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  • Javascript working in chrome but not in explorer

    - by Greg
    Hello, I am writing this code in html: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function setVisibility(id, visibility) { document.getElementById(id).style.display = visibility; } </script> <title>Welcome to the memory game</title> </head> <body> <h1>Welcome to the memory game!</h1> <input type="button" name="type" value='Show Layer' onclick="setVisibility('sub3', 'inline');"/> <input type="button" name="type" value='Hide Layer' onclick="setVisibility('sub3', 'none');"/> <div id="sub3">Message Box</div> </body> </html> It suppose to make the "div" disappear and reapper, but it works in chrome and not in explorer. Anyone has any idea how can I make it work in explorer (I tried allowing blocked content when that message about activeX appears in explorer)? Thanks, Greg

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  • My OpenCL kernel is slower on faster hardware.. But why?

    - by matdumsa
    Hi folks, As I was finishing coding my project for a multicore programming class I came up upon something really weird I wanted to discuss with you. We were asked to create any program that would show significant improvement in being programmed for a multi-core platform. I’ve decided to try and code something on the GPU to try out OpenCL. I’ve chosen the matrix convolution problem since I’m quite familiar with it (I’ve parallelized it before with open_mpi with great speedup for large images). So here it is, I select a large GIF file (2.5 MB) [2816X2112] and I run the sequential version (original code) and I get an average of 15.3 seconds. I then run the new OpenCL version I just wrote on my MBP integrated GeForce 9400M and I get timings of 1.26s in average.. So far so good, it’s a speedup of 12X!! But now I go in my energy saver panel to turn on the “Graphic Performance Mode” That mode turns off the GeForce 9400M and turns on the Geforce 9600M GT my system has. Apple says this card is twice as fast as the integrated one. Guess what, my timing using the kick-ass graphic card are 3.2 seconds in average… My 9600M GT seems to be more than two times slower than the 9400M.. For those of you that are OpenCL inclined, I copy all data to remote buffers before starting, so the actual computation doesn’t require roundtrip to main ram. Also, I let OpenCL determine the optimal local-worksize as I’ve read they’ve done a pretty good implementation at figuring that parameter out.. Anyone has a clue? edit: full source code with makefiles here http://www.mathieusavard.info/convolution.zip cd gimage make cd ../clconvolute make put a large input.gif in clconvolute and run it to see results

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  • ASP.MVC 2 RTM + ModelState Error at Id property

    - by Zote
    I have this classes: public class GroupMetadata { [HiddenInput(DisplayValue = false)] public int Id { get; set; } [Required] public string Name { get; set; } } [MetadataType(typeof(GrupoMetadata))] public partial class Group { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } } And this action: [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Group group) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { // Logic to save return RedirectToAction("Index"); } return View(group); } That's my view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<Group>" %> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <fieldset> <%= Html.EditorForModel() %> <p> <input type="submit" value="Save" /> </p> </fieldset> <% } %> <div> <%=Html.ActionLink("Back", "Index") %> </div> </asp:Content> But ModelState is always invalid! As I can see, for MVC validation 0 is invalid, but for me is valid. How can I fix it since, I didn't put any kind of validation in Id property? UPDATE: I don't know how or why, but renaming Id, in my case to PK, solves this problem. Do you know if this an issue in my logic/configuration or is an bug or expected behavior? Thank you

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  • Why does Clojure hang after hacing performed my calculations?

    - by Thomas
    Hi all, I'm experimenting with filtering through elements in parallel. For each element, I need to perform a distance calculation to see if it is close enough to a target point. Never mind that data structures already exist for doing this, I'm just doing initial experiments for now. Anyway, I wanted to run some very basic experiments where I generate random vectors and filter them. Here's my implementation that does all of this (defn pfilter [pred coll] (map second (filter first (pmap (fn [item] [(pred item) item]) coll)))) (defn random-n-vector [n] (take n (repeatedly rand))) (defn distance [u v] (Math/sqrt (reduce + (map #(Math/pow (- %1 %2) 2) u v)))) (defn -main [& args] (let [[n-str vectors-str threshold-str] args n (Integer/parseInt n-str) vectors (Integer/parseInt vectors-str) threshold (Double/parseDouble threshold-str) random-vector (partial random-n-vector n) u (random-vector)] (time (println n vectors (count (pfilter (fn [v] (< (distance u v) threshold)) (take vectors (repeatedly random-vector)))))))) The code executes and returns what I expect, that is the parameter n (length of vectors), vectors (the number of vectors) and the number of vectors that are closer than a threshold to the target vector. What I don't understand is why the programs hangs for an additional minute before terminating. Here is the output of a run which demonstrates the error $ time lein run 10 100000 1.0 [null] 10 100000 12283 [null] "Elapsed time: 3300.856 msecs" real 1m6.336s user 0m7.204s sys 0m1.495s Any comments on how to filter in parallel in general are also more than welcome, as I haven't yet confirmed that pfilter actually works.

