Search Results

Search found 23098 results on 924 pages for 'multiple processes'.

Page 645/924 | < Previous Page | 641 642 643 644 645 646 647 648 649 650 651 652  | Next Page >

  • Migrating complex SVN branch hierarchy to Mercurial

    - by Christian Hang
    Our team has been using SVN for managing an application of decent size and over time a rather complex hierarchy of branches and tags has built up, which is following the basic standard layout for SVN repositories, but is more nested: |-trunk |-branches | |-releases | | |-releaseA | | `-releaseB | `-features | |-featureX | `-featureY |-tags |-releaseA | |-beta | `-RTP `-releaseB |-beta `-RTP (The feature branches are obviously temporary branches but we have to take them into consideration as it won't be feasible to close all of them at once in the near future) For several reasons but primarily because merges have been becoming an increasing pain, we are considering to switch to Mercurial. The main problem we are currently facing is migrating the existing code base without losing our history. I've tried several migration tools (e.g., yasvn2hg, hg convert and svn2hg) with yasvn2hg being the most promising, but none of them seem to be able to deal with nested hierarchies but they all assume that branches and tags are organized in one flat directory respectively. The choice between named branches or clones as the conversion target of old SVN branches is not a limiting factor in this case, as either solution would be appreciated. We are currently experimenting with both options and how they would fit into our current processes but haven't decided on one yet. I'd obviously be interested in recommendations or experiences with similar setups concerning that issue as well. So, what is the best way to convert a nested SVN branch hierarchy like this to Mercurial? Converting one branch at a time into a separate repository would be quite annoying and I am not sure if that would be the right approach in the first place, depending on how the tools handle historic merges and need to be aware of all other branches?

    Read the article

  • posting nutch data into a BASIC auth secured Solr instance

    - by mlathe
    Hi. I've secured a solr instance using BASIC auth, kind of how it is shown here: http://blog.comtaste.com/2009/02/securing_your_solr_server_on_t.html Now i'm trying to update my batch processes to push data into the authenticated instance. The ones using "curl" are easy, but i also have a Nutch crawl that uses the "solrindex" command to push data into Solr. When i do that i get this error: 2010-02-22 12:09:28,226 INFO auth.AuthChallengeProcessor - basic authentication scheme selected 2010-02-22 12:09:28,229 INFO httpclient.HttpMethodDirector - No credentials available for BASIC 'Tomcat Manager Application'@ninja:5500 2010-02-22 12:09:28,236 WARN mapred.LocalJobRunner - job_local_0001 org.apache.solr.common.SolrException: Unauthorized Unauthorized request: http://ninja:5500/solr/foo/update?wt=javabin&version=2.2 at org.apache.solr.client.solrj.impl.CommonsHttpSolrServer.request(CommonsHttpSolrServer.java:343) at org.apache.solr.client.solrj.impl.CommonsHttpSolrServer.request(CommonsHttpSolrServer.java:183) at org.apache.solr.client.solrj.request.UpdateRequest.process(UpdateRequest.java:217) at org.apache.solr.client.solrj.SolrServer.add(SolrServer.java:48) at org.apache.nutch.indexer.solr.SolrWriter.close(SolrWriter.java:69) at org.apache.nutch.indexer.IndexerOutputFormat$1.close(IndexerOutputFormat.java:48) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.ReduceTask.run(ReduceTask.java:447) at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.LocalJobRunner$Job.run(LocalJobRunner.java:170) 2010-02-22 12:09:29,134 FATAL solr.SolrIndexer - SolrIndexer: java.io.IOException: Job failed! at org.apache.hadoop.mapred.JobClient.runJob(JobClient.java:1232) at org.apache.nutch.indexer.solr.SolrIndexer.indexSolr(SolrIndexer.java:73) at org.apache.nutch.indexer.solr.SolrIndexer.run(SolrIndexer.java:95) at org.apache.hadoop.util.ToolRunner.run(ToolRunner.java:65) at org.apache.nutch.indexer.solr.SolrIndexer.main(SolrIndexer.java:104) Apparently nutch uses SolrJ to push the content, and after going through the solrj code, it's clear that it uses commons-httpclient without providing a way to set the credentials. Here are my question(s) Is this possible to do? ie push from nutch into a BASIC auth secured Solr instance? Is it possible to tell commons-httpclient about a credential without explicitly doing an _httpclient.getState().setCredentials(...)? Anyother ideas? One idea i had was to use an IPfiltering Valve for just the "update" Solr webservices. That would mean you could only make an update call from certain nodes. Thanks

    Read the article

  • [NSLocale currentLocale] always returns "en_US" not user's current language

    - by Prairiedogg
    I'm in the processes of internationalizing an iPhone app - I need to make programmatic changes to certain views based on what the user's current locale is. I'm going nuts because no matter what the language preference on the iPhone simulator or actual hardware are, locale always evaluates to "en_US": NSString *locale = [[NSLocale currentLocale] localeIdentifier]; NSLog(@"current locale: %@", locale); The crazy thing is that the rest of the application behaves as expected. The correct strings are selected from the Localization.strings file and used in the interface, and the correct .xib files for the selected locale are used. I have also tried the following, to no avail and with the same result: NSString *locale = [[NSLocale autoupdatingCurrentLocale] localeIdentifier]; NSLog(@"current locale: %@", locale); Is there something simple I'm missing? A preference or an import perhaps? Update: As Darren's answer suggests, the preference I'm looking for is not in NSLocale, rather it is here: NSUserDefaults* defs = [NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults]; NSArray* languages = [defs objectForKey:@"AppleLanguages"]; NSString* preferredLang = [languages objectAtIndex:0]; NSLog(@"preferredLang: %@", preferredLang);

