables, shortly: users(userID, username, password) messages(messageID, text) list(id, senderID, receiverID, messageID) in table "list" each row corresponds to pair sender-receiver, like sender_x_ID -- receiver_1_ID -- message_1_ID sender_x_ID -- receiver_2_ID -- message_1_ID sender_x_ID -- receiver_3_ID -- message_1_ID Now the problem is: 1. if user deletes the message from table "messages" how to automatically delete all rows from table "list" which correspond to deleted message. Do i have to include some foreign keys? More important: 2. if sender has let say 3 receivers for his message1 (username1, username2 and username3) and at certain moment decides to add username4 and username5 and at the same time exclude username1 from the list of receivers. PHP code will get the new list of receivers (username2, username3, username4, username5) That means insert to table "list" sender_x_ID -- receiver_4_ID -- message_1_ID sender_x_ID -- receiver_5_ID -- message_1_ID and also delete from table "list" the row corresponding to user1 (which is not in the list or receivers any more) sender_x_ID -- receiver_1_ID -- message_1_ID which sql query to send from PHP to make it in an easy and intelligent way? Please help! Examples of sql queries would be perfect!

    Read the article

  • Doesn't (didn't) Scala have automatically generated setters?

    - by Malvolio
    Google and my failing memory are both giving me hints that it does, but every attempt is coming up dry. class Y { var y = 0 } var m = new Y() m.y_(3) error: value y_ is not a member of Y Please tell me I am doing something wrong. (Also: please tell me what it is I am doing wrong.) EDIT The thing I am not doing wrong, or at least not the only thing I am doing wrong, is the way I am invoking the setter. The following things also fail, all with the same error message: m.y_ // should be a function valued expression m.y_ = (3) // suggested by Google and by Mchl f(m.y_) // where f takes Int => Unit as an argument f(m.y) // complains that I am passing in Int not a function I am doing this all through SimplyScala, because I'm too lazy and impatient to set up Scala on my tiny home machine. Hope it isn't that... And the winner is ... Fabian, who pointed out that I can't have a space between the _ and the =. I thought out why this should be and then it occurred to me: The name of the setter for y is not y_, it is y_= ! Observe: class Y { var y = 0 } var m = new Y() m.y_=(3) m.y res1: Int = 3 m.y_= error: missing arguments for method y_= in class Y; follow this method with `_` if you want to treat it as a partially applied function m.y_= ^ m.y_=_ res2: (Int) => Unit = def four(f : Int => Unit) = f(4) four(m.y_=) m.y res3: Int = 4 Another successful day on StackExchange.

    Read the article

  • Use variables to decide which object in an array gets an attribute?

    - by DavidR
    I have a web app which has two text areas. When one text area receives a mousedown event, a variable "side" is set, either "left" or "right." When a user selects some text in a text area, three strings are made. One for the text before the beginning of the selection, the selection itself, and the text after the selection to the end. A function is set to return these like this: return { head: head_text, tail: tail_text, sel: sel_text, side: text_side } Now, I have created an array, and I want it to appear in such a way that we get, text.left({"head":"four score", "selection":"and seven", "tail":"years ago."}) I am assuming I would do this by text.side = getSelection(), but how do I get it to evaluate the variable "side" instead of thinking of it as an object within "text"? EDIT: Ok, just to clarify, I might be completely wrong in my ideas in how this works, but here it goes. I want to make it so that a function can look at "text" see within text two objects, "left" and "right," and then evaluate the head, sel, and tail of each object. Would it be easier for me to use two objects?

    Read the article

  • How can I dynamically set the default namespace declaration of an XSLT transformation's output XML?

    - by Paralife
    I can do it, but not for the default namespace, using the <xsl:namespace>. If I try to do it for the default namespace: <xsl:namespace name="" select"myUri"/> it never works. It demands that I explicitly define the namespace of the element to be able to use the above null prefix declaration. The reason I want this is because I have a task to transform an input XML file to another output xml. The output XML has many elements and i dont want to have to explicitly set the namespace for every element. Thats why I want to set the default and never bother again. But the default must be computed from some data in the source XML. It does not change during the whole transformation, but it is dependent on input XML data. Any solution? EDIT 1: To sup up: I want to create a namespace dynamically and set it to be the default namespace of the output xml document. The uri of the namespace is derived from some data in the input XML. If I use <xsl:namespace> in my root output element, I cannot create a default namespace for it, only a prefixed one. And even with the prefixed one, it does not propagate to children.