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  • jqtransform form selector (onchange) problem !!!!

    - by Newbie
    I'm styling a form with Jqtransform script. The form includes a selector which enlist some cities, when i click a one, it should update the selector below it with some locations within that city. here is the code of the selector <select name="city" id="city" class="wide" onchange="populateDestrict(this)"> It was working fine with default style , but after applying JQ, it lost it's functionality I asked a question before here LINK and i did as Dormilich did by writing: $(function() { $("form.jqtransform").jqTransform(); $("#city").change(populateDestrict(this)); }); But it didn't work ! here is also the code of the function if it helps <script language="javascript"> function populateDestrict(obj){ var city=obj.value; if(city!=""){ $.post('city_state.php',{ city: city},function(xml){ $("#state").removeOption(/./); $("district",xml).each(function() { $("#state").addOption($("key",this).text(), $("value",this).text()); }); }); } } </script> Any help people ???????? Thanks

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  • DropDownListFor and relating my lambda to my ViewModel

    - by Daniel Harvey
    After googling for a while I'm still drawing a blank here. I'm trying to use a ViewModel to pull and provide a dictionary to a drop down list inside a strongly typed View: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master" Inherits="Notebook.ViewModels.CorporationJoinViewModel" %> ... <%: Html.DropDownListFor(c => c.CorpDictionary.Keys, new SelectList(Model.CorpDictionary, "Value", "Key"))%> I'm getting the error CS1061: 'object' does not contain a definition for 'CorpDictionary' and no extension method 'CorpDictionary' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found and the relevant bit of my ViewModel public class CorporationJoinViewModel { DB _db = new DB(); // data context public Dictionary<int, string> CorpDictionary { get { Dictionary<int, string> corporations = new Dictionary<int, string>(); int x = 0; foreach (Corporation corp in _db.Corporations) { corporations.Add(x, corp.name); } return corporations; } } I'll admit i have a pretty magical understanding of how linq is finding my ViewModel object from that lambda, and the error message is making me think it's not. Is my problem the method I'm using to pass the data? What am I missing here?

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  • rs232 communication, general timing question

    - by Sunny Dee
    Hi, I have a piece of hardware which sends out a byte of data representing a voltage signal at a frequency of 100Hz over the serial port. I want to write a program that will read in the data so I can plot it. I know I need to open the serial port and open an inputstream. But this next part is confusing me and I'm having trouble understanding the process conceptually: I create a while loop that reads in the data from the inputstream 1 byte at a time. How do I get the while loop timing so that there is always a byte available to be read whenever it reaches the readbyte line? I'm guessing that I can't just put a sleep function inside the while loop to try and match it to the hardware sample rate. Is it just a matter of continuing reading the inputstream in the while loop, and if it's too fast then it won't do anything (since there's no new data), and if it's too slow then it will accumulate in the inputstream buffer? Like I said, i'm only trying to understand this conceptually so any guidance would be much appreciated! I'm guessing the idea is independent of which programming language I'm using, but if not, assume it is for use in Java. Thanks!

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  • "Replay" the steps needed to recreate an error

    - by David
    I am going to create a typical business application that will be used by a few hundred consultants. Normally, the consultants would be presented with an error message with a standard text. As the application will be a complicated one with lots of changes being made to it constantly I would like the following: When an error message is presented, the user has the option to "send" the error message to the developers. The developers should be able to open the incoming file in i.e. Eclipse and debug the steps of the last 10 minutes of work step by step (one line at a time if they want to). Everything should be transparent, meaning that they for example should be able to see the return values of calls to the database. Are there any solutions that offer such functionality today, my preferred language is Python or also Java. I know that there will be a huge performance hit because of such functionality, but that is acceptable as this kind of software is not performance sensitive. It would be VERY nice if the database also had a cronology so that one could query the database for values that existed at the exact time that a specific line of code was run in the application, leading up to the bug.

