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• Find out which row caused the error

  - by Felipe Fiali

  I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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• Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

  - by Ophidian

  I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

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• multithreading issue

  - by vbNewbie

  I have written a multithreaded crawler and the process is simply creating threads and having them access a list of urls to crawl. They then access the urls and parse the html content. All this seems to work fine. Now when I need to write to tables in a database is when I experience issues. I have 2 declared arraylists that will contain the content each thread parse. The first arraylist is simply the rss feed links and the other arraylist contains the different posts. I then use a for each loop to iterate one while sequentially incrementing the other and writing to the database. My problem is that each time a new thread accesses one of the lists the content is changed and this affects the iteration. I tried using nested loops but it did not work before and this works fine using a single thread.I hope this makes sense. Here is my code: SyncLock dlock For Each l As String In links finallinks.Add(l) Next End SyncLock SyncLock dlock For Each p As String In posts finalposts.Add(p) Next End SyncLock ... Dim i As Integer = 0 SyncLock dlock For Each rsslink As String In finallinks postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 finallinks and finalposts are the two arraylists. I did not include the rest of the code which shows the threads working but this is the essential part where my error occurs which is basically here postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 ERROR: index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection Is there an alternative?

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• Best way to test a Delphi application

  - by Osama ALASSIRY

  I have a Delphi application that has many dependencies, and it would be difficult to refactor it to use DUnit (it's huge), so I was thinking about using something like AutomatedQA's TestComplete to do the testing from the front-end UI. My main problem is that a bugfix or new feature sometimes breaks old code that was previously tested (manually), and used to work. I have setup the application to use command-line switches to open-up a specific form that could be tested, and I can create a set of values and clicks needed to be done. But I have a few questions before I do anything drastic... (and before purchasing anything) Is it worth it? Would this be a good way to test? The result of the test should in my database (Oracle), is there an easy way in testcomplete to check these values (multiple fields in multiple tables)? I would need to setup a test database to do all the automated testing, would there be an easy way to automate re-setting the test db? Other than drop user cascade, create user,..., impdp. Is there a way in testcomplete to specify command-line parameters for an exe? Does anybody have any similar experiences.

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• Exec problem in SQL Server 2005

  - by IordanTanev

  Hi, I have the situation where i have two databases with same structure. The first have some data in its data tables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when I run the script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When I copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script tries to run it with exec I get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

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• Why does a change of Session State provider lead to an ASPx page yielding garbage?

  - by Rory Becker

  I have an aspnet webapp which has worked very well up until now. I was recently asked to explore ways of making it scale better. I found that seperation of database and Webapp would help. Further I was told that if I changed my session providing mechanism to SQLServer, I would be able to duplicate the Web Stack to several machines which could each call back to the state server allowing the load to be distirbuted better. This sounds logical. So I created an ASPState database using ASPNet_RegSQL.exe as detailed in many locations across the web and changed the web.config on my app from: <sessionState mode="InProc" cookieless="false" timeout="20" /> To: <sessionState mode="SQLServer" sqlConnectionString="Server=SomeSQLServer;user=SomeUser;password=SomePassword" cookieless="false" timeout="20" /> Then I addressed my app, which presented me with its logon screen and I duly logged in. Once in I was presented, not with the page I was expecting, but with: I can change the sessionstate back and forth. This problem goes away and then comes back based on which set of configuration I use. Why is this happening?

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• Why is it not good to use $_SESSION in Restful Implementations?

  - by keisimone

  Original Question: i read that for RESTful websites. it is not good to use $_SESSION. Why is it not good? how then do i properly authenticate users without looking up database all the time to check for the user's roles? I read that it is not good to use $_SESSION. http://www.recessframework.org/page/towards-restful-php-5-basic-tips I am creating a WEBSITE, not web service in PHP. and i am trying to make it more RESTful. at least in spirit. right now i am rewriting all the action to use Form tags POST and add in a hidden value called _method which would be "delete" for deleting action and "put" for updating action. however, i am not sure why it is recommended NOT to use $_SESSION. i would like to know why and what can i do to improve. To allow easy authorization checking, what i did was to after logging in the user, the username is stored in the $_SESSION. Everytime the user navigates to a page, the page would check if the username is stored inside $_SESSION and then based on the $_SESSION retrieves all the info including privileges from the database and then evaluates the authorization to access the page based on the info retrieved. Is the way I am implementing bad? not RESTful? how do i improve performance and security? Thank you.

