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  • How to restrict access to a class's data based on state?

    - by Marcus Swope
    In an ETL application I am working on, we have three basic processes: Validate and parse an XML file of customer information from a third party Match values received in the file to values in our system Load customer data in our system The issue here is that we may need to display the customer information from any or all of the above states to an internal user and there is data in our customer class that will never be populated before the values have been matched in our system (step 2). For this reason, I would like to have the values not even be available to be accessed when the customer is in this state, and I would like to have to avoid some repeated logic everywhere like: if (customer.IsMatched) DisplayTextOnWeb(customer.SomeMatchedValue); My first thought for this was to add a couple interfaces on top of Customer that would only expose the properties and behaviors of the current state, and then only deal with those interfaces. The problem with this approach is that there seems to be no good way to move from an ICustomerWithNoMatchedValues to an ICustomerWithMatchedValues without doing direct casts, etc... (or at least I can't find one). I can't be the first to have come across this, how do you normally approach this? As a last caveat, I would like for this solution to play nice with FluentNHibernate :) Thanks in advance...

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  • Seam:token tag not being respected

    - by JBristow
    When I click a command button, and then hit the browser back button to the form and click it again, it submits a second time without throwing the proper exception... Even stranger, the form id itself is DIFFERENT when I come back, which implies it has regenerated a "valid" form id at some point. Here's the relevant code: Any ideas? <h:form id="accountActivationForm"> <s:token/> <a4j:commandButton id="cancelActivateAccountButton" action="#{controller[cancelAction]}" image="/images/button-Cancel-gray.gif" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onCancelComplete}" /> &#160; <a4j:commandButton id="activateAccountButton" action="#{controller[agreeAction]}" image="/images/button-i-agree-continue.gif" styleClass="activate-account-button" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onActivationComplete}"/> </h:form> Clarifications: I inherited this, so I'm trying to change it as little as possible. (It's used in a couple places.) Each action returns a view, not null. I have confirmed this by stepping through line-by-line. The reRenderList is empty in my current test-case. onActivationComplete is also empty. I'm going to be going template-by-template to see if someone made it with nested forms, because my coworkers have had unrelated problems due to that, so it couldn't hurt to eliminate that as a possible problem.

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  • Setting database-agnostic default column timestamp using Hibernate

    - by unsquared
    I'm working on a java project full of Hibernate (3.3.1) mapping files that have the following sort of declaration for most domain objects. <property name="dateCreated" generated="insert"> <column name="date_created" default="getdate()" /> </property> The problem here is that getdate() is an MSSQL specific function, and when I'm using something like H2 to test subsections of the project, H2 screams that getdate() isn't a recognized function. It's own timestamping function is current_timestamp(). I'd like to be able to keep working with H2 for testing, and wanted to know whether there was a way of telling Hibernate "use this database's own mechanism for retrieving the current timestamp". With H2, I've come up with the following solution. CREATE ALIAS getdate AS $$ java.util.Date now() { return new java.util.Date(); } $$; CALL getdate(); It works, but is obviously H2 specific. I've tried extending H2Dialect and registering the function getdate(), but that doesn't seem to be invoked when Hibernate is creating tables. Is it possible to abstract the idea of a default timestamp away from the specific database engine?

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  • sending HTML email with a variable in the URL

    - by Rob Crouch
    I am using the following script to send a dynamic page (php) as a html email... the page being emailed uses a variable in the URL to determine what record is shown from a database <? $evid = $_GET['evid']; $to = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'A test email!'; // To send HTML mail, the Content-type header must be set $headers = 'MIME-Version: 1.0' . "\r\n"; $headers .= 'Content-type: text/html; charset=iso-8859-1' . "\r\n"; // Put your HTML here $message = file_get_contents('http://www.url.co.uk/diary/i.php?evid=2'); // Mail it mail($to, $subject, $message, $headers); ?> as you can see the html file being emailed has a evid variable... if i set this to $evid and try to send the variable when running the current script I get an error... does anyone know of a way round this? hope i explained that clear enough Rob