    Read the article

  • Cannot use READPAST in snapshot isolation mode

    - by Marcus
    I have a process which is called from multiple threads which does the following: Start transaction Select unit of work from work table with by finding the next row where IsProcessed=0 with hints (UPDLOCK, HOLDLOCK, READPAST) Process the unit of work (C# and SQL stored procedures) Commit the transaction The idea of this is that a thread dips into the pool for the "next" piece of work, and processes it, and the locks are there to ensure that a single piece of work is not processed twice. (the order doesn't matter). All this has been working fine for months. Until today that is, when I happened to realise that despite enabling snapshot isolation and making it the default at the database level, the actual transaction creation code was manually setting an isolation level of "ReadCommitted". I duly changed that to "Snapshot", and of course immediately received the "You can only specify the READPAST lock in the READ COMMITTED or REPEATABLE READ" error message. Oops! The main reason for locking the row was to "mark the row" in such a way that the "mark" would be removed when the transaction that applied the mark was committed and the lock seemed to be the best way to do this, since this table isn't read otherwise except by these threads. If I were to use the IsProcessed flag as the lock, then presumably I would need to do the update first, and then select the row I just updated, but I would need to employ the NOLOCK flag to know whether any other thread had set the flag on a row. All sounds a bit messy. The easiest option would be to abandon the snapshot isolation mode altogether, but the design of step #3 requires it. Any bright ideas on the best way to resolve this problem? Thanks Marcus

    Read the article

  • Using SSL and SslStream for peer to peer authentication?

    - by Scott Whitlock
    I need to provide secure communication between various processes that are using TCP/IP sockets for communication. I want both authentication and encryption. Rather than re-invent the wheel I would really like to use SSL and the SslStream class and self-signed certificates. What I want to do is validate the remote process's certificate against a known copy in my local application. (There doesn't need to be a certificate authority because I intend for the certificates to be copied around manually). To do this, I want the application to be able to automatically generate a new certifiate the first time it is run. In addition to makecert.exe, it looks like this link shows a way to automatically generate self-signed certificates, so that's a start. I've looked at the AuthenticateAsServer and AuthenticateAsClient methods of SslStream. You can provide call-backs for verification, so it looks like it's possible. But now that I'm into the details of it, I really don't think it's possible to do this. Am I going in the right direction? Is there a better alternative? Has anyone done anything like this before (basically peer-to-peer SSL rather than client-server)?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework many-to-many using VB.Net Lambda

    - by bgs264
    Hello, I'm a newbie to StackOverflow so please be kind ;) I'm using Entity Framework in Visual Studio 2010 Beta 2 (.NET framework 4.0 Beta 2). I have created an entity framework .edmx model from my database and I have a handful of many-to-many relationships. A trivial example of my database schema is Roles (ID, Name, Active) Members (ID, DateOfBirth, DateCreated) RoleMembership(RoleID, MemberID) I am now writing the custom role provider (Inheriting System.Configuration.Provider.RoleProvider) and have come to write the implementation of IsUserInRole(username, roleName). The LINQ-to-Entity queries which I wrote, when SQL-Profiled, all produced CROSS JOIN statements when what I want is for them to INNER JOIN. Dim query = From m In dc.Members From r In dc.Roles Where m.ID = 100 And r.Name = "Member" Select m My problem is almost exactly described here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/553918/entity-framework-and-many-to-many-queries-unusable I'm sure that the solution presented there works well, but whilst I studied Java at uni and I can mostly understand C# I cannot understand this Lambda syntax provided and I need to get a similar example in VB. I've looked around the web for the best part of half a day but I'm not closer to my answer. So please can somebody advise how, in VB, I can construct a LINQ statement which would do this equivalent in SQL: SELECT rm.RoleID FROM RoleMembership rm INNER JOIN Roles r ON r.ID = rm.RoleID INNER JOIN Members m ON m.ID = rm.MemberID WHERE r.Name = 'Member' AND m.ID = 101 I would use this query to see if Member 101 is in Role 3. (I appreciate I probably don't need the join to the Members table in SQL but I imagine in LINQ I'd need to bring in the Member object?) UPDATE: I'm a bit closer by using multiple methods: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim count As Integer Using dc As New CBLModel.CBLEntities Dim persons = dc.Members.Where(AddressOf myTest) count = persons.Count End Using System.Diagnostics.Debugger.Break() End Sub Function myTest(ByVal m As Member) As Boolean Return m.ID = "100" AndAlso m.Roles.Select(AddressOf myRoleTest).Count > 0 End Function Function myRoleTest(ByVal r As Role) As Boolean Return r.Name = "Member" End Function SQL Profiler shows this: SQL:BatchStarting SELECT [Extent1].[ID] AS [ID], ... (all columns from Members snipped for brevity) ... FROM [dbo].[Members] AS [Extent1] RPC:Completed exec sp_executesql N'SELECT [Extent2].[ID] AS [ID], [Extent2].[Name] AS [Name], [Extent2].[Active] AS [Active] FROM [dbo].[RoleMembership] AS [Extent1] INNER JOIN [dbo].[Roles] AS [Extent2] ON [Extent1].[RoleID] = [Extent2].[ID] WHERE [Extent1].[MemberID] = @EntityKeyValue1',N'@EntityKeyValue1 int',@EntityKeyValue1=100 SQL:BatchCompleted SELECT [Extent1].[ID] AS [ID], ... (all columns from Members snipped for brevity) ... FROM [dbo].[Members] AS [Extent1] I'm not certain why it is using sp_execsql for the inner join statement and why it's still running a select to select ALL members though. Thanks. UPDATE 2 I've written it by turning the above "multiple methods" into lambda expressions then all into one query, like this: Dim allIDs As String = String.Empty Using dc As New CBLModel.CBLEntities For Each retM In dc.Members.Where(Function(m As Member) m.ID = 100 AndAlso m.Roles.Select(Function(r As Role) r.Name = "Doctor").Count > 0) allIDs &= retM.ID.ToString & ";" Next End Using But it doesn't seem to work: "Doctor" is not a role that exists, I just put it in there for testing purposes, yet "allIDs" still gets set to "100;" The SQL in SQL Profiler this time looks like this: SELECT [Project1].* FROM ( SELECT [Extent1].*, (SELECT COUNT(1) AS [A1] FROM [dbo].[RoleMembership] AS [Extent2] WHERE [Extent1].[ID] = [Extent2].[MemberID]) AS [C1] FROM [dbo].[Members] AS [Extent1] ) AS [Project1] WHERE (100 = [Project1].[ID]) AND ([Project1].[C1] > 0) For brevity I turned the list of all the columns from the Members table into * As you can see it's just ignoring the "Role" query... :/