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• Spaced repetition (SRS) for learning

  - by Fredrik Johansson

  A client has asked me to add a simple spaced repeition algorithm (SRS) for an onlinebased learning site. But before throwing my self into it, I'd like to discuss it with the community. Basically the site asks the user a bunch of questions (by automatically selecting say 10 out of 100 total questions from a database), and the user gives either a correct or incorrect answer. The users result are then stored in a database, for instance: userid questionid correctlyanswered dateanswered 1 123 0 (no) 2010-01-01 10:00 1 124 1 (yes) 2010-01-01 11:00 1 125 1 (yes) 2010-01-01 12:00 Now, to maximize a users ability to learn all answers, I should be able to apply an SRS algorithm so that a user, next time he takes the quiz, receives questions incorrectly answered more often; than questions answered correctly. Also, questions that are previously answered incorrectly, but recently often answered correctly should occur less often. Have anyone implemented something like this before? Any tips or suggestions? Theese are the best links I've found: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Spaced_repetition http://www.mnemosyne-proj.org/principles.php http://www.supermemo.com/english/ol/sm2.htm

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• Can I use a specific model from within a behavior in CakePHP?

  - by Paul Willy

  I'm trying to write a behavior that will give my models access to a simple workflow engine I've devised. The workflow engine itself works as a CakePHP model, with workflow data stored in the database just as any other model data is stored. Basically what I want to do is have the behavior use the workflow model whenever an action is called on the base model. For example, if the edit() action is executed for Posts, then the Post (with the behavior attached) will trigger the workflow behavior with its own model name, action, and id as arguments (e.g. [Post, edit, 1]). Then the behavior will invoke the functionality of the Workflow model, which has a record for what to do when edit is run on Posts (e.g. send e-mail to users who are subscribed to that post) and will carry that out. My question is, what is the proper way to invoke model/controller methods from within the behavior? The model to be used from within the behavior will always be Workflow, but the behavior should be usable from basically any model (aside from Workflow itself). I know I could run SQL queries directly from the behavior, but of course this is not the Cake way :-) Or, am I going about this in the wrong way? I want to store a certain amount of logic in the database so that it is easily configurable by different users, and not have endless configuration checks within the model/controller logic itself so that workflow steps can be easily added/changed/removed in the future.

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• Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

  - by Gus

  Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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• Is the RESTORE process dependent on schema?

  - by Martin Aatmaa

  Let's say I have two database instances: InstanceA - Production server InstanceB - Test server My workflow is to deploy new schema changes to InstanceB first, test them, and then deploy them to InstanceA. So, at any one time, the instance schema relationship looks like this: InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) An additional part of my workflow is to keep the data in InstanceB as fresh as possible. To fulfill this, I am taking the database backups of InstanceA and applying them (restoring them) to InstanceB. My question is, how does schema version affect the restoral process? I know I can do this: Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.5 But can I do this? Backup InstanceA - Schema Version 1.5 Restore to InstanceB - Schema Version 1.6 (new version being tested) If no, what would the failure look like? If yes, would the type of schema change matter? For example, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by just having an altered storec proc, I imagine that this type of schema change should't affect the restoral process. On the other hand, if Schema Version 1.6 differed from Schema Version 1.5 by having a different table definition (say, an additional column), I image this would affect the restoral process. I hope I've made this clear enough. Thanks in advance for any input!

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• proper use of volatile keyword

  - by luke

  I think i have a pretty good idea about the volatile keyword in java, but i'm thinking about re-factoring some code and i thought it would be a good idea to use it. i have a class that is basically working as a DB Cache. it holds a bunch of objects that it has read from a database, serves requests for those objects, and then occasionally refreshes the database (based on a timeout). Heres the skeleton public class Cache { private HashMap mappings =....; private long last_update_time; private void loadMappingsFromDB() { //.... } private void checkLoad() { if(System.currentTimeMillis() - last_update_time > TIMEOUT) loadMappingsFromDB(); } public Data get(ID id) { checkLoad(); //.. look it up } } So the concern is that loadMappingsFromDB could be a high latency operation and thats not acceptable, So initially i thought that i could spin up a thread on cache startup and then just have it sleep and then update the cache in the background. But then i would need to synchronize my class (or the map). and then i would just be trading an occasional big pause for making every cache access slower. Then i thought why not use volatile i could define the map reference as volatile private volatile HashMap mappings =....; and then in get (or anywhere else that uses the mappings variable) i would just make a local copy of the reference: public Data get(ID id) { HashMap local = mappings; //.. look it up using local } and then the background thread would just load into a temp table and then swap the references in the class HashMap tmp; //load tmp from DB mappings = tmp;//swap variables forcing write barrier Does this approach make sense? and is it actually thread-safe?