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  • adding header row to gridview won't allow you to save the last item row

    - by Lex
    I've modified my GridView to have an extra Header row, however that extra row has caused my grid view row count to be incorrect. Basically, when I want to save the Gridview now, it doesn't recognize the last item line. In my current test I have 5 Item Lines, however only 4 of them are being saved. My code for creating the additional header Line: protected void gvStatusReport_RowDataBound(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { // This grid has multiple rows, fake the top row. if (e.Row.RowType == DataControlRowType.Header) { SortedList FormatCells = new SortedList(); FormatCells.Add("1", ",6,1"); FormatCells.Add("2", "Time Spent,7,1"); FormatCells.Add("3", "Total,2,1"); FormatCells.Add("4", ",6,1"); GetMultiRowHeader(e, FormatCells); } } The function to create a new row: public void GetMultiRowHeader(GridViewRowEventArgs e, SortedList GetCels) { GridViewRow row; IDictionaryEnumerator enumCels = GetCels.GetEnumerator(); row = new GridViewRow(-1, -1, DataControlRowType.Header, DataControlRowState.Normal); while (enumCels.MoveNext()) { string[] count = enumCels.Value.ToString().Split(Convert.ToChar(",")); TableCell cell = new TableCell(); cell.RowSpan = Convert.ToInt16(count[2].ToString()); cell.ColumnSpan = Convert.ToInt16(count[1].ToString()); cell.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(count[0].ToString())); cell.HorizontalAlign = HorizontalAlign.Center; row.Cells.Add(cell); } e.Row.Parent.Controls.AddAt(0, row); } Then when I'm going to save, I loop through the rows: int totalRows = gvStatusReport.Rows.Count; for (int rowNumber = 0; rowNumber < totalRows; rowNumber++) { However the first line doesn't seem to have any of the columns that the item row has, and the last line doesn't even show up. My problem is that I do need the extra header line, but what is the best way to fix this?

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  • WPF - Adding ContentControl to Custom Canvas

    - by Alp Hancioglu
    I have a custom DrawingCanvas which is inherited from Canvas. When I add a ContentControl to DrawingCanvas with the following code nothing shows up. GraphicsRectangle rect = new GraphicsRectangle(0, 0, 200, 200, 5, Colors.Blue); DrawingContainer host = new DrawingContainer(rect); ContentControl control = new ContentControl(); control.Width = 200; control.Height = 200; DrawingCanvas.SetLeft(control, 100); DrawingCanvas.SetTop(control, 100); control.Style = Application.Current.Resources["DesignerItemStyle"] as Style; control.Content = host; drawingCanvas.Children.Add(control); GraphicsRectangle is a DrawingVisual and the constructor above draws a Rect with (0,0) top left point and length of 200 to the drawingContext of GraphicsRectangle. DrawingContainer is a FrameworkElement and it has one child, which is rect above, given with constructor. DrawingContainer implements GetVisualChild and VisualChildrenCount override methods. At last, Content property of ContentControl is set to the DrawingContainer to be able to show the DrawingVisual's content. When I add the created ContentControl to a regular Canvas, control is showed correctly. I guess the reason is that DrawingCanvas doesn't implement ArrangeOverride method. It only implements MeasureOverride method. Also DrawingContainer doesn't implement Measure and Arrange override methods. Any ideas?

