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  • HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenDecode fails "sometimes" (Invalid length for a Base-64 char array.)

    - by Josef
    We have an IHttpHandler for stylesheets and add a <link/> tag to the page like this: HtmlGenericControl link = new HtmlGenericControl("link"); link.Attributes.Add("rel", "stylesheet"); link.Attributes.Add("href", "stylesheet.axd?d=" + HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenEncode(token)); head.Controls.Add(link); In the stylesheet.axd handler, we UrlTokenDecode the d query string parameter like this: var token = HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenDecode(Request.QueryString["d"]); This works most of the time but every now and then we find one of the following two exceptions in our log: [FormatException: Invalid character in a Base-64 string.] System.Convert.FromBase64CharArray(Char[] inArray, Int32 offset, Int32 length) System.Web.HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenDecode(String input) ... [FormatException: Invalid length for a Base-64 char array.] System.Convert.FromBase64CharArray(Char[] inArray, Int32 offset, Int32 length) System.Web.HttpServerUtility.UrlTokenDecode(String input) System.Web.HttpServerUtilityWrapper.UrlTokenDecode(String input) ... Any ideas what would cause this phenomenon? Remarks: the resulting URL is < 1500, so below any known URL limits (e.g. IE: 2083) seems to be independent of user agent (we have these exceptions for IE6,7,8, FF & Chrome) our (unconfirmed) suspicions include AntiVirus products, HTTP proxies, browser addons found this remotely related question, but it's about a viewstate issue

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  • php mysql query strings array

    - by Chocho
    i am building a string that i check in mysql db. eg: formFields[] is an array - input1 is: string1 array_push(strings, formFields) 1st string and mysql query looks like this: "select * from my table where id in (strings)" formFields[] is an array - input2 is: string1, string2 array_push(strings, formFields) 2nd string and mysql query looks like this: "select * from my table where id in (strings)" formFields[] is an array - input3 is: string1, string2,string3 array_push(strings, formFields) 3rd string and mysql query looks like this: "select * from my table where id in (strings)" i will like to add single quotes and a comma to the array so that i have this for the array strings: "select * from my table where id in ('string1', 'string2','string3')" i tried using array implode, but still no luck any ideas? thanks

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  • How to query collections in NHibernate

    - by user305813
    Hi, I have a class: public class User { public virtual int Id { get; set; } public virtual string Name { get; set; } public virtual IDictionary<string, string> Attributes { get; set; } } and a mapping file: <class name="User" table="Users"> <id name="Id"> <generator class="hilo"/> </id> <property name="Name"/> <map name="Attributes" table="UserAttributes"> <key column="UserId"/> <index column="AttributeName" type="System.String"/> <element column="Attributevalue" type="System.String"/> </map> </class> So now I can add many attributes and values to a User. How can I query those attributes so I can get ie. Get all the users where attributename is "Age" and attribute value is "20" ? I don't want to do this in foreach because I may have millions of users each having its unique attributes. Please help

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  • Sort an array by a child array's value

    - by Evan
    I have an array composed of arrays. I want to sort the parent array by a property of the child arrays. Here's an example array(2) { [0]=> array(3) { [0]=> string(6) "105945" [1]=> string(10) "First name" [2]=> float(0.080878465391) } [1]=> array(3) { [0]=> string(6) "109145" [1]=> string(11) "Second name" [2]=> float(0.0504154818384) } I would like to sort the parent array by [2] ascending in the child arrays, so in this case the result would be the child arrays reversed (.05, 08). Is this possible using any of the numerous PHP sort functions?

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  • Java: matching two different type of array

    - by sling
    Hi, I am doing a password login that requires me to match two array: User and Pass. If user key in "mark" and "pass", it should show successfully. However I have trouble with the String[] input = pass.getPassword(); and the matching of the two arrays. String[] User = {"mark", "susan", "bobo"}; String[] Pass = {"pass", "word", "password"}; String[] input = pass.getPassword(); if(Pass.length == input.length && user.getText().equals(User)) { lblstat.setForeground(Color.GREEN); lblstat.setText("Successful"); } else { lblstat.setForeground(Color.RED); lblstat.setText("Failed"); }

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  • Text Parsing - My Parser Skipping commands