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• Pros/cons of reading connection string from physical file vs Application object (ASP.NET)?

  - by HaterTot

  my ASP.NET application reads an xml file to determine which environment it's currently in (e.g. local, development, production). It checks this file every single time it opens a connection to the database, in order to know which connection string to grab from the Application Settings. I'm entering a phase of development where efficiency is becoming a concern. I don't think it's a good idea to have to read a file on a physical disk ever single time I wish to access the database (very often). I was considering storing the connection string in Application["ConnectionString"]. So the code would be public static string GetConnectionString { if (Application["ConnectionString"] == null) { XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); doc.Load(HttpContext.Current.Request.PhysicalApplicationPath + "bin/ServerEnvironment.xml"); XmlElement xe = (XmlElement) xnl[0]; switch (xe.InnerText.ToString().ToLower()) { case "local": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringLocal; break; case "development": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringDevelopment; break; case "production": connString = Settings.Default.ConnectionStringProduction; break; default: throw new Exception("no connection string defined"); } Application["ConnectionString"] = connString; } return Application["ConnectionString"].ToString(); } I didn't design the application so I figure there must have been a reason for reading the xml file every time (to change settings while the application runs?) I have very little concept of the inner workings here. What are the pros and cons? Do you think I'd see a small performance gain by implementing the function above? THANKS

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• Images from SQL Server JPG/PNG Image Column not being Type Converted to Bitmap in HttpHandlers (cons

  - by kanchirk

  Our Silverlight 3.0 Client consumes Images stored/retrieved on the File System thorough ASP.NET HttpHandlers successfully. We are trying to store and read back Images using a SQL Server 2008 Database. Please find the stripped down code pasted below with the Exception. "Bitmap is not Valid" //Store document to the database private void SaveImageToDatabaseKK(HttpContext context, string pImageFileName) { try { //ADO.NET Entity Framework ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); int intLength = Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length); //Move the file contents into the Byte array Byte[] arrContent = new Byte[intLength]; context.Request.InputStream.Read(arrContent, 0, intLength); //Insert record into the Document table documentDB.InsertDocument(pImageFileName, arrContent, intLength); } catch { } } =The method to Read Back the Row from the Table and Send it back is below.= private void RetrieveImageFromDatabaseTableKK(HttpContext context, string pImageName) { try { ImageTable documentDB = new ImageTable(); var docRow = documentDB.GetDocument(pImageName); //based on Imagename which is unique //DocData column in table is **Image** if (docRow!=null && docRow.DocData != null && docRow.DocData.Length > 0) { Byte[] bytImage = docRow.DocData; if (bytImage != null && bytImage.Length > 0) { Bitmap newBmp = ConvertToBitmap(context, bytImage ); if (newBmp != null) { newBmp.Save(context.Response.OutputStream, ImageFormat.Jpeg); newBmp.Dispose(); } } } } catch (Exception exRI) { } } // Convert byte array to Bitmap (byte[] to Bitmap) protected Bitmap ConvertToBitmap(byte[] bmp) { if (bmp != null) { try { TypeConverter tc = TypeDescriptor.GetConverter(typeof(Bitmap)); Bitmap b = (Bitmap)tc.ConvertFrom(bmp); **//This is where the Exception Occurs.** return b; } catch (Exception) { } } return null; }

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• Ruby array, javascript and json issue

  - by JohnMerlino

  Hey all, I am unable to get a highcharts plugin to render a chart in a rails application: http://github.com/loudpixel/highcharts-rails I believe it has something to do with the sql queries to the database placed in a ruby array, which the javascript is unable to intepret. This is what I have: def panels pass = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 1') fail = Student.find_by_sql('SELECT COUNT(*) FROM students WHERE student_state = 2') student_data = [ {:name => 'Pass', :y => pass}, {:name => 'Fail', :y => fail} ] pie_label_formatter = ' function() { if (this.y > 15) return this.point.name; }' pie_tooltip_formatter = ' function() { return "<strong>" + this.point.name + "</strong>: " + this.y + " %"; }' @pie_chart = Highchart.pie({ :chart => { :renderTo => "pie-chart-container", :margin => [50, 30, 0, 30] }, :plotOptions => { :pie => { :dataLabels => { :formatter => pie_label_formatter, :style => { :textShadow => '#000000 1px 1px 2px' } } } }, :series => [ { :type => 'pie', :data => student_data } ], :subtitle => { :text => 'April 2010' }, :title => { :text => 'Student Status Chart' }, :tooltip => { :formatter => pie_tooltip_formatter }, }) Note if I put this: :data = student_data.to_json It actually returns a json string of my query as text in the browser. Also, if I hard code values (e.g. :y = 1), it will render the chart properly. However, any database query will not render the chart properly. So I'm not sure exactly what the issue is. Any suggestions? Thanks.