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  • mod_rewrite/GoDaddy problem

    - by John Deerhake
    Ok, so I really don't know much about mod_rewrite and I'm looking over the apache docs and still not figuring this out. Here is my htaccess (which is mostly just copy & pasted from a site I found): .htaccess in base dir: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine on RewriteRule ^$ public/ [L] RewriteRule (.*) public/$1 [L] </IfModule> .htaccess in /public dir: <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [PT,L] </IfModule> Basically I'm using the above htaccess files on my current test server and it works great and exactly like I would expect (everything gets seamlessly redirected to public dir). Now when I throw this on my GoDaddy hosting account i get "Internal Server Errror". I've done some searching and I'm fairly certain I should be able to use mod_rewrite with GoDaddy. I suspect this is because I'm not using the base directory to host the site in. The site is in in the folder html/myapp/ (where html is the base directory) and i have a subdomain set up in GoDaddy to look in that folder.

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  • Ninject InThreadScope Binding

    - by e36M3
    I have a Windows service that contains a file watcher that raises events when a file arrives. When an event is raised I will be using Ninject to create business layer objects that inside of them have a reference to an Entity Framework context which is also injected via Ninject. In my web applications I always used InRequestScope for the context, that way within one request all business layer objects work with the same Entity Framework context. In my current Windows service scenario, would it be sufficient to switch the Entity Framework context binding to a InThreadScope binding? In theory when an event handler in the service triggers it's executed under some thread, then if another file arrives simultaneously it will be executing under a different thread. Therefore both events will not be sharing an Entity Framework context, in essence just like two different http requests on the web. One thing that bothers me is the destruction of these thread scoped objects, when you look at the Ninject wiki: .InThreadScope() - One instance of the type will be created per thread. .InRequestScope() - One instance of the type will be created per web request, and will be destroyed when the request ends. Based on this I understand that InRequestScope objects will be destroyed (garbage collected?) when (or at some point after) the request ends. This says nothing however on how InThreadScope objects are destroyed. To get back to my example, when the file watcher event handler method is completed, the thread goes away (back to the thread pool?) what happens to the InThreadScope-d objects that were injected? EDIT: One thing is clear now, that when using InThreadScope() it will not destroy your object when the handler for the filewatcher exits. I was able to reproduce this by dropping many files in the folder and eventually I got the same thread id which resulted in the same exact Entity Framework context as before, so it's definitely not sufficient for my applications. In this case a file that came in 5 minutes later could be using a stale context that was assigned to the same thread before.

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  • CSS layout - Aligning two divs side by side

    - by Ronnie
    Hello, I have a small problem. I am trying to align two divs side by side using CSS, however, I would like the center div to be positioned horizontally central in the page, I achieved this by using: #page-wrap { margin 0 auto; } Thats worked fine. The second div I would like positioned to the left side of the central page wrap but I can't manage to do this using floats although I'm sure it is possible. Maybe its best to show the example of what I am describing: I would like to push the red div up alongside the white div. Here is my current CSS concerning these two divs, sidebar being the red div and page-wrap being the white div: #sidebar { width: 200px; height: 400px; background: red; float: left; } #page-wrap { margin: 0 auto; width: 600px; background: #ffffff; height: 400px; } Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How to group data changes by operation with MySQL triggers

    - by Jan-Henk
    I am using triggers in MySQL to log changes to the data. These changes are recorded on a row level. I can now insert an entry in my log table for each row that is changed. However, I also need to record the operation to which the changes belong. For example, a delete operation like "DELETE * FROM table WHERE type=x" can delete multiple rows. With the trigger I can insert an entry for each deleted row into the log table, but I would like to also provide a unique identifier for the operation as a whole, so that the log table looks something like: log_id operation_id tablename fieldname oldvalue newvalue 1 1 table id 1 null 2 1 table type a null 3 1 table id 2 null 4 1 table type a null 5 2 table id 3 null 6 2 table type b null 7 2 table id 4 null 8 2 table type b null Is there a way in MySQL to identify the higher level operation to which the row changes belong? Or is this only possible by means of application level code? In the future it would also be nice to be able to record the transaction to which an operation belongs. Another question is if it is possible to capture the actual SQL query, besides using the query log. I don't think so myself, but maybe I am missing something. It is of course possible to capture these at the application level, but the goal is to keep intrusions to the application level code as minimal as possible. When this is not possible with MySQL, how is this with other database systems? For the current project it is not an option to use something other than MySQL, but it would be nice to know for future projects.