    - by The.Anti.9
    I'm trying to parse text-formatting. I want to mark inline code, much like SO does, with backticks (`). The rule is supposed to be that if you want to use a backtick inside of an inline code element, You should use double backticks around the inline code. like this: `` mark inline code with backticks ( ` ) `` My parser seems to skip over the double backticks completely for some reason. Heres the code for the function that does the inline code parsing: private string ParseInlineCode(string input) { for (int i = 0; i < input.Length; i++) { if (input[i] == '`' && input[i - 1] != '\\') { if (input[i + 1] == '`') { string str = ReadToCharacter('`', i + 2, input); while (input[i + str.Length + 2] != '`') { str += ReadToCharacter('`', i + str.Length + 3, input); } string tbr = "``" + str + "``"; str = str.Replace("&", "&amp;"); str = str.Replace("<", "&lt;"); str = str.Replace(">", "&gt;"); input = input.Replace(tbr, "<code>" + str + "</code>"); i += str.Length + 13; } else { string str = ReadToCharacter('`', i + 1, input); input = input.Replace("`" + str + "`", "<code>" + str + "</code>"); i += str.Length + 13; } } } return input; } If I use single backticks around something, it wraps it in the <code> tags correctly.

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  • sql server 2005 stored procedure unexpected behaviour

    - by user283405
    i have written a simple stored procedure (run as job) that checks user subscribe keyword alerts. when article posted the stored procedure sends email to those users if the subscribed keyword matched with article title. One section of my stored procedure is: OPEN @getInputBuffer FETCH NEXT FROM @getInputBuffer INTO @String WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN --PRINT @String INSERT INTO #Temp(ArticleID,UserID) SELECT A.ID,@UserID FROM CONTAINSTABLE(Question,(Text),@String) QQ JOIN Article A WITH (NOLOCK) ON A.ID = QQ.[Key] WHERE A.ID > @ArticleID FETCH NEXT FROM @getInputBuffer INTO @String END CLOSE @getInputBuffer DEALLOCATE @getInputBuffer This job run every 5 minute and it checks last 50 articles. It was working fine for last 3 months but a week before it behaved unexpectedly. The problem is that it sends irrelevant results. The @String contains user alert keyword and it matches to the latest articles using Full text search. The normal execution time is 3 minutes but its execution time is 3 days (in problem). Now the current status is its working fine but we are unable to find any reason why it sent irrelevant results. Note: I am already removing noise words from user alert keyword. I am using SQL Server 2005 Enterprise Edition.

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  • ASP.NET MVC 2 DisplayFor()

    - by ZombieSheep
    I'm looking at the new version of ASP.NET MVC (see here for more details if you haven't seen it already) and I'm having some pretty basic trouble displaying the content of an object. In my control I have an object of type "Person", which I am passing to the view in ViewData.Model. All is well so far, and I can extact the object in the view ready for display. What I don't get, though, is how I need to call the Html.DisplayFor() method in order to get the data to screen. I've tried the following... <% MVC2test.Models.Person p = ViewData.Model as MVC2test.Models.Person; %> // snip <%= Html.DisplayFor(p => p) %> but I get the following message: CS0136: A local variable named 'p' cannot be declared in this scope because it would give a different meaning to 'p', which is already used in a 'parent or current' scope to denote something else I know this is not what I should be doing - I know that redefining a variable will producte this error, but I don't know how to access the object from the controller. So my question is, how do I pass the object to the view in order to display its properties? (I should add that I am reading up on this in my limited spare time, so it is entirely possible I have missed something fundamental) TIA

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  • How to receive userinfo with google adwords api libraries

    - by PatrickvKleef
    I'm using the Google Adwords API libraries and I would like to receive the userinfo of the logged in user. I added the userinfo scope as followed: googleAdwordsUser = new AdWordsUser(); string oauth_callback_url = HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.GetLeftPart(UriPartial.Path); googleAdwordsUser.OAuthProvider = new AdsOAuthNetProvider("https://adwords-sandbox.google.com/api/adwords/ https://www.googleapis.com/auth/userinfo.email", oauth_callback_url, Session.SessionID); When the callback url is called, I'm trying to get the users emailaddress, but it isn't working, the error 'The remote server returned an error: (401) Unauthorized.' is thrown. string url = @"https://www.googleapis.com/oauth2/v2/userinfo?access_token=" + token; HttpWebRequest objRequest = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(url); objRequest.Method = "GET"; HttpWebResponse objResponse = (HttpWebResponse)objRequest.GetResponse(); string result = string.Empty; using (StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(objResponse.GetResponseStream())) { result = sr.ReadToEnd(); } Does somebody knows how to fix this? Thanks.