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  • zeroclipboard does not work when loaded with ajax call

    - by kylex
    I have the following code which works the way one would expect (click on the button and it copies the text in the input box): <script type="text/javascript" src="ABSOLUTE_LINK/ZeroClipboard.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> ZeroClipboard.setMoviePath( 'ABSOLUTE_LINK/ZeroClipboard.swf' ); </script> Copy to Clipboard: <input type="text" id="clip_text" size="40" value="Copy me!"/><br/><br/> <div id="d_clip_button">Copy To Clipboard</div> <script language="JavaScript"> echo "var clip = new ZeroClipboard.Client(); clip.setText( '' ); // will be set later on mouseDown clip.setHandCursor( true ); clip.setCSSEffects( true ); clip.addEventListener( 'load', function(client) { } ); clip.addEventListener( 'complete', function(client, text) { alert("Copied text to clipboard: " + text ); } ); clip.addEventListener( 'mouseOver', function(client) { } ); clip.addEventListener( 'mouseOut', function(client) { } ); clip.addEventListener( 'mouseDown', function(client) { // set text to copy here clip.setText( document.getElementById('clip_text').value ); } ); clip.addEventListener( 'mouseUp', function(client) { } ); clip.glue( 'd_clip_button' ); </script> However, when this code is loaded using an ajax call, the functionality disappears. Is there anything I can do to get this working when it's called via ajax?

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  • Why use SQL database?

    - by martinthenext
    I'm not quite sure stackoverflow is a place for such a general question, but let's give it a try. Being exposed to the need of storing application data somewhere, I've always used MySQL or sqlite, just because it's always done like that. As it seems like the whole world is using these databases, most of all software products, frameworks, etc. It is rather hard for a beginning developer like me to ask a question - why? Ok, say we have some object-oriented logic in our application, and objects are related to each other somehow. We need to map this logic to the storage logic, so we need relations between database objects too. This leads us to using relational database and I'm ok with that - to put it simple, our database rows sometimes will need to have references to other tables' rows. But why do use SQL language for interaction with such a database? SQL query is a text message. I can understand this is cool for actually understanding what it does, but isn't it silly to use text table and column names for a part of application that no one ever seen after deploynment? If you had to write a data storage from scratch, you would have never used this kind of solution. Personally, I would have used some 'compiled db query' bytecode, that would be assembled once inside a client application and passed to the database. And it surely would name tables and colons by id numbers, not ascii-strings. In the case of changes in table structure those byte queries could be recompiled according to new db schema, stored in XML or something like that. What are the problems of my idea? Is there any reason for me not to write it myself and to use SQL database instead?

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  • Is it possible that a single-threaded program is executed simultaneously on more than one CPU core?

    - by Wolfgang Plaschg
    When I run a single-threaded program that i have written on my quad core Intel i can see in the Windows Task Manager that actually all four cores of my CPU are more or less active. One core is more active than the other three, but there is also activity on those. There's no other program (besided the OS kernel of course) running that would be plausible for that activitiy. And when I close my program all activity an all cores drops down to nearly zero. All is left is a little "noise" on the cores, so I'm pretty sure all the visible activity comes directly or indirectly (like invoking system routines) from my program. Is it possible that the OS or the cores themselves try to balance some code or execution on all four cores, even it's not a multithreaded program? Do you have any links that documents this technique? Some infos to the program: It's a console app written in Qt, the Task Manager states that only one thread is running. Maybe Qt uses threads, but I don't use signals or slots, nor any GUI. Link to Task Manager screenshot: http://img97.imageshack.us/img97/6403/taskmanager.png This question is language agnostic and not tied to Qt/C++, i just want to know if Windows or Intel do to balance also single-threaded code on all cores. If they do, how does this technique work? All I can think of is, that kernel routines like reading from disk etc. is scheduled on all cores, but this won't improve performance significantly since the code still has to run synchronous to the kernel api calls. EDIT Do you know any tools to do a better analysis of single and/or multi-threaded programs than the poor Windows Task Manager?