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  • Sending solicited mass email

    - by Christian W
    Our company does work environment surveys, and these surveys are filled in online. All participants are sent a link to their survey in an email (personal code included). Some of our clients have employee counts in the hundreds and sometimes in the thousands. Our current solution is just using our SMTP-server to send this, without any form of throttling (VB6, CDO). (All recipients are usually "inside" the same domain, [email protected]) This is not a good solution, as you may imagine, this triggers every anti-spam/firewall/gatekeeper event in the clients environment. We are put in contact with their IT-department beforehand and get them to whitelist our sending server and sender-mail address. The most usual problems we run in to are: Receiving server only grabs the 20-50 first mails and rejects the rest (anti-spam measure). We sometimes can get by this by getting the it-company to whitelist us. Sometimes however, this does not work. It's getting more and more normal to disable bouncing of incorrect mail addresses. This gives us no indication of whether a mail has been delivered or not. And believe it or not, most clients gives us their email list from their HR-system, not their mailsystem. Does anyone have any suggestions for a better way to do this? We can't be the only company sending legitimate mass emails? :)

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  • Testing system where App-level and Request-level IoC containers exist

    - by Bobby
    My team is in the process of developing a system where we're using Unity as our IoC container; and to provide NHibernate ISessions (Units of work) over each HTTP Request, we're using Unity's ChildContainer feature to create a child container for each request, and sticking the ISession in there. We arrived at this approach after trying others (including defining per-request lifetimes in the container, but there are issues there) and are now trying to decide on a unit testing strategy. Right now, the application-level container itself is living in the HttpApplication, and the Request container lives in the HttpContext.Current. Obviously, neither exist during testing. The pain increases when we decided to use Service Location from our Domain layer, to "lazily" resolve dependencies from the container. So now we have more components wanting to talk to the container. We are also using MSTest, which presents some concurrency dilemmas during testing as well. So we're wondering, what do the bright folks out there in the SO community do to tackle this predicament? How does one setup an application that, during "real" runtime, relies on HTTP objects to hold the containers, but during test has the flexibility to build-up and tear-down the containers consistently, and have the ServiceLocation bits get to those precise containers. I hope the question is clear, thanks!

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  • Do overlays work correctly in Emacs for Windows?

    - by Cheeso
    I'm using Flymake on C# code, emacs v22.2.1 on Windows. The Flymake stuff has been working well for me. For those who don't know, you can read an overview of flymake, but the quick story is that flymake repeatedly builds the source file you are currently working on in the background, for the purpose of doing syntax checking. It then highlights the compiler warnings and erros in the current buffer. Flymake didn't work for C# initially, but I "monkey-patched it" and it works nicely now. If you edit C# in emacs, I highly recommend using flymake. The only problem I have is with the UI. Flymake highlights the errors and warnings nicely, and then inserts "overlays" with the full error or warning text. IF I hover the mouse pointer over the highlighted line in code, the overlay pops up. But as you can see, the overlay is truncated, and it doesn't display correctly. Flymake seems to be doing the right thing, it's the overlay part that seems broken. Do overlays work correctly in emacs for Windows? Where do I look to fix this?