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  • How to declare NSString constants for passing to NSNotificationCenter

    - by synic
    I've got the following in my .h file: #ifndef _BALANCE_NOTIFICATION #define _BALANCE NOTIFICATION const NSString *BalanceUpdateNotification #endif and the following in my .m file: const NSString *BalanceUpdateNotification = @"BalanceUpdateNotification"; I'm using this with the following codes: [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(updateBalance:) name:BalanceUpdateNotification object:nil]; and [[NSNotificatoinCenter defaultCenter] postNotificationName:BalanceUpdateNotificatoin object:self userInfo:nil]; Which works, but it gives me a warning: Passing argument 1 of 'postNotificationName:object:userInfo' discards qualifiers from pointer target type So, I can cast it to (NSString *), but I'm wondering what the proper way to do this is.

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  • Selecting values from a multiselect not working in webkit

    - by azz0r
    Hello! The code below works fine in Firefox. However in Chrome and Safari it doesn't. Essentially it returns an array of values, then selects them from multiselect. However in Chrome and safari it doesn't select the items from the multiselect. $('form#movie select#movie_movie').click(function(){ var id = $(this).val(); $("#movie_category option:selected").attr('selected', ''); $("#movie_model option:selected").attr('selected', ''); $("#movie_gallery option:selected").attr('selected', ''); $("#movie_playlist option:selected").attr('selected', ''); if (id != 0) { $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/administration/link/movie/id/"+id, dataType: 'json', beforeSend: function(x) { $.blockUI({theme: true, title: 'Loading', message: '<p>Please wait...</p>', timeout: 1000}); if(x && x.overrideMimeType) { x.overrideMimeType("application/json;charset=UTF-8"); } }, error: function() { $.unblockUI(); alert('Error loading object, please try again'); }, success: function(returned_values) { $.unblockUI(); $.each(returned_values.object.playlist || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_playlist option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); $.each(returned_values.object.category || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_category option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); $.each(returned_values.object.model || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_model option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); $.each(returned_values.object.gallery || {}, function(i, item) {$("#movie_gallery option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected');}); } }); } }); So the part that isn't working in them is: $("#movie_playlist option[value='"+item+"']").attr('selected', 'selected'); Any ideas??

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  • call a custom event from an item renderer in flex 4

    - by john
    I have a Renderer: [Event(name="addToCart",type="event.ProductEvent")] import mx.collections.ArrayCollection; protected function button1_clickHandler(event:MouseEvent):void { var eventObj:ProductEvent=new ProductEvent("addToCart",data.price,data.descript); dispatchEvent(eventObj); } ]]> <s:Label text="{data.descript}"/> <mx:Image source="{data.url}" width="50" height="50" width.hovered="100" height.hovered="100"/> <s:Label text="{data.price}"/> <s:Button includeIn="hovered" click="button1_clickHandler(event)" label="buy"/> and the custom event class: package events { import flash.events.Event; [Bindable] public class ProductEvent extends Event { public var price:String; public var descript:String; public function ProductEvent(type:String,price:String, descript:String) { super(type); this.price=price; this.descript=descript; } override public function clone():Event { return new ProductEvent(type,price,descript); } } } but a cannot call that event in : any ideas? thanks

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  • how iterate over class members java (app-engine)

    - by Alexandre H. Tremblay
    Hello, I am using the java version of the google app engine. I would like to create a function that can receive as parameters many types of objects. I would like to print out the members of the object. Each objects may be different and the function must work for all objects. Do I have to use reflection - if so, what kind of code do I need to write? public class dataOrganization { private String name; private String contact; private PostalAddress address; public dataOrganization(){} } public int getObject(Object obj){ // This function prints out the name of every // member of the object, the type and the value // In this example, it would print out "name - String - null", // "contact - String - null" and "address - PostalAddress - null" } How would I write the function getObject?