    Read the article

  • Does anybody have any tips for managing polymorphic nested resources in Rails 3?

    - by Ryan
    in config/routes.rb: resources posts do resources comments end resources pictures do resources comments end I would like to allow for more things to be commented on as well. I'm currently using mongoid (mongomapper isn't as compatible with rails3 yet as I would like), and comments are an embedded resource (mongoid can't yet handle polymorphic relational resources), which means that I do need the parent resource in order to find the comment. Are there any elegant ways to handle some of the following problems: in my controller, I need to find the parent before finding the comment. if params[:post_id] parent = Post.find(params[:post_id] else if params[:picture_id] parent = Picture.find(params[:picture_id] end which is going to get messy if I start adding more things to be commentable also url_for([comment.parent,comment]) doesn't work, so I'm going to have to define something in my Comment model, but I think I'm also going to need to define an index route in the Comment model as well as potentially an edit and new route definition. There might be more issues that I have to deal with as I get further. I can't imagine I'm the first person to try and solve this problem, are there any solutions out there to make this more manageable?

    Read the article

  • addField type image and thumbnail path

    - by Christiaan
    Hello, I have a Magento webshop and just created a custom module with the extension (Modulecreator). This module comes with a standard admin interface that can handle file uploads. I found out that if you want to show thumbnails you can use the 'image' field type (addField('myfield', 'image')) instead of the 'file' type field. But now i've got a problem. When I upload files, I save them in a subdirectory called 'slides' in the 'media' directory. But when I edit the item, the image path for the thumbnail next to the uploadfield is set to the 'media' folder. Not my folder as I set it to 'media/slides/'. I use the following code: $fieldset->addField('filename', 'image', array( 'label' => Mage::helper('slideshow')->__('File'), 'required' => true, 'name' => 'filename', )); I tried to set a 'path' key in the array, but this doesn't get picked up by Magento. Hate the lack of support for good and easy to use documentation by Magento... Maybe you can help me out to find a solution?

    Read the article

  • Using an embedded DB (SQLite / SQL Compact) for Message Passing within an app?

    - by wk1989
    Hello, Just out of curiosity, for applications that have a fairly complicated module tree, would something like sqlite/sql compact edition work well for message passing? So if I have modules containing data such as: \SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC, \SubSystemB\SubSubSystemC\ModuleA\ModuleDataX Using traditional message passing/routing, you have to go through intermediate modules in order to pass a message to ModuleB to request say ModuleDataC. Instead of doing that, if we we simply store "\SubsystemA\SubSubSysB\ModuleB\ModuleDataC" in a sqlite database, getting that data is as simple as a sql query and needs no routing and passing stuff around. Has anyone done this before? Even if you haven't, do you foresee any issues & performance impact? The only concern I have right now would be the passing of custom types, e.g. if ModuleDataC is a custom data structure or a pointer, I'll need some way of storing the data structure into the DB or storing the pointer into the DB. Thanks, JW EDIT One usage case I haven't thought about is when you want to send a message from ModuleA to ModuleB to get ModuleB to do something rather than just getting/setting data. Is it possible to do this using an embedded DB? I believe callback from the DB would be needed, how feasible is this?

    Read the article

  • Android How do you save an image with your own unique Image Name?

    - by Usmaan
    This sounds like a issue a beginner like me would only have...this is my code... private void saveAvatar(Bitmap avatar) { String strAvatarFilename = Id + ".jpg"; try { avatar.compress(CompressFormat.JPEG, 100, openFileOutput(strAvatarFilename, MODE_PRIVATE)); } catch (Exception e) { Log.e(DEBUG_TAG, "Avatar compression and save failed.", e); } Uri imageUriToSaveCameraImageTo = Uri.fromFile(new File(PhotoActivity.this.getFilesDir(), strAvatarFilename)); Editor editor = Preferences.edit(); editor.putString(PREFERENCES_AVATAR, imageUriToSaveCameraImageTo.getPath()); editor.commit(); ImageButton avatarButton = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.ImageButton_Avatar); String strAvatarUri = Preferences.getString(PREFERENCES_AVATAR, ""); Uri imageUri = Uri.parse(strAvatarUri); avatarButton.setImageURI(null); avatarButton.setImageURI(imageUri); } This does save the image but when i go to look at the image on the sd card ti is called imag001 etc not the ID i am labelling it. How do i save the image with a name i want to call it? regards