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  • Recursive Perl detail need help

    - by Catarrunas
    Hi everybody, i think this is a simple problem, but i'm stuck with it for some time now! I need a fresh pair of eyes on this. The thing is i have this code in perl: #!c:/Perl/bin/perl use CGI qw/param/; use URI::Escape; print "Content-type: text/html\n\n"; my $directory = param ('directory'); $directory = uri_unescape ($directory); my @contents; readDir($directory); foreach (@contents) { print "$_\n"; } #------------------------------------------------------------------------ sub readDir(){ my $dir = shift; opendir(DIR, $dir) or die $!; while (my $file = readdir(DIR)) { next if ($file =~ m/^\./); if(-d $dir.$file) { #print $dir.$file. " ----- DIR\n"; readDir($dir.$file); } push @contents, ($dir . $file); } closedir(DIR); } I've tried to make it recursive. I need to have all the files of all of the directories and subdirectories, with the full path, so that i can open the files in the future. But my output only returns the files in the current directory and the files in the first directory that it finds. If i have 3 folders inside the directory it only shows the first one. Ex. of cmd call: "perl readDir.pl directory=C:/PerlTest/" Thanks

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  • Pushing to bare Git repository (remote) causes it to stop being bare

    - by NSD
    I have a local repository called TestRepo. I clone it with the --bare option, zip this clone up, and throw it on my server. Unzip it, and it's still bare. I then clone the bare remote repository locally over ssh with something like git clone ssh://[email protected]/~/TestRepo.git TestRepoCloned The local TestRepoCloned is not bare and has a remote called "origin." It appears to be tracking correctly from the looks of its config file [core] repositoryformatversion = 0 filemode = true bare = false logallrefupdates = true ignorecase = true [remote "origin"] fetch = +refs/heads/*:refs/remotes/origin/* url = ssh://[email protected]/~/TestRepo.git [branch "master"] remote = origin merge = refs/heads/master I edit an existing file. I commit the change to the current branch (master) via git commit -a -m "Edited a file." The commit succeeds and all is well. I decide to push this change to the remote repository via SSH with a git push The remote repository is now no longer bare, but has a complete working directory, and I get continuous error messages on all further attempts to push to it. Everything I've read seems to suggest that what I'm doing is correct, but it simply is not working. How am I supposed to push changes to a bare remote repo and actually keep it bare?

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  • sql server 2005 stored procedure unexpected behaviour

    - by user283405
    i have written a simple stored procedure (run as job) that checks user subscribe keyword alerts. when article posted the stored procedure sends email to those users if the subscribed keyword matched with article title. One section of my stored procedure is: OPEN @getInputBuffer FETCH NEXT FROM @getInputBuffer INTO @String WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN --PRINT @String INSERT INTO #Temp(ArticleID,UserID) SELECT A.ID,@UserID FROM CONTAINSTABLE(Question,(Text),@String) QQ JOIN Article A WITH (NOLOCK) ON A.ID = QQ.[Key] WHERE A.ID > @ArticleID FETCH NEXT FROM @getInputBuffer INTO @String END CLOSE @getInputBuffer DEALLOCATE @getInputBuffer This job run every 5 minute and it checks last 50 articles. It was working fine for last 3 months but a week before it behaved unexpectedly. The problem is that it sends irrelevant results. The @String contains user alert keyword and it matches to the latest articles using Full text search. The normal execution time is 3 minutes but its execution time is 3 days (in problem). Now the current status is its working fine but we are unable to find any reason why it sent irrelevant results. Note: I am already removing noise words from user alert keyword. I am using SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition.

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  • Response.Redirect in a COM+ Object Called from Classic ASP Page

    - by ajdams
    Basically we moved from IIS 5 to IIS 7 and I am trying to update some of our old COM objects to .NET by rewriting them in C#. What I am have so far is a Classic ASP page calling the COM+ object and then I am trying to do a simple redirect within the COM+ object (this is just for testing purposes, it's not what the object will do eventually). My problem/question is, why does the redirect call not work properly? Am I doing something wrong or can you not redirect within a COM+ object? All that happens is a blank white page comes up and if I check the IIS logs, I see no errors. Here is my code so far: In Classic ASP (the call to COM+) Set oBankReg = CreateObject("BVSRegistration.SignIn") oBankReg.GetBankId(bankid) Code in C# COM object: using System; using System.Web; using System.Text; using System.EnterpriseServices; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; [assembly: ApplicationName("BVSRegistration")] [assembly: Description("COM+ upgrade of the BVSRegistration VB6 SignIn.cls.")] [assembly: ApplicationActivation(ActivationOption.Server)] [assembly: ApplicationAccessControl(false, AccessChecksLevel = AccessChecksLevelOption.ApplicationComponent)] namespace BVSRegistration { public class SignIn : ServicedComponent { public void GetBankId(string bankid) { HttpContext.Current.Response.Redirect("http://www.google.com"); } } } Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Grails 1.2.0 not finding plugins in the default repository.