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  • How can I limit access to a particular class to one caller at a time in a web service?

    - by MusiGenesis
    I have a web service method in which I create a particular type of object, use it for a few seconds, and then dispose it. Because of problems arising from multiple threads creating and using instances of this class at the same time, I need to restrict the method so that only one caller at a time ever has one of these objects. To do this, I am creating a private static object: private static object _lock = new object(); ... and then inside the web service method I do this around the critical code: lock (_lock) { using (DangerousObject do = new DangerousObject()) { do.MakeABigMess(); do.CleanItUp(); } } I'm not sure this is working, though. Do I have this right? Will this code ensure that only one instance of DangerousObject is instantiated and in use at a time?

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  • PHP - warning - Undefined property: stdClass - fix?

    - by Phill Pafford
    I get this warning in my error logs and wanted to know how to correct this issues in my code. Warning: PHP Notice: Undefined property: stdClass::$records in script.php on line 440 Some Code: // Parse object to get account id's // The response doesn't have the records attribute sometimes. $role_arr = getRole($response->records); // Line 440 Response if records exists stdClass Object ( [done] => 1 [queryLocator] => [records] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [type] => User [Id] => [any] => stdClass Object ( [type] => My Role [Id] => [any] => <sf:Name>My Name</sf:Name> ) ) ) [size] => 1 ) Response if records does not exist stdClass Object ( [done] => 1 [queryLocator] => [size] => 0 ) I was thinking something like array_key_exists() functionality but for objects, anything? or am I going about this the wrong way?

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  • TCL tDom Empty XML Tag

    - by pws5068
    I'm using tDom to loop through some XML and pull out each element's text(). set xml { <systems> <object> <type>Hardware</type> <name>Server Name</name> <attributes> <vendor></vendor> </attributes> </object> <object> <type>Hardware</type> <name>Server Two Name</name> <attributes> <vendor></vendor> </attributes> </object> </systems> }; set doc [dom parse $xml] set root [$doc documentElement] set nodeList [$root selectNodes /systems/object] foreach node $nodeList { set nType [$node selectNodes type/text()] set nName [$node selectNodes name/text()] set nVendor [$node selectNodes attributes/vendor/text()] # Etc... puts "Type: " puts [$nType data] # Etc .. puts [$nVendor data] } But when it tries to print out the Vendor, which is empty, it thows the error invalid command name "". How can I ignore this and just set $nVendor to an empty string?

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  • Is this OleDbDataAdapter bug

    - by ????
    It doesn't look to me OleDbDataAdapter should throw an exception on trying to fill DataSet for a db table column of type decimal(28,3). The message is "The numerical value is too large to fit into a 96 bit decimal". Could you just check this, I have no significant experience with ADO.NET and OLE DB components? The VB.NET code we have in the application is this: Dim dbDataSet As New DataSet Dim dbDataAdapter As OleDbDataAdapter Dim dbCommand As OleDbCommand Dim conn As OleDbConnection Dim connectionString As String 'parts where connectionString is set conn = New OleDbConnection(connectionString) 'part where sqlQuery is set but it ends up being "SELECT Price As 'Price' From PricebookView" - Price is of type decimal(28,3) dbCommand = New OleDbCommand(sqlQuery, conn) dbCommand.CommandTimeout = cmdTimeout dbDataAdapter = New OleDbDataAdapter(dbCommand) dbDataAdapter.Fill(dbDataSet) The last line is where the exception is thrown and the top of the stack trace is: at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbBuffer.ReadNumeric(Int32 offset) at System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value_NUMERIC() at System.Data.OleDb.ColumnBinding.Value() at System.Data.OleDb.OleDbDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DataReaderContainer.CommonLanguageSubsetDataReader.GetValues(Object[] values) at System.Data.ProviderBase.SchemaMapping.LoadDataRow() at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillLoadDataRow(SchemaMapping mapping) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.FillFromReader(DataSet dataset, DataTable datatable, String srcTable, DataReaderContainer dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, DataColumn parentChapterColumn, Object parentChapterValue) at System.Data.Common.DataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, String srcTable, IDataReader dataReader, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) at System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataSet dataSet) ... I am not sure why does it try to set the value to Int32. Thank you for the time !