    Read the article

  • .NET4: In-Process Side-by-Side Execution Explained

    - by emptyset
    Overview: I'm interested in learning more about the .NET4 "In-Process Side-by-Side Execution" of assemblies, and need additional information to help me demystify it. Motivation: The application in question is built against .NET2, and uses two third-party libraries that also work against .NET2. The application is deployed (via file copy) to client machines in a virtual environment that includes .NET2. Not my architecture, please bear with me. Goal: To see if it's possible to rebuild the application assemblies (or a subset) against .NET4, and ship the application as before, without changing the third-party libraries and including the .NET4 Client Profile (as described here) in the deployment. Steps Taken: The following articles were read, but didn't quite provide me enough information: In-Process Side-by-Side Execution: Browsed this article, and Scenario Two is the closest it comes to describing something that resembles my situation, but doesn't really cover it with any depth. ASP.NET Side-by-Side Execution Overview: This article covers a web application, but I'm dealing with a client WinForms application. CLR Team Blog: In-Process Side-by-Side: This is useful to explain how plug-ins to host processes function under .NET4, but I don't know if this applies to the third-party libraries. Further Steps: I'm also unclear on how to proceed upgrading a single .NET2 assembly to .NET4, with the overall application remaining in .NET2 (i.e. how to configure the solution/project files, if any special code needs to be included, etc.).

    Read the article

  • Why is WCF Stream response getting corrupted on write to disk?

    - by Alvin S
    I am wanting to write a WCF web service that can send files over the wire to the client. So I have one setup that sends a Stream response. Here is my code on the client: private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string filename = System.Environment.CurrentDirectory + "\\Picture.jpg"; if (File.Exists(filename)) File.Delete(filename); StreamServiceClient client = new StreamServiceClient(); int length = 256; byte[] buffer = new byte[length]; FileStream sink = new FileStream(filename, FileMode.CreateNew, FileAccess.Write); Stream source = client.GetData(); int bytesRead; while ((bytesRead = source.Read(buffer,0,length))> 0) { sink.Write(buffer,0,length); } source.Close(); sink.Close(); MessageBox.Show("All done"); } Everything processes fine with no errors or exceptions. The problem is that the .jpg file that is getting transferred is reported as being "corrupted or too large" when I open it. What am I doing wrong? On the server side, here is the method that is sending the file. public Stream GetData() { string filename = Environment.CurrentDirectory+"\\Chrysanthemum.jpg"; FileStream myfile = File.OpenRead(filename); return myfile; } I have the server configured with basicHttp binding with Transfermode.StreamedResponse.

    Read the article

  • Parsing HTML using HtmlParser

    - by Blankman
    My html has 20 or so rows of the following HTML pattern. So the below is considered a single instance of the pattern. Each instance of this pattern represents a product. Again the below is a single instance, it spans multiple rows in the HTML table. <table> .. <!-- product starts here, this html comment is not in the real html --> <tr> <td rowspan="5" class="product" valign="top"><nobr> ????????????</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> </tr> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="5" ????????</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="6" width="100%">&nbsp;<hr></td> </tr> <!-- product ends here, this html comment is not in the real html --> <!-- above pattern repeats multiple times in the HTML --> .. <table> I am trying to use HtmlParser for this. Parser rowParser = new Parser(); rowParser.setInputHtml(page.getHtml()); // page object represents a html page rowParser.setEncoding("UTF-8"); NodeFilter productRowFilter = new AndFilter( new TagNameFilter("tr"), new HasChildFilter( new AndFilter( new TagNameFilter("td"), new HasAttributeFilter("class", "product"))) The above filter doesn't work, just showing you what I have so far. I need to somehow combine these filters, and use the last td to mark the end of the pattern i.e. the td with the colspan=6 and width=100% with child element hr. I have been struggling with this, and have resorted to Regex'ing but was told numerous times to NOT use regex for html parsing, so here I am! Your help is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • What are best practices for collecting, maintaining and ensuring accuracy of a huge data set?