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  • Javascript error when attempting to open a modal window in a modal window

    - by The Sheek Geek
    The application is running on a windows server 2003 box using asp.net 2.0 and is an IE specific web app. There is a button that opens a form in an iframe using showModalDialog(...) from a function call located in the javascript. Here is an example of the fucntion: function ShowBusinessHoursSubForm( source ) { var retval = window.showModalDialog("htm/" + locLocaleID + "/SubFormHostFrame.htm", source, "dialogWidth:265px;dialogHeight:261px;help:no;scroll:no;status:no;"); } The host frame is loading an aspx page which contains the actual form that is being used. On the form that is opened there is a button that, when clicked, submits changed to the form. However, if no changed were made before the form was submitted, another modal window pops up stating that there were no changed to the form. This modal window is opened through registration of some javascript in the button click event. The code is as follows (C#): string l_S_ErrorScript = "<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'>window.showModalDialog('htm/" + l_S_Culture + "/NotChangedErrorDialog.htm', '../../" + l_S_SkinPath + "', 'dialogWidth:310px;dialogHeight:145px;scroll:no;help:no;status:no;');</script>"; if(!m_Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered("ErrorScript")) { m_Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "ErrorScript", l_S_ErrorScript); } When the button is clicked and this dialog needs to appear the following javascript error appears: Error: Object doesn't support this property or method The weird thing is, if I access the application locally and try it everything works fine, but accessing from another computer causes the error. Also, depending on what server (we have many servers for testing all with windows server 2003) the error may not occur on another computer either. These computers are running the same software version using the same version of IE with the same settings. I'm inclined to believe that there is some configuration issue somewhere, but with the settings being the same it is hard to tell. I cannot really change how the app works or the technologies used either. Anyone have any ideas as to what may be causing this?

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  • Loading user controls programatically into a placeholder (asp.net(vb))

    - by Phil
    In my .aspx page I have; <%@ Page Language="VB" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeFile="Default.aspx.vb" Inherits="_Default" AspCompat="True" %> <%@ Register src="Modules/Content.ascx" tagname="Content" tagprefix="uc1" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="Modulecontainer" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> </div> </form> </body> </html> In my aspx.vb I have; Try Dim loadmodule As Control loadmodule = Me.LoadControl("~/modules/content.ascx") Modulecontainer.Controls.Add(loadmodule) Catch ex As Exception Response.Write(ex.ToString & "<br />") End Try The result is an empty placeholder and no errors. Thanks a lot for any assistance

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  • Making HTTP POST request

    - by infrared
    I'm trying to make a POST request to retrieve information about a book. Here is the code that returns HTTP code: 302, Moved import httplib, urllib params = urllib.urlencode({ 'isbn' : '9780131185838', 'catalogId' : '10001', 'schoolStoreId' : '15828', 'search' : 'Search' }) headers = {"Content-type": "application/x-www-form-urlencoded", "Accept": "text/plain"} conn = httplib.HTTPConnection("bkstr.com:80") conn.request("POST", "/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch", params, headers) response = conn.getresponse() print response.status, response.reason data = response.read() conn.close() When I try from a browser, from this page: http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackMaterialsView?langId=-1&catalogId=10001&storeId=10051&schoolStoreId=15828 , it works. What am I missing in my code? Thanks EDIT: Here's what I get when I call print response.msg 302 Moved Date: Tue, 07 Sep 2010 16:54:29 GMT Vary: Host,Accept-Encoding,User-Agent Location: http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch X-UA-Compatible: IE=EmulateIE7 Content-Length: 0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 Seems that the location points to the same url I'm trying to access in the first place? EDIT2: I've tried using urllib2 as suggested here. Here is the code: import urllib, urllib2 url = 'http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch' values = {'isbn' : '9780131185838', 'catalogId' : '10001', 'schoolStoreId' : '15828', 'search' : 'Search' } data = urllib.urlencode(values) req = urllib2.Request(url, data) response = urllib2.urlopen(req) print response.geturl() print response.info() the_page = response.read() print the_page And here is the output: http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch Date: Tue, 07 Sep 2010 16:58:35 GMT Pragma: No-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Expires: Thu, 01 Jan 1970 00:00:00 GMT Set-Cookie: JSESSIONID=0001REjqgX2axkzlR6SvIJlgJkt:1311s25dm; Path=/ Vary: Accept-Encoding,User-Agent X-UA-Compatible: IE=EmulateIE7 Content-Length: 0 Connection: close Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Language: en-US Set-Cookie: TSde3575=225ec58bcb0fdddfad7332c2816f1f152224db2f71e1b0474c866f3b; Path=/

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  • Auto-resize custom horizontal scrollbar/slider?