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  • Problem while executing test case in VS2008 test project

    - by sukumar
    Hi all I have the situation as follows I have develpoed one test project in visual studio 2008 to test my target project. I was getting the following exception when i ran test case in my PC System.IO.FileNotFoundException: The specified module could not be found. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x8007007E) at System.Reflection.Assembly._nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoadFrom(String assemblyFile, Evidence securityEvidence, Byte[] hashValue, AssemblyHashAlgorithm hashAlgorithm, Boolean forIntrospection, StackCrawlMark& stackMark) at System.Reflection.Assembly.LoadFrom(String assemblyFile) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestTypes.Unit.UnitTestExecuter.GetType(UnitTestElement unitTest, String type) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestTypes.Unit.UnitTestExecuter.ResolveMethods(). but the same project runs successfully in my colleague PC. as per my Understanding System.IO.FileNotFoundException will occur in case of missing out the dlls. i checked up with dependency walker to trace out the missed dll.dependency walke traced out the following dlls 1)MFC90D.dll 2)mSvcr90d.dll 3)msvcp90d.dll i copied this dlls to C:\windows\system32 from Microsoft visual studio 9.0 dir and again i ran the dependency walker.this time dependency walker is able to open the given testproject dll with 0 errors .even then the same exception comes up when i ran the test. i got fed up with this. can any one tell why it is behaving as PC dependent.is there any thing that i still missing? any suggestion can be helpfull Thakns in Advance Sukumar i

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  • RIA: how to get functionality, not a data

    - by Budda
    On the server side I have the following class: public class Customer { [Key] public int Id { get; set; } public string FirstName { get; set; } public string SecondName { get; set; } public string FullName { get { return string.Concat(FirstName, " ", SecondName); } } } The problem is that each field is calculated and transferred to the client, for example 'FullName' property: [DataMember()] [Editable(false)] [ReadOnly(true)] public string FullName { get { return this._fullName; } set { if ((this._fullName != value)) { this.ValidateProperty("FullName", value); this.OnFullNameChanging(value); this._fullName = value; this.RaisePropertyChanged("FullName"); this.OnFullNameChanged(); } } } Instead of data transferring (that is traffic consuming, in some cases it introduces significant overhead). I would like to have a calculation on the client side. Is this possible without manual duplication of the property implementation? Thank you.

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  • Computation on db data then list them using either SimpleCursorAdapter or ArrayAdapter

    - by kc2uno
    Hi all, I juststarted programming in android a few weeks ago, so I am not entirely sure how to deal with listing values. Please help me out! I have some questions regarding displaying data sets from db in a list. Currently I have a cursor returned by my db points to a list of rows and I want display 2 columns values in a single row of the list. The row xml looks like this: <TextView android:id="@+id/text1" android:textSize="16sp" android:textStyle="bold" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> <TextView android:id="@+id/text2" android:textSize="14sp" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content"/> so I was thinking using simplecursoradapter which supposedly makes my life easier by displaying the data in a list. However that is only true if I want to display the raw data. For the purpose of my program I need to do some computations on the raw data sets, then display them. I am not sure how to do that using SimpleCursorAdapter. Here's how I display the raw data: String[] from = new String[]{BtDbAdapter.KEY_EX_TYPE,BtDbAdapter.KEY_EX_TIMESTAMP}; int[] to = new int[]{R.id.text1, R.id.text2}; // Now create a simple cursor adapter and set it to display SimpleCursorAdapter records = new SimpleCursorAdapter(this, R.layout.exset_row, mExsetCursor, from, to); setListAdapter(records); Is there a way to do computation on the data in those rows before I bind it with the SimpleCursorAdapter? I was trying to use an alternative way of doing this by using arraylist and arrayadapter, but that way I dont know to how achieve displaying 2 items in a single row. This is my code for using arrayadapter which only display 1 text in a row instead of 2 textviews in a row: //fill in the array timestamp_arr = new ArrayList<String>(); type_arr = new ArrayList<String>(); fillRecord(); Log.d(TAG,"setting now in recordlist"); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.list_item,timestamp_arr)); setListAdapter(new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, R.layout.list_item2,type_arr)); It's very obvious that it only displays one textview in a row because I set the second arrayadapter overwrites the first one! I was trying to use R.id.text1 and R.id.text2 for them, but it gave me some errors saying 04-23 01:40:58.658: ERROR/AndroidRuntime(3309): android.content.res.Resources$NotFoundException: Resource ID #0x7f070008 type #0x12 is not valid I believe the second method can achieve this, but I'm not sure how do deal with the layout problems, so if you any suggestions, please post them out. Thank you!!