    - by Kyle West
    I am posing this question looking for practical advice on how to design a system. Sites like amazon.com and pandora have and maintain huge data sets to run their core business. For example, amazon (and every other major e-commerce site) has millions of products for sale, images of those products, pricing, specifications, etc. etc. etc. Ignoring the data coming in from 3rd party sellers and the user generated content all that "stuff" had to come from somewhere and is maintained by someone. It's also incredibly detailed and accurate. How? How do they do it? Is there just an army of data-entry clerks or have they devised systems to handle the grunt work? My company is in a similar situation. We maintain a huge (10-of-millions of records) catalog of automotive parts and the cars they fit. We've been at it for a while now and have come up with a number of programs and processes to keep our catalog growing and accurate; however, it seems like to grow the catalog to x items we need to grow the team to y. I need to figure some ways to increase the efficiency of the data team and hopefully I can learn from the work of others. Any suggestions are appreciated, more though would be links to content I could spend some serious time reading. THANKS! Kyle

    Read the article

  • How to get around batch file processing limit

    - by Patrick Cuff
    I have a Windows batch file that processes all the files in a given directory. I have 206,783 files I need to process: for %%f in (*.xml) do call :PROCESS %%f goto :STOP :PROCESS :: do something with the file program.exe %1 > %1.new set /a COUNTER=%COUNTER%+1 goto :EOF :STOP @echo %COUNTER% files processed When I run the batch file, the following output is written: 65535 files processed As part of the processing, an output file is created for each file procesed, with a .new extension. When I do a dir *.new it reports 65,535 files exist. So, it appears my command environment has a hard limit on the number of files it can recognize, and that limit is 64K - 1. Is there a way to extend the command environment to manage more than 64K - 1 files? If not, would a VBScript or JavaScript be able to process all 206,783 files? I'm running on Windows 2003 server, Enterprise Edition, 32-bit. UPDATE It looks like the root cause of my issue was with the built-in Windows "extract" command for ZIP files. The files I have to process were copied from another system via a ZIP file. My server doesn't have a ZIP utility installed, just the native Windows commands. I right-clicked on the ZIP file, and did an "Extract all...", which apparently just extracted the first 65,535 files. I downloaded and installed 7-zip onto my server, unzipped all the files, and my batch script worked as intended.

    Read the article

  • make my file readable as either Perl or HTML

    - by JoelFan
    In the spirit of the "Perl Preamble" where a script works properly whether executed by a shell script interpreter or the Perl interpreter... I have a Perl script which contains an embedded HTML document (as a "heredoc"), i.e.: #!/usr/bin/perl ... some perl code ... my $html = <<'END' ; <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <HTML><HEAD> ... more HTML ... </html> END ... perl code that processes $html ... I would like to be able to work on the HTML that's inside the Perl script and check it out using a web browser, and only run the script when the HTML is the way I want. To accomplish this, I need the file to be openable both as an HTML file and as a Perl script. I have tried various tricks with Perl comments and HTML comments but can't get it quite perfect. It doesn't have to be "strictly legal" HTML... just displayable in a browser with no (or minimal) Perl garbage visible.

    Read the article

  • On Windows, how does console window ownership work?

    - by shroudednight
    When a console application is started from another console application, how does console ownership work? I see four possibilities: The second application inherits the console from the first application for its lifetime, with the console returning to the original owner on exit. Each application has its own console. Windows then somehow merges the content of the two into what the "console" visible to the user The second application get a handle to the console that belongs to the first application. The console is placed into shared memory and both applications have equal "ownership" It's quite possible that I missed something and none of these four options adequately describe what Windows does with its consoles. If the answer is close to option 4. My follow-up question is which of the two processes is responsible for managing the window? (Handling graphical updates when the screen needs to be refreshed / redrawn, etc) A concrete example: Run CMD. Then, using CMD, run [console application]. The [console application] will write to what appears to be the same console window that CMD was using.

    Read the article

  • OutOfMemoryException, large Private Data

    - by Captain Comic
    Hello, In previous series: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2543648/outofmemoryexception-stack-size-is-huge-large-number-of-threads I have a .net windows service that consumes a lot of memory. The GC heap is not big. Also the stack size is not big. What is big is something called a private data. Also I can see in task manager that my application consumes a lot something that taskmanager calls a handle. My application consumes 2326 handles. I believe that these handles are some windows handles that occupy private data. I can see that this private data is occupied by blocks marked as Thread Environment Block. What is that? Screenshot of my application memory usage by VMMap Screenshot of my application memory usage by Task Manager UPDATE I run ProcessExplorer. I have two instances of my service running at the moment. I can see that they consume a lot of virtual memory for Gen2 GC. This look suspicios. Also total reserved for GC Heap size is the same for two processes.

    Read the article

  • What is the reason of "Transaction context in use by another session"