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• How does real world login process happen in web application in Java?

  - by Nitesh Panchal

  Hello, I am very much confused regarding login process that happen in Java web application. I read many tutorials regarding jdbcRealm and JAAS. But, one thing that i don't understand is that why should i use them ? Can't i simply check directly against my database of users? and once they successfully login to the site, i store some variable in session as a flag. And probably check that session variable on all restricted pages (I mean keep a filter for restricted resources url pattern).If the flag doesn't exist simply redirect the user to login page. Is this approach correct?Does this approch sound correct? If yes, then why did all this JAAS and jdbcRealm came into existence? Secondly, I am trying to completely implement SAS(Software as service) in my web application, meaning everything is done through web services.If i use webservices, is it possible to use jdbcRealm? If not, then is it possible to use JAAS? If yes, then please show me some example which uses mySql as a database and then authenticates and authorizes. I even heard about Spring Security. But, i am confused about that too in the sense that how do i use webservice with Spring Security. Please help me. I am really very confused. I read sun's tutorials but they only keep talking about theories. For programmers to understand a simple concept, they show a 100 page theory first before they finally come to one example.

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• [ZF & jQuery] How can I access an URL using AJAX, receive no response, but just manipulate HTML?

  - by rasouza

  I don't know if it's better used with AJAX (tell me, otherwise) but here is my problem: Assuming i'm using Zend Framework, I have a table with several registries from a database with a delete button on each row. That's like this [...] <tbody> <?php foreach ($row as $reg) { ?> <tr <?php if ($reg['value'] < 0) { echo "class='error'"; } ?>> <td><?php echo $reg['creditor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['debtor'] ?></td> <td><?php echo $reg['reason'] ?></td> <td>R$ <?php echo number_format(abs($reg['value']), 2, ',', ' ')?></td> <td><a href="#" id="<?php echo $reg['id']; ?>" class="delete"><img src="http://192.168.0.102/libraries/css/blueprint/plugins/buttons/icons/cross.png" alt=""/></a></td> </tr> <?php } ?> </tbody> [...] I would like to .fadeOut() and delete (through the link history/delete/id/ROW_ID ) a table row when clicked in the respective delete button. My deleteAction() has no render. It really shouldn't have one, it just deletes a row in the database. Still, how can I make it happen? I tried: // TR Fading when deleted $('.delete') .click(function() { $.ajax({ type: 'GET', url: 'history/delete/id/'+$(this).attr('id'), success: function() { $(this).parent().parent().fadeOut(); } }); return false; }); without success

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• Core Data, Bindings, value transformers : crash when saving

  - by Gael

  Hi, I am trying to store a PNG image in a core data store backed by an sqlite database. Since I intend to use this database on an iPhone I can't store NSImage objects directly. I wanted to use bindings and an NSValueTransformer subclass to handle the transcoding from the NSImage (obtained by an Image well on my GUI) to an NSData containing the PNG binary representation of the image. I wrote the following code for the ValueTransformer : + (Class)transformedValueClass { return [NSImage class]; } + (BOOL)allowsReverseTransformation { return YES; } - (id)transformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; return [[[NSImage alloc] initWithData:value] autorelease]; } - (id)reverseTransformedValue:(id)value { if (value == nil) return nil; if(![value isKindOfClass:[NSImage class]]) { NSLog(@"Type mismatch. Expecting NSImage"); } NSBitmapImageRep *bits = [[value representations] objectAtIndex: 0]; NSData *data = [bits representationUsingType:NSPNGFileType properties:nil]; return data; } The model has a transformable property configured with this NSValueTransformer. In Interface Builder a table column and an image well are both bound to this property and both have the proper value transformer name (an image dropped in the image well shows up in the table column). The transformer is registered and called every time an image is added or a row is reloaded (checked with NSLog() calls). The problem arises when I am trying to save the managed objects. The console output shows the error message : [NSImage length]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x1004933a0 It seems like core data is using the value transformer to obtain the NSImage back from the NSData and then tries to save the NSImage instead of the NSData. There are probably workarounds such as the one presented in this post but I would really like to understand why my approach is flawn. Thanks in advance for your ideas and explanations.