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  • Modelling boost::Lockable with semaphore rather than mutex (previously titled: Unlocking a mutex fr

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect. EDIT: The kind of behavior I want is basically as follows. I have an object, and it needs to be locked whenever it is modified. I want to lock the object from one thread, and do some work on it. Then I want to keep the object locked while I tell another worker thread to complete the work. So the first thread can go on and do something else while the worker thread finishes up. When the worker thread gets done, it unlocks the mutex. And I want the transition to be seemless so nobody else can get the mutex lock in between when thread 1 starts the work and thread 2 completes it. Something like inter_thread_mutex seems like it would work, and it would also allow the program to interact with it as if it were an ordinary mutex. So it seems like a clean solution. If there's a better solution, I'd be happy to hear that also. EDIT AGAIN: The reason I need locks to begin with is that there are multiple master threads, and the locks are there to prevent them from accessing shared objects concurrently in invalid ways. So the code already uses loop-level lock-free sequencing of operations at the master thread level. Also, in the original implementation, there were no worker threads, and the mutexes were ordinary kosher mutexes. The inter_thread_thingy came up as an optimization, primarily to improve response time. In many cases, it was sufficient to guarantee that the "first part" of operation A, occurs before the "first part" of operation B. As a dumb example, say I punch object 1 and give it a black eye. Then I tell object 1 to change it's internal structure to reflect all the tissue damage. I don't want to wait around for the tissue damage before I move on to punch object 2. However, I do want the tissue damage to occur as part of the same operation; for example, in the interim, I don't want any other thread to reconfigure the object in such a way that would make tissue damage an invalid operation. (yes, this example is imperfect in many ways, and no I'm not working on a game) So we made the change to a model where ownership of an object can be passed to a worker thread to complete an operation, and it actually works quite nicely; each master thread is able to get a lot more operations done because it doesn't need to wait for them all to complete. And, since the event sequencing at the master thread level is still loop-based, it is easy to write high-level master-thread operations, as they can be based on the assumption that an operation is complete when the corresponding function call returns. Finally, I thought it would be nice to use inter_thread mutex/semaphore thingies using RAII with boost locks to encapsulate the necessary synchronization that is required to make the whole thing work.

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  • JAXB does not call setter when unmarshalling objects

    - by Yaneeve
    Hi all, I am using JAXB 2.0 JDK 6 in order to unmarshall an XML instance into POJOs. In order to add some custom validation I have inserted a validation call into the setter of a property, yet despite it being private, it seems that the unmarshaller does not call the setter but directly modifies the private field. It is crucial to me that the custom validation occurs for this specific field every unmarshall call. What should I do? Code: @XmlAccessorType(XmlAccessType.FIELD) @XmlType(name = "LegalParams", propOrder = { "value" }) public class LegalParams { private static final Logger LOG = Logger.getLogger(LegalParams.class); @XmlTransient private LegalParamsValidator legalParamValidator; public LegalParams() { try { WebApplicationContext webApplicationContext = ContextLoader.getCurrentWebApplicationContext(); LegalParamsFactory legalParamsFactory = (LegalParamsFactory) webApplicationContext.getBean("legalParamsFactory"); HttpSession httpSession = SessionHolder.getInstance().get(); legalParamValidator = legalParamsFactory.newLegalParamsValidator(httpSession); } catch (LegalParamsException lpe) { LOG.warn("Validator related error occurred while attempting to construct a new instance of LegalParams"); throw new IllegalStateException("LegalParams creation failure", lpe); } catch (Exception e) { LOG.warn("Spring related error occurred while attempting to construct a new instance of LegalParams"); throw new IllegalStateException("LegalParams creation failure", e); } } @XmlValue private String value; /** * Gets the value of the value property. * * @return * possible object is * {@link String } * */ public String getValue() { return value; } /** * Sets the value of the value property. * * @param value * allowed object is * {@link String } * @throws TestCaseValidationException * */ public void setValue(String value) throws TestCaseValidationException { legalParamValidator.assertValid(value); this.value = value; } }