    - by Shrike
    Hi, I'm looking for a description of the root of this error: "Transaction context in use by another session". I get it sometimes in one of my unittests so I can't provider repro code. But I wonder what is "by design" reason for the error. I've found this post: http://blogs.msdn.com/asiatech/archive/2009/08/10/system-transaction-may-fail-in-multiple-thread-environment.aspx and also that: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff649002.aspx But I can't understand what "Multiple threads sharing the same transaction in a transaction scope will cause the following exception: 'Transaction context in use by another session.' " means. All words are understandable but not the point. I actually can share a system transaction between threads. And there is even special mechanism for this - DependentTransaction class and Transaction.DependentClone method. I'm trying to reproduce a usecase from the first post: 1. Main thread creates DTC transaction, receives DependentTransaction (created using Transaction.Current.DependentClone on the main thread 2. Child thread 1 enlists in this DTC transaction by creating a transaction scope based on the dependent transaction (passed via constructor) 3. Child thread 1 opens a connection 4. Child thread 2 enlists in DTC transaction by creating a transaction scope based on the dependent transaction (passed via constructor) 5. Child thread 2 opens a connection with such code: using System; using System.Threading; using System.Transactions; using System.Data; using System.Data.SqlClient; public class Program { private static string ConnectionString = "Initial Catalog=DB;Data Source=.;User ID=user;PWD=pwd;"; public static void Main() { int MAX = 100; for(int i =0; i< MAX;i++) { using(var ctx = new TransactionScope()) { var tx = Transaction.Current; // make the transaction distributed using (SqlConnection con1 = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) using (SqlConnection con2 = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) { con1.Open(); con2.Open(); } showSysTranStatus(); DependentTransaction dtx = Transaction.Current.DependentClone(DependentCloneOption.BlockCommitUntilComplete); Thread t1 = new Thread(o => workCallback(dtx)); Thread t2 = new Thread(o => workCallback(dtx)); t1.Start(); t2.Start(); t1.Join(); t2.Join(); ctx.Complete(); } trace("root transaction completes"); } } private static void workCallback(DependentTransaction dtx) { using(var txScope1 = new TransactionScope(dtx)) { using (SqlConnection con2 = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) { con2.Open(); trace("connection opened"); showDbTranStatus(con2); } txScope1.Complete(); } trace("dependant tran completes"); } private static void trace(string msg) { Console.WriteLine(Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId + " : " + msg); } private static void showSysTranStatus() { string msg; if (Transaction.Current != null) msg = Transaction.Current.TransactionInformation.DistributedIdentifier.ToString(); else msg = "no sys tran"; trace( msg ); } private static void showDbTranStatus(SqlConnection con) { var cmd = con.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "SELECT 1"; var c = cmd.ExecuteScalar(); trace("@@TRANCOUNT = " + c); } } It fails on Complete's call of root TransactionScope. But error is different: Unhandled Exception: System.Transactions.TransactionInDoubtException: The transaction is in doubt. --- pired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. To sum up: I want to understand what "Transaction context in use by another session" means and how to reproduce it.

    Read the article

  • Process.CloseMainWindow() not working

    - by gehho
    I start the Windows On-Screen-Keyboard like that: s_onScreenKeyboard = new Process(); s_onScreenKeyboard.StartInfo = new ProcessStartInfo("osk.exe"); s_onScreenKeyboard.EnableRaisingEvents = true; s_onScreenKeyboard.Exited += new EventHandler(s_onScreenKeyboard_Exited); s_onScreenKeyboard.Start(); This works fine, but when I try to stop it using the following code, it does nothing: s_onScreenKeyboard.CloseMainWindow(); if (!s_onScreenKeyboard.HasExited) { if (!s_onScreenKeyboard.WaitForExit(1000)) { s_onScreenKeyboard.Close(); //s_onScreenKeyboard.Kill(); } } When uncommenting s_onScreenKeyboard.Kill(); it is closed, but the problem is that osk.exe obviously uses another process called "msswchx.exe" which is not closed if I simply kill the OSK process. This way, I would end up with hundreds of these processes which is not what I want. Another strange thing is that the CloseMainWindow() call worked at some time, but then it suddenly did not work anymore, and I do not remember what has changed. Any ideas? Background: I am implementing an On-Screen-Keyboard for my application because it should work with a touchscreen. It is important that the keyboard layout matches the layout which is configured in Windows since the application will be shipped to many different countries. Therefore, instead of implementing a custom keyboard control with approx. 537 keyboard layouts (exaggerating a little here...), I wanted to utilize the Windows built-in On-Screen-Keyboard which adapts to the selected keyboard layout automatically, saving a lot of work for me.

    Read the article

  • ubuntu: sem_timedwait not waking (C)