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• How do I create a dynamic data transfer object dynamically from ADO.net model

  - by Richard

  I have a pretty simple database with 5 tables, PK's and relationships setup, etc. I also have an ASP.net MVC3 project I'm using to create simple web services to feed JSON/XML to a mobile app using post/get. To access my data I'm using an ADO.net entity model class to handle generation of the entities, etc. Due to issues with serialization/circular references created by the auto-generated relations from ADO.net entity model, I've been forced to create "Data transfer objects" to strip out the relations and data that doesn't need to be transferred. Question 1: is there an easier way to create DTOs using the entity framework itself? IE, specify only the entity properties I want to convert to Jsonresults? I don't wish to use any 3rd party frameworks if I can help it. Question 2: A side question for Entity Framework, say I create an ADO.net entity model in one project within a solution. Because that model relies on the connection to the database specified in project A, can project B somehow use that model with a similar connection? Both projects are in the same solution. Thanks!

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• How to reuse results with a schema for end of day stock-data

  - by Vishalrix

  I am creating a database schema to be used for technical analysis like top-volume gainers, top-price gainers etc.I have checked answers to questions here, like the design question. Having taken the hint from boe100 's answer there I have a schema modeled pretty much on it, thusly: Symbol - char 6 //primary Date - date //primary Open - decimal 18, 4 High - decimal 18, 4 Low - decimal 18, 4 Close - decimal 18, 4 Volume - int Right now this table containing End Of Day( EOD) data will be about 3 million rows for 3 years. Later when I get/need more data it could be 20 million rows. The front end will be asking requests like "give me the top price gainers on date X over Y days". That request is one of the simpler ones, and as such is not too costly, time wise, I assume. But a request like " give me top volume gainers for the last 10 days, with the previous 100 days acting as baseline", could prove 10-100 times costlier. The result of such a request would be a float which signifies how many times the volume as grown etc. One option I have is adding a column for each such result. And if the user asks for volume gain in 10 days over 20 days, that would require another table. The total such tables could easily cross 100, specially if I start using other results as tables, like MACD-10, MACD-100. each of which will require its own column. Is this a feasible solution? Another option being that I keep the result in cached html files and present them to the user. I dont have much experience in web-development, so to me it looks messy; but I could be wrong ( ofc!) . Is that a option too? Let me add that I am/will be using mod_perl to present the response to the user. With much of the work on mysql database being done using perl. I would like to have a response time of 1-2 seconds.

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• SQLAlchemy: select over multiple tables

  - by ahojnnes

  Hi, I wanted to optimize my database query: link_list = select( columns=[link_table.c.rating, link_table.c.url, link_table.c.donations_in], whereclause=and_( not_(link_table.c.id.in_( select( columns=[request_table.c.recipient], whereclause=request_table.c.donator==donator.id ).as_scalar() )), link_table.c.id!=donator.id, ), limit=20, ).execute().fetchall() and tried to merge those two selects in one query: link_list = select( columns=[link_table.c.rating, link_table.c.url, link_table.c.donations_in], whereclause=and_( link_table.c.active==True, link_table.c.id!=donator.id, request_table.c.donator==donator.id, link_table.c.id!=request_table.c.recipient, ), limit=20, order_by=[link_table.c.rating.desc()] ).execute().fetchall() the database-schema looks like: link_table = Table('links', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True, autoincrement=True), Column('url', Unicode(250), index=True, unique=True), Column('registration_date', DateTime), Column('donations_in', Integer), Column('active', Boolean), ) request_table = Table('requests', metadata, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True, autoincrement=True), Column('recipient', Integer, ForeignKey('links.id')), Column('donator', Integer, ForeignKey('links.id')), Column('date', DateTime), ) There are several links (donator) in request_table pointing to one link in the link_table. I want to have links from link_table, which are not yet "requested". But this does not work. Is it actually possible, what I'm trying to do? If so, how would you do that? Thank you very much in advance!