    - by Padraic
    I do not know what changed in my environment, but all of a sudden I can not pull any plugins from the default repository. I went through the _*.groovy scripts and nothing has changed in my grails home directory and it appears that the default repository url is set correctly (DEFAULT_PLUGIN_DIST = "http://plugins.grails.org"). I am assuming it is an environment setting that changed on me, because if I switch to an old version of grails that I have installed, 1.1.1 for example, list-plugins is returning a full list of plugins. When I run grails list-plugins in my current 1.2.0 environment I get the following output: Welcome to Grails 1.2.0 - http://grails.org/ Licensed under Apache Standard License 2.0 Grails home is set to: /opt/grails-1.2.0 Base Directory: /Users/padraic/Projects/TestApplicationMachine Resolving dependencies... Dependencies resolved in 1633ms. Running script /opt/grails-1.2.0/scripts/ListPlugins_.groovy Environment set to development Reading remote plugin list ... Plug-ins available in the core repository are listed below: hibernate <1.3.0.RC2 -- Hibernate for Grails tomcat <1.3.0.RC2 -- Apache Tomcat plugin for Grails webflow <1.3.0.RC2 -- Spring Web Flow Plugin Reading remote plugin list ... Plug-ins available in the default repository are listed below: spock <0.4-groovy-1.7-SNAPSHOT -- Spock Integration - spockframework.org Plug-ins you currently have installed are listed below: cloud-foundry 0.2 -- Cloud Foundry Plugin for Grails hibernate 1.2.0 -- Hibernate for Grails tomcat 1.2.0 -- Apache Tomcat plugin for Grails I find it very strange that it only finds the spock plugin. It makes me thing that either a)it is going to the wrong repository or b)my version setting is incorrect. Any ideas? Thanks, Padraic

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  • MVC Paging and Sorting Patterns: How to Page or Sort Re-Using Form Criteria

    - by CRice
    What is the best ASP.NET MVC pattern for paging data when the data is filtered by form criteria? This question is similar to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1425000/preserve-data-in-net-mvc but surely there is a better answer? Currently, when I click the search button this action is called: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Search(MemberSearchForm formSp, int? pageIndex, string sortExpression) {} That is perfect for the initial display of the results in the table. But I want to have page number links or sort expression links re-post the current form data (the user entered it the first time - persisted because it is returned as viewdata), along with extra route params 'pageIndex' or 'sortExpression', Can an ActionLink or RouteLink (which I would use for page numbers) post the form to the url they specify? <%= Html.RouteLink("page 2", "MemberSearch", new { pageIndex = 1 })%> At the moment they just do a basic redirect and do not post the form values so the search page loads fresh. In regular old web forms I used to persist the search params (MemberSearchForm) in the ViewState and have a GridView paging or sorting event reuse it.