    - by gillez
    I have 3 processes which need to be synchronized. Process one does something then wakes process two and sleeps, which does something then wakes process three and sleeps, which does something and wakes process one and sleeps. The whole loop is timed to run around 25hz (caused by an external sync into process one before it triggers process two in my "real" application). I use sem_post to trigger (wake) each process, and sem_timedwait() to wait for the trigger. This all works successfully for several hours. However at some random time (usually after somewhere between two and four hours), one of the processes starts timing out in sem_timedwait(), even though I am sure the semaphore is being triggered with sem_post(). To prove this I even use sem_getvalue() immediately after the timeout, and the value is 1, so the timedwait should have been triggered. Please see following code: #include <stdio.h> #include <time.h> #include <string.h> #include <errno.h> #include <semaphore.h> sem_t trigger_sem1, trigger_sem2, trigger_sem3; // The main thread process. Called three times with a different num arg - 1, 2 or 3. void *thread(void *arg) { int num = (int) arg; sem_t *wait, *trigger; int val, retval; struct timespec ts; struct timeval tv; switch (num) { case 1: wait = &trigger_sem1; trigger = &trigger_sem2; break; case 2: wait = &trigger_sem2; trigger = &trigger_sem3; break; case 3: wait = &trigger_sem3; trigger = &trigger_sem1; break; } while (1) { // The first thread delays by 40ms to time the whole loop. // This is an external sync in the real app. if (num == 1) usleep(40000); // print sem value before we wait. If this is 1, sem_timedwait() will // return immediately, otherwise it will block until sem_post() is called on this sem. sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("sem%d wait sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, num, val); // get current time and add half a second for timeout. gettimeofday(&tv, NULL); ts.tv_sec = tv.tv_sec; ts.tv_nsec = (tv.tv_usec + 500000); // add half a second if (ts.tv_nsec > 1000000) { ts.tv_sec++; ts.tv_nsec -= 1000000; } ts.tv_nsec *= 1000; /* convert to nanosecs */ retval = sem_timedwait(wait, &ts); if (retval == -1) { // timed out. Print value of sem now. This should be 0, otherwise sem_timedwait // would have woken before timeout (unless the sem_post happened between the // timeout and this call to sem_getvalue). sem_getvalue(wait, &val); printf("!!!!!! sem%d sem_timedwait failed: %s, val now %d\n", num, strerror(errno), val); } else printf("sem%d wakeup.\n", num); // get value of semaphore to trigger. If it's 1, don't post as it has already been // triggered and sem_timedwait on this sem *should* not block. sem_getvalue(trigger, &val); if (val <= 0) { printf("sem%d send sync sem%d. val before %d\n", num, (num == 3 ? 1 : num+1), val); sem_post(trigger); } else printf("!! sem%d not sending sync, val %d\n", num, val); } } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { pthread_t t1, t2, t3; // create semaphores. val of sem1 is 1 to trigger straight away and start the whole ball rolling. if (sem_init(&trigger_sem1, 0, 1) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_listman semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem2, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_comms semaphore"); if (sem_init(&trigger_sem3, 0, 0) == -1) perror("Error creating trigger_vws semaphore"); pthread_create(&t1, NULL, thread, (void *) 1); pthread_create(&t2, NULL, thread, (void *) 2); pthread_create(&t3, NULL, thread, (void *) 3); pthread_join(t1, NULL); pthread_join(t2, NULL); pthread_join(t3, NULL); } The following output is printed when the program is running correctly (at the start and for a random but long time after). The value of sem1 is always 1 before thread1 waits as it sleeps for 40ms, by which time sem3 has triggered it, so it wakes straight away. The other two threads wait until the semaphore is received from the previous thread. [...] sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 sem2 wakeup. sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 sem3 wakeup. sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 1 sem1 wakeup. sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 [...] However, after a few hours, one of the threads begins to timeout. I can see from the output that the semaphore is being triggered, and when I print the value after the timeout is is 1. So sem_timedwait should have woken up well before the timeout. I would never expect the value of the semaphore to be 1 after the timeout, save for the very rare occasion (almost certainly never but it's possible) when the trigger happens after the timeout but before I call sem_getvalue. Also, once it begins to fail, every sem_timedwait() on that semaphore also fails in the same way. See the following output, which I've line-numbered: 01 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 02 sem1 wakeup. 03 sem1 send sync sem2. val before 0 04 sem2 wakeup. 05 sem2 send sync sem3. val before 0 06 sem2 wait sync sem2. val before 0 07 sem1 wait sync sem1. val before 0 08 !!!!!! sem3 sem_timedwait failed: Connection timed out, val now 1 09 sem3 send sync sem1. val before 0 10 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 1 11 sem3 wakeup. 12 !! sem3 not sending sync, val 1 13 sem3 wait sync sem3. val before 0 14 sem1 wakeup. [...] On line 1, thread 3 (which I have confusingly called sem1 in the printf) waits for sem3 to be triggered. On line 5, sem2 calls sem_post for sem3. However, line 8 shows sem3 timing out, but the value of the semaphore is 1. thread3 then triggers sem1 and waits again (10). However, because the value is already 1, it wakes straight away. It doesn't send sem1 again as this has all happened before control is given to thread1, however it then waits again (val is now 0) and sem1 wakes up. This now repeats for ever, sem3 always timing out and showing that the value is 1. So, my question is why does sem3 timeout, even though the semaphore has been triggered and the value is clearly 1? I would never expect to see line 08 in the output. If it times out (because, say thread 2 has crashed or is taking too long), the value should be 0. And why does it work fine for 3 or 4 hours first before getting into this state? This is using Ubuntu 9.4 with kernel 2.6.28. The same procedure has been working properly on Redhat and Fedora. But I'm now trying to port to ubuntu! Thanks for any advice, Giles

    Read the article

  • Java Swingworker: Not as encapsulated class

    - by Thomas Matthews
    I'm having problems passing information, updating progress and indicating "done" with a SwingWorker class that is not an encapsulated class. I have a simple class that processes files and directories on a hard drive. The user clicks on the Start button and that launches an instance of the SwingWorker. I would like to print the names of the files that are processed on the JTextArea in the Event Driven Thread from the SwingWorker as update a progress bar. All the examples on the web are for an nested class, and the nested class accesses variables in the outer class (such as the done method). I would also like to signal the Event Driven Thread that the SwingWorker is finished so the EDT can perform actions such as enabling the Start button (and clearing fields). Here are my questions: 1. How does the SwingWorker class put text into the JTextArea of the Event Driven Thread and update a progress bar? How does the EDT determine when the {external} SwingWorker thread is finished? {I don't want the SwingWorker as a nested class because there is a lot of code (and processing) done.}

    Read the article

  • Collision Attacks, Message Digests and a Possible solution

    - by Dominar
    I've been doing some preliminary research in the area of message digests. Specifically collision attacks of cryptographic hash functions such as MD5 and SHA-1, such as the Postscript example and X.509 certificate duplicate. From what I can tell in the case of the postscript attack, specific data was generated and embedded within the header of the postscript (which is ignored during rendering) which brought about the internal state of the md5 to a state such that the modified wording of the document would lead to a final MD equivalent to the original. The X.509 took a similar approach where by data was injected within the comment/whitespace of the certificate. Ok so here is my question, and I can't seem to find anyone asking this question: Why isn't the length of ONLY the data being consumed added as a final block to the MD calculation? In the case of X.509 - Why is the whitespace and comments being taken into account as part of the MD? Wouldn't a simple processes such as one of the following be enough to resolve the proposed collision attacks: MD(M + |M|) = xyz MD(M + |M| + |M| * magicseed_0 +...+ |M| * magicseed_n) = xyz where : M : is the message |M| : size of the message MD : is the message digest function (eg: md5, sha, whirlpool etc) xyz : is the acutal message digest value for the message M magicseed_{i}: Is a set random values generated with seed based on the internal-state prior to the size being added. This technqiue should work, as to date all such collision attacks rely on adding more data to the original message. In short, the level of difficulty involved in generating a collision message such that: It not only generates the same MD But is also comprehensible/parsible/compliant and is also the same size as the original message, is immensely difficult if not near impossible. Has this approach ever been discussed? Any links to papers etc would be nice.