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  • Web service occasionally slows down significantly

    - by Swoop
    My company is running into a problem with a web service that is written in C#/ASP.Net. The service receives an identity key for data in SQL Server and a path to generate and save a PDF report for this data. In most cases, this web service returns results to the calling web pages very quickly, usually within a few seconds max. However, it seems to occasionally hit a significant slowdown. The web application calling the web service will generate a timeout error when this slowdown occurs. We have checked and the PDF does get created and saved to the server, so it looks like the web service eventually finishes executing. It seems to take about 1 to 2 minutes for processing to have completed. The PDF is generated using ActiveReports from Data Dynamics. Wwhen this problem occurs, making a small change to the web service's config file (ie, adding a blank space to a connection string line) seems to restart the web service and everything is perfectly ok for a period of time afterwards. Other web applications that are running on the same web server do not seem to experience this type of behavior, only this particular web service. I have added the code for the web service below. It is basic calls to 3rd party libraries. We are not able to recreate this problem in test. I am wondering what might be causing this issue? [WebMethod] public string Publish(int identity, string transactionType, string directory, string filename) { try { AdpConnection Conn = new AdpConnection(ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["myDBConnString"]); AdpCommand Cmd = new AdpCommand("storedproc_GetData", oConn); AdpParameter Param; Cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; Param = Cmd.CreateParameter("@Identity", DbType.Int32); Param.Value = identity; Cmd.Parameters.Add(oParam); Conn.Open(); string aResponse = Cmd.ExecuteScalar().ToString(); Conn.Close(); if (transactionType == "typeA") { //Parse response DataSet dsResponse = ParseDataResponse(aResponse); //dsResponse.WriteXml(@ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["DocsDir"] + identity.ToString() + ".xml"); DataDynamics.ActiveReports.ActiveReport3 rpt = new DataDynamics.ActiveReports.ActiveReport3(); rpt.LoadLayout(@ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["myReportPath"] + "TypeA.rpx"); rpt.AddNamedItem("ReportPath", @ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["myReportPath"]); rpt.AddNamedItem("XMLSTRING", FormatXML(dsResponse.GetXml())); DataDynamics.ActiveReports.DataSources.XMLDataSource xmlds = new DataDynamics.ActiveReports.DataSources.XMLDataSource(); xmlds.FileURL = null; xmlds.RecordsetPattern = "//DataPatternA"; xmlds.LoadXML(FormatXML(dsResponse.GetXml())); if (!System.IO.Directory.Exists(@ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["DocsDir"] + directory + @"\")) { System.IO.Directory.CreateDirectory(@ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["DocsDir"] + directory + @"\"); } string sXML = FormatXML(dsResponse.GetXml()); StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(@ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["DocsDir"] + directory + @"\" + filename + ".xml", false); sw.Write(sXML); sw.Close(); rpt.DataSource = xmlds; rpt.Run(true); DataDynamics.ActiveReports.Export.Pdf.PdfExport xPdf = new DataDynamics.ActiveReports.Export.Pdf.PdfExport(); xPdf.Export(rpt.Document, @ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["DocsDir"] + directory + @"\" + filename + ".pdf"); } } catch(Exception ex) { return "Error: " + ex.ToString(); } return @ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["DocsDir"] + directory + @"\" + filename + ".pdf"; }

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  • SSRS function returns #Error if value of field is null

    - by jen-fields
    Thanks in advance for any and all assistance. My code is: Public Function StripHTML(value As String) As String Return System.Text.RegularExpressions.Regex.Replace(value, "<(.|\n)*?", "") End Function Then I call the function from a textbox. This works great unless there are nulls in the dataset. I tried to compensate for the nulls, but the RDLC file generates an error message that it can't display the subreport. Public Function StripHTML(value As String) As String if isnothing(value) then return value else Return System.Text.RegularExpressions.Regex.Replace(value, "<(.|\n)*?", "") end if End Function I also tried to tell it to return " " if null. I had no luck... Any ideas? and thanks again.

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