    I'm working on a site that scrolls horizontally. I know very little about jQuery and prototype and I got this slider script working as the page scrollbar. When the window is resized smaller, the custom horizontal slider/scrollbar won't resize to the viewport's width. I have the page and js files here http://keanetix.co.cc/scrollpage/ Try to resize the browser and you'll notice the custom scrollbar extending to the right. The custom scrollbar wont fit on the viewport, unless you refresh the page when it's been resized. Can somebody help me with this? Thanks. This is the code in the HTML page: <script type="text/javascript" language="javascript"> // <![CDATA[ // horizontal slider control var slider2 = new Control.Slider('handle', 'track', { onSlide: function(v) { scrollHorizontal(v, $('scrollable'), slider2); }, onChange: function(v) { scrollHorizontal(v, $('scrollable'), slider2); } }); // scroll the element horizontally based on its width and the slider maximum value function scrollHorizontal(value, element, slider) { element.scrollLeft = Math.round(value/slider.maximum*(element.scrollWidth-element.offsetWidth)); } // disable horizontal scrolling if text doesn't overflow the div if ($('scrollable').scrollWidth <= $('scrollable').offsetWidth) { slider2.setDisabled(); $('track').hide(); } // ]]> </script>

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  • TextRenderer.DrawText renders Arial differently on XP vs Vista

    - by Michael
    I have a c# application that does text rendering, something on par with a simple wysiwyg text editor. I'm using TextRenderer.DrawText to render the text to the screen and GetTextExtentPoint32 to measure text so I can position different font styles/sizes on the same line. In Vista this all works fine. In XP however, Arial renders differently, certain characters like 'o' and 'b' take up more width than in Vista. GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the string as it would in Vista though, with the smaller widths. The end result is that every now and then a run of text will overlap the text preceding it because the preceding text gets measured as smaller than it actually is on the screen. Also, my text rendering code mimics ie's text rendering exactly (for simple formatting and english language only) and ie text rendering seems to be consistent between vista and xp - that's how I noticed the change in size of the different characters. Anyone have any ideas about what's going on? In short, TextRenderer.DrawText and GetTextExtentPoint32 don't match up in xp for Arial. DrawText seems to draw certain characters larger and/or smaller than it does in Vista but GetTextExtentPoint32 seems to be measuring the text as it would in Vista (which seems to match the text rendering in ie on both xp and vista). Hope that makes sense. Note: unfortunately TextRenderer.MeasureString isn't fast or accurate enough to meet my requirements. I tried using it and had to rip it out.

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  • How to properly implement cheat codes?

    - by Axarydax
    Hi, what would be the best way to implement kind of cheat codes in general? I have WinForms application in mind, where a cheat code would unlock an easter egg, but the implementation details are not relevant. The best approach that comes to my mind is to keep index for each code - let's consider famous DOOM codes - IDDQD and IDKFA, in a fictional C# app. string[] CheatCodes = { "IDDQD", "IDKFA"}; int[] CheatIndexes = { 0, 0 }; const int CHEAT_COUNT = 2; void KeyPress(char c) { for (int i = 0; i < CHEAT_COUNT; i++) //for each cheat code { if (CheatCodes[i][CheatIndexes[i]] == c) { //we have hit the next key in sequence if (++CheatIndexes[i] == CheatCodes[i].Length) //are we in the end? { //Do cheat work MessageBox.Show(CheatCodes[i]); //reset cheat index so we can enter it next time CheatIndexes[i] = 0; } } else //mistyped, reset cheat index CheatIndexes[i] = 0; } } Is this the right way to do it?

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  • javascript normalize whitespace and other plain-text formatting routines

    - by dreftymac
    Background: The language is JavaScript. The goal is to find a library or pre-existing code to do low-level plain-text formatting. I can write it myself, but why re-invent the wheel. The issue is: it is tough to determine if a "wheel" is out there, since any search for JavaScript libraries pulls up an ocean of HTML-centric stuff. I am not interested in HTML necessarily, just text. Example: I need a JavaScript function that changes this: BEFORE: nisi ut aliquip | ex ea commodo consequat duis |aute irure dolor in esse cillum dolore | eu fugiat nulla pariatur |excepteur sint occa in culpa qui | officia deserunt mollit anim id |est laborum ... into this ... AFTER: nisi ut aliquip | ex ea commodo consequat duis | aute irure dolor in esse cillum dolore | eu fugiat nulla pariatur | excepteur sint occa in culpa qui | officia deserunt mollit anim id | est laborum Question: Does it exist, a JavaScript library that is non-html-web-development-centric that has functions for normalizing spaces in delimited plain text, justifying and spacing plain text? Rationale: Investigating JavaScript for use in a programmer's text editor.