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• General JDBC Setup

  - by AeroDroid

  So I have a MySQL database set up on a Debian server and it works fine from a phpMyAdmin client. I'm currently working on a project to write a Java server that would be able to use the MySQL database that is already on this server through a JDBC connection. I've looked at many tutorials and documentations but all of them seem to just explain how to do client-side code, but I have yet to figure out how to even successfully open a JDBC connection to the server. As far as I am concerned, I believe that program has the drivers properly set up because it's not crashing anymore (I simply direct the Java Build Path of my program to the Connector/J provided by MySQL). As far as my program goes, this is what it looks like... import java.sql.*; public class JDBCTest { public static void main(String[] args) { System.out.println("Started!"); try { DriverManager.registerDriver(new com.mysql.jdbc.Driver()); System.out.println("Driver registered. Connecting..."); Connection conn = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:mysql://localhost/", "root", "password"); System.out.println("Connected!"); conn.close(); } catch (SQLException e) { System.out.println("Error!"); e.printStackTrace(); } } } This is what's printed... Started! Driver registered. Connecting... It's as if the DriverManager.getConnection(String) just freezes there. I'm sure this is a problem with the server because when I intentionally misspell localhost, or an IP address, the program crashes within 20 seconds. This just hangs there forever. Sorry about this wall of text, but my final question is if anyone has any information what I should do or install on the server to get this to work? Thank you so much!

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• How to cache pages using background jobs ?

  - by Alexandre

  Definitions: resource = collection of database records, regeneration = processing these records and outputting the corresponding html Current flow: Receive client request Check for resource in cache If not in cache or cache expired, regenerate Return result The problem is that the regeneration step can tie up a single server process for 10-15 seconds. If a couple of users request the same resource, that could result in a couple of processes regenerating the exact same resource simultaneously, each taking up 10-15 seconds. Wouldn't it be preferrable to have the frontend signal some background process saying "Hey, regenerate this resource for me". But then what would it display to the user? "Rebuilding" is not acceptable. All resources would have to be in cache ahead of time. This could be a problem as the database would almost be duplicated on the filesystem (too big to fit in memory). Is there a way to avoid this? Not ideal, but it seems like the only way out. But then there's one more problem. How to keep the same two processes from requesting the regeneration of a resource at the same time? The background process could be regenerating the resource when a frontend asks for the regeneration of the same resource. I'm using PHP and the Zend Framework just in case someone wants to offer a platform-specific solution. Not that it matters though - I think this problem applies to any language/framework. Thanks!

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• .NET - Is there a way to programmatically fill all tables in a strongly-typed dataset?

  - by Mike Loux

  Hello, all! I have a SQL Server database for which I have created a strongly-typed DataSet (using the DataSet Designer in Visual Studio 2008), so all the adapters and select commands and whatnot were created for me by the wizard. It's a small database with largely static data, so I would like to pull the contents of this DB in its entirety into my application at startup, and then grab individual pieces of data as needed using LINQ. Rather than hard-code each adapter Fill call, I would like to see if there is a way to automate this (possibly via Reflection). So, instead of: Dim _ds As New dsTest dsTestTableAdapters.Table1TableAdapter.Fill(_ds.Table1) dsTestTableAdapters.Table2TableAdapter.Fill(_ds.Table2) <etc etc etc> I would prefer to do something like: Dim _ds As New dsTest For Each tableName As String In _ds.Tables Dim adapter as Object = <routine to grab adapter associated with the table> adapter.Fill(tableName) Next Is that even remotely doable? I have done a fair amount of searching, and I wouldn't think this would be an uncommon request, but I must be either asking the wrong question, or I'm just weird to want to do this. I will admit that I usually prefer to use unbound controls and not go with strongly-typed datasets (I prefer to write SQL directly), but my company wants to go this route, so I'm researching it. I think the idea is that as tables are added, we can just refresh the DataSet using the Designer in Visual Studio and not have to make too many underlying DB code changes. Any help at all would be most appreciated. Thanks in advance!

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• Windows service threading call to WCF service

  - by Sam Brinsted

  Hi, I have a windows service that is reading data from a database and then submitting it to a WCF serivce. Once that has finished it is stamping a processed date on the original record. Trouble I am currently having is to do with threading. The call to the WCF serivce is relatively long and I want to have a number of concurrent calls to the service to help improve the throughput of the windows service. Currently I have a submitToService method on a new worker class. Upon reading a new row from the database I am creating a new thread which is calling this method. This obviously isn't too good as the number of threads quickly shoots up and overburdens the WCF service. I have put a thread.sleep in the submit method and am sure to call System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.Abort(); after the submission has finished. However, I don't seem to see the number of threads go down. How can I just have a fixed number of threads that can be used in the windows service? I did think about using a thread pool but read somewhere that wasn't a good choice for a windows service. Thanks very much.

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