    Read the article

  • Join 2 children tables with a parent tables without duplicated

    - by user1847866
    Problem I have 3 tables: People, Phones and Emails. Each person has an UNIQUE ID, and each person can have multiple numbers or multiple emails. Simplified it looks like this: +---------+----------+ | ID | Name | +---------+----------+ | 5000003 | Amy | | 5000004 | George | | 5000005 | John | | 5000008 | Steven | | 8000009 | Ashley | +---------+----------+ +---------+-----------------+ | ID | Number | +---------+-----------------+ | 5000005 | 5551234 | | 5000005 | 5154324 | | 5000008 | 2487312 | | 8000009 | 7134584 | | 5000008 | 8451384 | +---------+-----------------+ +---------+------------------------------+ | ID | Email | +---------+------------------------------+ | 5000005 | [email protected] | | 5000005 | [email protected] | | 5000008 | [email protected] | | 5000008 | [email protected] | | 5000008 | [email protected] | | 8000009 | [email protected] | | 5000004 | [email protected] | +---------+------------------------------+ I am trying to joining them together without duplicates. It works great, when I try to join only Emails with People or only Phones with People. SELECT People.Name, People.ID, Phones.Number FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Phones ON People.ID=Phones.ID ORDER BY Name, ID, Number; +----------+---------+-----------------+ | Name | ID | Number | +----------+---------+-----------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | | John | 5000005 | 5154324 | | George | 5000004 | NULL | | Ashley | 8000009 | 7134584 | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | +----------+---------+-----------------+ SELECT People.Name, People.ID, Emails.Email FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Emails ON People.ID=Emails.ID ORDER BY Name, ID, Email; +----------+---------+------------------------------+ | Name | ID | Email | +----------+---------+------------------------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | [email protected] | | George | 5000004 | [email protected] | | Ashley | 8000009 | [email protected] | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | +----------+---------+------------------------------+ However, when I try to join Emails and Phones on People - I get this: SELECT People.Name, People.ID, Phones.Number, Emails.Email FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Phones ON People.ID = Phones.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Emails ON People.ID = Emails.ID ORDER BY Name, ID, Number, Email; +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Name | ID | Number | Email | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5154324 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5154324 | [email protected] | | George | 5000004 | NULL | [email protected] | | Ashley | 8000009 | 7134584 | [email protected] | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | NULL | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ What happens is - if a Person has 2 numbers, all his emails are shown twice (They can not be sorted! which means they can not be removed by @last) What I want: Bottom line, playing with the @last, I want to end up with somethig like this, but @last won't work if I don't arrange ORDER columns in the righ way - and this seems like a big problem..Orderin the email column. Because seen from the example above: Steven has 2 phone number and 3 emails. The JOIN Emails with Numbers happens with each email - thus duplicated values that can not be sorted (SORT BY does not work on them). **THIS IS WHAT I WANT** +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Name | ID | Number | Email | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | | | 24887312 | [email protected] | | | | | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | [email protected] | | | | 5154324 | [email protected] | | George | 5000004 | NULL | [email protected] | | Ashley | 8000009 | 7134584 | [email protected] | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | NULL | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ Now I'm told that it's best to keep emails and number in separated tables because one can have many emails. So if it's such a common thing to do, what isn't there a simple solution? I'd be happy with a PHP Solution aswell. What I know how to do by now that satisfies it, but is not as pretty. If I do it with GROUP_CONTACT I geat a satisfactory result, but it doesn't look as pretty: I can't put a "Email type = work" next to it. SELECT People.Ime, GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Phones.Number), GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Emails.Email) FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Phones ON People.ID=Phones.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Emails ON People.ID=Emails.ID GROUP BY Name; +----------+----------------------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | Name | GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Phones.Number) | GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Emails.Email) | +----------+----------------------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | Steven | 8451384,24887312 | [email protected],[email protected],[email protected] | | John | 5551234,5154324 | [email protected],[email protected] | | George | NULL | [email protected] | | Ashley | 7134584 | [email protected] | | Amy | NULL | NULL | +----------+----------------------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------------+

    Read the article

  • How do I declare an IStream in idl so visual studio maps it to s.w.interop.comtypes?

    - by Grahame Grieve
    hi I have a COM object that takes needs to take a stream from a C# client and processes it. It would appear that I should use IStream. So I write my idl like below. Then I use MIDL to compile to a tlb, and compile up my solution, register it, and then add a reference to my library to a C# project. Visual Studio creates an IStream definition in my own library. How can I stop it from doing that, and get it to use the COMTypes IStream? It seems there would be one of 3 answers: add some import to the idl so it doesn't redeclare IStream (importing MSCOREE does that, but doesn't solve the C# problem) somehow alias the IStream in visual studio - but I don't see how to do this. All my thinking i s completely wrong and I shouldn't be using IStream at all help...thanks [ uuid(3AC11584-7F6A-493A-9C90-588560DF8769), version(1.0), ] library TestLibrary { importlib("stdole2.tlb"); [ uuid(09FF25EC-6A21-423B-A5FD-BCB691F93C0C), version(1.0), helpstring("Just for testing"), dual, nonextensible, oleautomation ] interface ITest: IDispatch { [id(0x00000006),helpstring("Testing stream")] HRESULT _stdcall LoadFromStream([in] IStream * stream, [out, retval] IMyTest ** ResultValue); }; [ uuid(CC2864E4-55BA-4057-8687-29153BE3E046), noncreatable, version(1.0) ] coclass HCTest { [default] interface ITest; }; };