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  • how to implement word count bash shell

    - by codemax
    hey guys. I am trying to write my own code for the word count in bash shell. I did usual way. But i wanna use pipe's output to count the word. So for eg the 1st command is cat and i am redirecting to a file called med. Now i have to use to 'dup2' function to count the words in that file. How can i write the code for my wc? This is the code for my shell pgm : void process( char* cmd[], int arg_count ) { pid_t pid; pid = fork(); char path[81]; getcwd(path,81); strcat(path,"/"); strcat(path,cmd[0]); if(pid < 0) { cout << "Fork Failed" << endl; exit(-1); } else if( pid == 0 ) { int fd; fd =open("med", O_RDONLY); dup2(fd ,0); execvp( path, cmd ); } else { wait(NULL); } } And my wordcount is : int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { char ch; int count = 0; ifstream infile(argv[1]); while(!infile.eof()) { infile.get(ch); if(ch == ' ') { count++; } } return 0; } I dont know how to do input redirection i want my code to do this : When i just type wordcount in my shell implementation, I want it to count the words in the med file by default. Thanks in advance

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  • Sending 2 dim array using scatter

    - by MPI_Beginner
    I am a beginner in MPI, and i am using C Language, and Simulator for Processors (MPICH2), i wrote the following code to send a 2D array to make 2 processors take a line from it but it produces error when running MPICH2, the code is: int main ( int argc , char *argv[] ) { int rank; int commsize; MPI_Init(&argc, &argv); MPI_Comm_size(MPI_COMM_WORLD,&commsize); MPI_Comm_rank(MPI_COMM_WORLD,&rank); char** name=malloc(2*sizeof(char*)); int i; for(i=0;i<2;i++){ name[i]=malloc(15*sizeof(char)); } name[0]="name"; name[1]="age"; if(rank==0){ char** mArray=malloc(2*sizeof(char*)); MPI_Scatter(&name,1,MPI_CHAR,&mArray,1,MPI_CHAR,0,MPI_COMM_WORLD);//send } else{ char** mArray=malloc(2*sizeof(char*)); int k; for(k=0;k<2;k++){ mArray[k]=malloc(15*sizeof(char)); } MPI_Scatter(&mArray,1,MPI_CHAR,&mArray,1,MPI_CHAR,0,MPI_COMM_WORLD);//receive printf("line is %s \n",mArray[rank-1]); } MPI_Finalize(); }

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  • jquery Tab group IDs

    - by mare
    I'm having an issue with jQuery UI Tabs script which does not pick up tabs that have a dot "." in their name (ID). For instance like this: <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $("#tabgroup\\.services").tabs(); }); </script> <div id="tabgroup.Services"> <ul> <li><a href="#tab.service1"> Service 1 title</a></li> <li><a href="#tab.service2"> Service 2 title</a></li> </ul> <div id="tab.service1"> <p>content</p> </div> <div id="tab.service2"> <p>content</p> </div> </div> The problem is because to select an element with a dot in its name, you need to use escapes (like when I initialize the tabs on my tabgroup). And apparently the Tabs JS implementation does not do that. Although I can do it at the tab group level, I cannot do it lower down because that's implemented in the Tabs JS file and I would not want to modify it (if possible).

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  • Destroying nested resources in restful way

    - by Alex
    I'm looking for help destroying a nested resource in Merb. My current method seems near correct, but the controller raise an InternalServerError during the destruction of the nested object. Here comes all the details concerning the request, don't hesitate to ask for more :) Thanks, Alex I'm trying to destroy a nested resources using the following route in router.resources :events, Orga::Events do |event| event.resources :locations, Orga::Locations end Which gives in jQuery request (delete_ method is a implementation of $.ajax with "DELETE"): $.delete_("/events/123/locations/456"); In the Location controller side, I've got: def delete(id) @location = Location.get(id) raise NotFound unless @location if @location.destroy redirect url(:orga_locations) else raise InternalServerError end end And the log: merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Routed to: {"format"=>nil, "event_id"=>"123", "action"=>"destroy", "id"=>"456", "controller"=>"letsmotiv/locations"} merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Params: {"format"=>nil, "event_id"=>"123", "action"=>"destroy", "id"=>"456", "controller"=>"letsmotiv/locations"} ~ (0.000025) SELECT `id`, `class_type`, `name`, `prefix`, `type`, `capacity`, `handicap`, `export_name` FROM `entities` WHERE (`class_type` IN ('Location') AND `id` = 456) ORDER BY `id` LIMIT 1 ~ (0.000014) SELECT `id`, `streetname`, `phone`, `lat`, `lng`, `country_region_city_id`, `location_id`, `organisation_id` FROM `country_region_city_addresses` WHERE `location_id` = 456 ORDER BY `id` LIMIT 1 merb : worker (port 4000) ~ Merb::ControllerExceptions::InternalServerError - (Merb::ControllerExceptions::InternalServerError)