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  • Map element position in data file to class property

    - by Augusto
    I need to read/write files, following a format provided by a third party specification. The specification itself is pretty simple: it says the position and the size of the data that will be saved in the file. For example: Position Size Description -------------------------------------------------- 0001 10 Device serial number 0011 02 Hour 0013 02 Minute 0015 02 Second 0017 02 Day 0019 02 Month 0021 02 Year The list is very long, it has about 400 elements. But lots of them can be combined. For example, hour, minute, second, day, month and year can be combined in a single DateTime object. I've splitted the elements into about 4 categories, and created separeted classes for holding the data. So, instead of a big structure representing the data, I have some smaller classes. I've also created different classes for reading and writing the data. The problem is: how to map the positions in the file to the objects properties, so that I don't need to repeat the values in the reading/writing class? I could use some custom attributes and retrieve them via reflection. But since the code will be running on devices with small memory and processor, it would be nice to find another way. My current read code looks like this: public void Read() { DataFile dataFile = new DataFile(); // the arguments are: position, size dataFile.SerialNumber = ReadLong(1, 10); //... } Any ideas on this one? Thanks!

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 DisplayFor()

    - by ZombieSheep
    I'm looking at the new version of ASP.NET MVC (see here for more details if you haven't seen it already) and I'm having some pretty basic trouble displaying the content of an object. In my control I have an object of type "Person", which I am passing to the view in ViewData.Model. All is well so far, and I can extact the object in the view ready for display. What I don't get, though, is how I need to call the Html.DisplayFor() method in order to get the data to screen. I've tried the following... <% MVC2test.Models.Person p = ViewData.Model as MVC2test.Models.Person; %> // snip <%= Html.DisplayFor(p => p) %> but I get the following message: CS0136: A local variable named 'p' cannot be declared in this scope because it would give a different meaning to 'p', which is already used in a 'parent or current' scope to denote something else I know this is not what I should be doing - I know that redefining a variable will producte this error, but I don't know how to access the object from the controller. So my question is, how do I pass the object to the view in order to display its properties? (I should add that I am reading up on this in my limited spare time, so it is entirely possible I have missed something fundamental) TIA

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  • How do I use a modalViewController Identically in Two Controllers?

    - by Theory
    I'm using the Three20 TTMessageController in my app. I've figured out how to use it, adding on a bunch of other stuff (including TTMessageControllerDelegate methods and ABPeoplePickerNavigationControllerDelegate methods). It works great for me, after a bit of a struggle to figure it out. The trouble I'm having now is a design issue: I want to use it identically in two different places, including with the same delegate methods. My current approach is that I've put all the code into a single class inheriting from NSObject, called ComposerProxy, and I'm just having the two controllers that use it use the proxy, like so: ComposerProxy *proxy = [[ComposerProxy alloc] initWithController:this]; [proxy go]; The go method constructs the TTMessageController, configures it, adds it to a UINavigationController, and presents it: [self.controller presentModalViewController: navController animated: YES]; This works great, as I have all my code nicely encapsulated in ComposerProxy and I need only the above two lines anywhere I want to use it. The downside, though, is that I can't dealloc the proxy variable without getting crashes. I can't autorelease it, either: same problem. So I'm wondering if my proxy approach is a poor one. How does one normally encapsulate a bunch of behaviors like this without requiring a lot of duplicate code in the classes that use it? Do I need to add a delegate class to my ComposerProxy and make the controller responsible for dismissing the modal view controller in a hypothetical composerDidFinish method or some such? Many TIA!

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  • Rhino Commons and Rhino Mocks Reference Documents?

    - by Ogre Psalm33
    Ok, is it just me, or does there seem to be a lack of (easy to find) reference documentation for Rhino Commons and Rhino Mocks? My coworkers have started using Rhino Mocks and Rhino Commons (particularly the NHibernate stuff), and I found a few tutorial-ish examples, which were good. But when I see them making use of a class in their code--let's pick something like Rhino.Commons.NHRepository, for example--I have been having a hard time just finding someplace on the web that tells me what Rhino.Commons.NHRepository is or what it does. I like to learn by looking at real examples, but using this approach, it's very handy to look at what the full docs are for a class, instead of just the current context. Similarly, I saw IaMockedRepository.Expect(...) being used in some code, but it took me forever to finally find this page that explains the AAA syntax for Rhino Mocks, which made it clear to me. I've found the Ayende.com wiki on Rhino Commons, but that seems to have a number of broken links. To me, the Rhino libraries seem like a great set of libraries in need of some desperate community help in the documentation area (Of course, as we all know, documentation is not the forte of most coders, and incomplete docs are all too common). Does anyone know if this is something in the works, someplace that some volunteer documenters are needed, or is there some great reference docs out there that I have somehow missed to Rhino Mocks and Rhino Commons?