    Read the article

  • Fail to load NPAPI plugin in Google Chrome on Mac OS X

    - by Roman
    I have been trying to get Google Chrome (6.0.401.1 dev) on Mac OS X to load an NPAPI plugin without success so far. I have been working around the npsimple example from here: http://git.webvm.net/?p=npsimple. Using gcc on Mac and VC++ 2008 on Windows I managed to get it running on Safari and Firefox on Mac OS X and Firefox and Google Chrome on Windows, but not on Google Chrome on Mac OS X. When trying to debug Google Chrome on Mac OS X it seemed Google Chrome was briefly dyld-loading (and immediately dyld-unloading) the plugin on startup, but without actually looking-up any symbols within the plugin or calling any of the functions. It seemed to be doing that for every plugin, though. Also, when loading a page with the embed-tag for the plugin, Google Chrome did not seem to even dyld-load the plugin and no functions were called (not even NP_GetEntryPoints). Google Chrome also does not output any error message, it just simply does not load the plugin. I am not sure I caught everything with gdb because of Google Chrome using different processes, but I have also tried all the switches like --no-sandbox, --single-process and --plugin-startup-dialog (which incidentally does not seem to work at all on Mac OS X). I also made sure the architecture of the binary matches (i.e. 32-bit for Google Chrome). Has anybody had similar problems before? Is there anything I am missing here, like a gcc switch when compiling or something? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Named pipe blocking with user nobody

    - by dnagirl
    I have 2 short scripts. The first, an awk script, processes a large file and prints to a named pipe 'myfifo.dat'. The second, a Perl script, runs a LOAD DATA LOCAL INFILE 'myfifo.dat'... command. Both of these scripts work when run locally like so: lee.awk big.file & lee.pl However, when I call these scripts from a PHP webpage, the named pipe blocks: $awk="/path/to/lee.awk {$_FILES['uploadfile']['tmp_name']} &"; $sql="/path/to/lee.pl"; if(!exec($awk,$return,$err)) throw new ZException(print_r($err,true)); //blocks here if(!exec($sql,$return,$err)) throw new ZException(print_r($err,true)); If I modify the awk and Perl scripts so that they write and read to a normal file, everything works fine from PHP. The permissions on the fifo and the normal file are 666 (for testing purposes). These operations run much more quickly through a named pipe, so I'd prefer to use one. Any ideas how to unblock it? ps. In case you're wondering why I'm going to all this aggravation, see this SO question.

    Read the article

  • iPhone - return from an NSOperation

    - by lostInTransit
    Hi I am using a subclass of NSOperation to do some background processes. I want the operation to be cancelled when the user clicks a button. Here's what my NSOperation subclass looks like - (id)init{ self = [super init]; if(self){ //initialization code goes here _isFinished = NO; _isExecuting = NO; } return self; } - (void)start { if (![NSThread isMainThread]) { [self performSelectorOnMainThread:@selector(start) withObject:nil waitUntilDone:NO]; return; } [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; _isExecuting = YES; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; //operation goes here } - (void)finish{ //releasing objects here [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isFinished"]; _isExecuting = NO; _isFinished = YES; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isExecuting"]; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isFinished"]; } - (void)cancel{ [self willChangeValueForKey:@"isCancelled"]; [self didChangeValueForKey:@"isCancelled"]; [self finish]; } And this is how I am adding objects of this class to a queue and listening for KVO notifications operationQueue = [[NSOperationQueue alloc] init]; [operationQueue setMaxConcurrentOperationCount:5]; [operationQueue addObserver:self forKeyPath:@"operations" options:0 context:&OperationsChangedContext]; - (void)observeValueForKeyPath:(NSString *)keyPath ofObject:(id)object change:(NSDictionary *)change context:(void *)context { if (context == &OperationsChangedContext) { NSLog(@"Queue size: %u", [[operationQueue operations] count]); } else { [super observeValueForKeyPath:keyPath ofObject:object change:change context:context]; } } To cancel an operation (on a button click for instance), I tried calling -cancel but it doesn't make a difference. Also tried calling -finish but even that doesn't change anything. Every time I add an operation to the queue, the queue size only increases. finish is called (checked using NSLog statements) but it doesn't really end the operation. I'm still not very confident I'm doing this right Can someone please tell me where I am going wrong? Thanks a lot

    Read the article

  • Python for a hobbyist programmer ( a few questions)

    - by Matt
    I'm a hobbyist programmer (only in TI-Basic before now), and after much, much, much debating with myself, I've decided to learn Python. I don't have a ton of free time to teach myself a hundred languages and all programming I do will be for personal use or for distributing to people who need them, so I decided that I needed one good, strong language to be good at. My questions: Is python powerful enough to handle most things that a typical programmer might do in his off-time? I have in mind things like complex stat generators based on user input for tabletop games, making small games, automate install processes, and build interactive websites, but probably a hundred things along those lines Does python handle networking tasks fairly well? Can python source be obscufated (mispelled I think), or is it going to be open-source by nature? The reason I ask this is because if I make something cool and distribute it, I don't want some idiot script kiddie to edit his own name in and say he wrote it And how popular is python, compared to other languages. Ideally, my language would be good and useful with help found online without extreme difficulty, but not so common that every idiot with computer knows python. I like the idea of knowing a slightly obscure language. Thanks a ton for any help you can provide.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 641 642 643 644 645 646 647 648 649 650 651 652  | Next Page >