    Read the article

  • Collision Handling in Javascript - Particles Get Stuck

    - by Conner Ruhl
    I am trying to recreate this, and I have been fairly successful. I am having issues with the collision handling though. Although the collision handling seems to work, it has very strange behavior. Here is what I have so far. This is the code that handles collisions: var dx = particle2.getX() - particle1.getX(); var dy = particle2.getY() - particle1.getY(); var angle = Math.atan2(dy, dx); var newP2X = particle1.getX() + (particle1.getRadius() + particle2.getRadius()) * Math.cos(angle); var newP2Y = particle1.getY() + (particle1.getRadius() + particle2.getRadius()) * Math.sin(angle); particle2.setX(newP2X); particle2.setY(newP2Y); var p1Vxi = particle1.getVx(); var p1Vyi = particle1.getVy(); var p1Mass = particle1.getMass(); var p2Vxi = particle2.getVx(); var p2Vyi = particle2.getVy(); var p2Mass = particle2.getMass(); var vxf = (p1Mass * p1Vxi + p2Mass * p2Vxi) / (p1Mass + p2Mass); var vyf = (p1Mass * p1Vyi + p2Mass * p2Vyi) / (p1Mass + p2Mass); particle1.setVx(vxf); particle1.setVy(vyf); particle2.setVx(vxf); particle2.setVy(vyf); EDIT: I have tried to change it to inelastic collisions like suggested, but for some reason the balls collide erratically. Check it out here. Any help is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • .Net Hash Codes no longer persistent?

    - by RobV
    I have an API where various types have custom hash codes. These hash codes are based on getting the hash of a string representation of the object in question. Various salting techniques are used so that as far as possible Hash Codes do not collide and that Objects of different types with equivalent string representations have different Hash Codes. Obviously since the Hash Codes are based on strings there are some collisions (infinite strings vs the limited range of 32 bit integers). I use hashes based on string representations since I need the hashes to persist over sessions and particularly for use in database storage of objects. Suddenly today my code has started generating different hash codes for Objects which is breaking all kinds of things. It was working earlier today and I haven't touched any of the code involved in Hash Code generation. I'm aware that the .Net documentation allows for implementation of hash codes between .Net framework versions to change (and between 32 and 64 bit versions) but I haven't changed the framework version and there has been no framework updates recently as far as I can remember Any ideas because this seems really weird? Edit Hash Codes are generated like follows: //Compute Hash Code this._hashcode = (this._nodetype + this.ToString() + PlainLiteralHashCodeSalt).GetHashCode();

    Read the article

  • Generics in a bidirectional association

    - by Verhoevenv
    Let's say I have two classes A and B, with B a subtype of A. This is only part of a richer type hierarchy, obviously, but I don't think that's relevant. Assume A is the root of the hierarchy. There is a collection class C that keeps track of a list of A's. However, I want to make C generic, so that it is possible to make an instance that only keeps B's and won't accept A's. class A(val c: C[A]) { c.addEntry(this) } class B(c: C[A]) extends A(c) class C[T <: A]{ val entries = new ArrayBuffer[T]() def addEntry(e: T) { entries += e } } object Generic { def main(args : Array[String]) { val c = new C[B]() new B(c) } } The code above obviously give the error 'type mismatch: found C[B], required C[A]' on the new B(c) line. I'm not sure how this can be fixed. It's not possible to make C covariant in T (like C[+T <: A]) because the ArrayBuffer is non-variantly typed in T. It's not possible to make the constructor of B require a C[B] because C can't be covariant. Am I barking up the wrong tree here? I'm a complete Scala newbie, so any ideas and tips might be helpful. Thank you! EDIT: Basically, what I'd like to have is that the compiler accepts both val c = new C[B]() new B(c) and val c = new C[A]() new B(c) but would reject val c = new C[B]() new A(c) It's probably possible to relax the typing of the ArrayBuffer in C to be A instead of T, and thus in the addEntry method as well, if that helps.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 639 640 641 642 643 644 645 646 647 648 649 650  | Next Page >