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  • MS SQL datetime precision problem

    - by Nailuj
    I have a situation where two persons might work on the same order (stored in an MS SQL database) from two different computers. To prevent data loss in the case where one would save his copy of the order first, and then a little later the second would save his copy and overwrite the first, I've added a check against the lastSaved field (datetime) before saving. The code looks roughly like this: private bool orderIsChangedByOtherUser(Order localOrderCopy) { // Look up fresh version of the order from the DB Order databaseOrder = orderService.GetByOrderId(localOrderCopy.Id); if (databaseOrder != null && databaseOrder.LastSaved > localOrderCopy.LastSaved) { return true; } else { return false; } } This works for most of the time, but I have found one small bug. If orderIsChangedByOtherUser returns false, the local copy will have its lastSaved updated to the current time and then be persisted to the database. The value of lastSaved in the local copy and the DB should now be the same. However, if orderIsChangedByOtherUser is run again, it sometimes returns true even though no other user has made changes to the DB. When debugging in Visual Studio, databaseOrder.LastSaved and localOrderCopy.LastSaved appear to have the same value, but when looking closer they some times differ by a few milliseconds. I found this article with a short notice on the millisecond precision for datetime in SQL: Another problem is that SQL Server stores DATETIME with a precision of 3.33 milliseconds (0. 00333 seconds). The solution I could think of for this problem, is to compare the two datetimes and consider them equal if they differ by less than say 10 milliseconds. My question to you is then: are there any better/safer ways to compare two datetime values in MS SQL to see if they are exactly the same?

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  • Getting Safari document title/location with Scripting Bridge does not work in full-screen mode

    - by Mark
    I'm trying to get the URL and document title from the topmost Safari document/tab. I have an AppleScript and an objective-c version using Apple's Scripting Bridge framework. Both versions work fine for most web pages, however when I open a Youtube video in full-screen mode, the Scripting Bridge based version fails. The Apple Script works fine for "normal" and full-screen Safari windows. Can anyone see what is wrong with the Scripting Bridge code below to cause it to fail for full-screen Safari windows? Here the code (I omitted error checking for brevity): AppleScript: tell application "Safari" # Give us some time to open video in full-screen mode delay 10 do JavaScript "document.title" in document 0 end tell Scripting Bridge: SafariApplication* safari = [SBApplication applicationWithBundleIdentifier:@"com.apple.Safari"]; SBElementArray* windows = [safari windows]; SafariTab* currentTab = [[windows objectAtIndex: 0] currentTab]; // This fails when in full-screen mode: id result = [safari doJavaScript: @"document.title" in: currentTab]; NSLog(@"title: %@", result); Scripting Bridge error (with added line breaks): Apple event returned an error. Event = 'sfri'\'dojs'{ '----':'utxt'("document.title"), 'dcnm':'obj '{ 'want':'prop', 'from':'obj '{ 'want':'cwin', 'from':'null'(), 'form':'indx', 'seld':1 }, 'form':'prop', 'seld':'cTab' } } Error info = { ErrorNumber = -1728; ErrorOffendingObject = <SBObject @0x175c2de0: currentTab of SafariWindow 0 of application "Safari" (238)>; } I could not find details about the given error code. It complains about 'currentTab' which shows that the JavaScript event at least made it all the way to Safari. I assume that the current tab receives the event, but refuses to run the JS code, because it is in full-screen mode. However, why does this work for an AppleScript? Don't they use the same code path eventually? Any suggestions are greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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