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  • suggestions for a 3D graph rendering library?

    - by Sandro
    Hello coders! So I'm not sure how stackoverflow friendly this question is since it doesn't have a quick clear cut answer but here we go... I have a java program that generates data for a directed graph. Now I need to render this graph. The data needs to be laid out in 3D, and I want to be able to define which plane an edge lives in. (Each edge will only need to occupy 1 plane of the 3D space). I also need the ability to navigate around the graph. Since I know that this kind of stuff is hard, I'm going shopping. So far I've looked into (In no particular order): JUNG: lacks 3D support Cytoscape: not sure how much I'll be able to define edge drawing, haven't seen a non bio-informatics application of it yet JGraph: I didn't see any 3D applications yet Perfuse: looks promising, does anyone know anything else about it? Gephi: Documentation looks scarce Processing: does this play well with java? I'm also considering doing some combination of opengl + swing rendering to create a 3D graph from multiple 2D graphs. I am also not adverse to the idea of linking from another language Any Ideas? Thank you.

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  • Using of Templated Helpers in MVC 2.0 : How can use the name of the property that I'm rendering insi

    - by Andrey Tagaew
    Hi. I'm reviewing new features of ASP.NET MVC 2.0. During the review i found really interesting using Templated Helpers. As they described it, the primary reason of using them is to provide common way of how some datatypes should be rendered. Now i want to use this way in my project for DateTime datatype My project was written for the MVC 1.0 so generating of editbox is looking like this: <%= Html.TextBox("BirthDate", Model.BirthDate, new { maxlength = 10, size = 10, @class = "BirthDate-date" })%> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".BirthDate-date").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImage: '<%=Url.Content("~/images/i_calendar.gif") %>', buttonImageOnly: true }); }); </script> Now i want to use Template Helper, so i want to have above code once i type next sentence: <%=Html.EditorFor(f=>f.BirthDate) %> According to the manual I create DataTime.ascx partial view inside Shared/EditorTemplates folder. I put there above code and stacked with the problem. How can i pass the name of the property that I'm rendering with template helper? As you can see from my example, i really need it, since I'm using the name of the property to specify data value and parameter name that will be send during the POST requsest. Also, I'm using it to generate class name for JS calendar building. I tried to remove my partial class for template helper and made MVC to generate its default behavior. Here what it generated for me: <input type="text" value="04/29/2010" name="LoanApplicationDays" id="LoanApplicationDays" class="text-box single-line"> As you can see, it used the name of the property for "name" and "id" attributes. This example let me to presume that Template Helper knows about the name of the property. So, there should be some way of how to use it in custom implementation. Thanks for your help!

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  • Why Finalize method not allowed to override

    - by somaraj
    I am new to .net ..and i am confused with the destructor mechanism in C# ..please clarify In C# destructors are converted to finalize method by CLR. If we try to override it (not using destructor ) , will get an error Error 2 Do not override object.Finalize. Instead, provide a destructor. But it seems that the Object calss implementation in mscorlib.dll has finalize defined as protected override void Finalize(){} , then why cant we override it , that what virtual function for . Why is the design like that , is it to be consistent with c++ destructor concept. Also when we go to the definition of the object class , there is no mention of the finalize method , then how does the hmscorlib.dll definition shows the finalize funtion . Does it mean that the default destructor is converted to finalize method. public class Object { public Object(); public virtual bool Equals(object obj); public static bool Equals(object objA, object objB); public virtual int GetHashCode(); public Type GetType(); protected object MemberwiseClone(); public static bool ReferenceEquals(object objA, object objB); public virtual string ToString(); }

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