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• Can I get the IE debugger to break into long-running javascript

  - by Brian Deacon

  I have a page that has a byzantine amount of javascript running. In IE only, and only version 8, I get a long-script warning that I can reliably reproduce. I suspect it is event handlers triggering themselves in an infinite loop. The Developer Tools are limping horribly under the weight of the script running, but I do seem to be able to get the log to tell me what line of script it was executing when I aborted, but it is inevitably some of the deep plumbing of the ExtJS code we use, and I can't tell where it is in my stack of code. A way of seeing the call stack would work, but preferably I'd like to be able to just break into the debugger when I get the long script warning so I can just step through the stack. There is a similar question posted, but the answers given were for a not-the-right-tool, or the not terribly helpful advice to eliminate half my code at a time on a binary hunt for the infinite loop. If my code were simple enough that I could do that, it probably wouldn't have gotten the infinite loop in the first place. If I could reproduce the problem in firebug, I'd probably be a lot happier too.

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• How can I send GET data to multiple URLs at the same time using cURL?

  - by Rob

  My apologies, I've actually asked this question multiple times, but never quite understood the answers. Here is my current code: while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); //Execute the cURL curl_close($ch); //Close it off } //end while loop What I'm doing here, is taking URLs from a MySQL Database ($resultSet['url']), appending some extra variables to it, just some GET data ($fullcurl), and simply requesting the pages. This starts the script running on those pages, and that's all that this script needs to do, is start those scripts. It doesn't need to return any output. Just the load the page long enough for the script to start. However, currently it's loading each URL (currently 11) one at a time. I need to load all of them simultaneously. I understand I need to use curl_multi_*, but I haven't the slightest idea on how cURL functions work, so I don't know how to change my code to use curl_multi_* in a while loop. So my questions are: How can I change this code to load all of the URLs simultaneously? Please explain it and not just give me code. I want to know what each individual function does exactly. Will curl_multi_exec even work in a while loop, since the while loop is just sending each row one at a time? And of course, any references, guides, tutorials about cURL functions would be nice, as well. Preferably not so much from php.net, as while it does a good job of giving me the syntax, its just a little dry and not so good with the explanations.

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• Problem with circular definition in Scheme

  - by user8472

  I am currently working through SICP using Guile as my primary language for the exercises. I have found a strange behavior while implementing the exercises in chapter 3.5. I have reproduced this behavior using Guile 1.4, Guile 1.8.6 and Guile 1.8.7 on a variety of platforms and am certain it is not specific to my setup. This code works fine (and computes e): (define y (integral (delay dy) 1 0.001)) (define dy (stream-map (lambda (x) x) y)) (stream-ref y 1000) The following code should give an identical result: (define (solve f y0 dt) (define y (integral (delay dy) y0 dt)) (define dy (stream-map f y)) y) (solve (lambda (x) x) 1 0.001) But it yields the error message: standard input:7:14: While evaluating arguments to stream-map in expression (stream-map f y): standard input:7:14: Unbound variable: y ABORT: (unbound-variable) So when embedded in a procedure definition, the (define y ...) does not work, whereas outside the procedure in the global environment at the REPL it works fine. What am I doing wrong here? I can post the auxiliary code (i.e., the definitions of integral, stream-map etc.) if necessary, too. With the exception of the system-dependent code for cons-stream, they are all in the book. My own implementation of cons-stream for Guile is as follows: (define-macro (cons-stream a b) `(cons ,a (delay ,b)))

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• error while updating a database in ASP.NET

  - by Viredae

  I am having trouble updating an SQL database, the problem is not that it doesn't update at all, but that particular parameters are being updated while the others are not. here is the code for updating the parameters: string EditRequest = "UPDATE Requests SET Description = @Desc, BJustif = @Justif, Priority = @Priority, Requested_System = @Requested, Request_Status = @Stat WHERE"; EditRequest += " Req_ID=@ID"; SqlConnection Submit_conn = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConn"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand Submit_comm = new SqlCommand(EditRequest, Submit_conn); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", Request.QueryString["reqid"]); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Desc", DescBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Justif", JustifBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Priority", PriorityList.SelectedValue); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Requested", RelatedBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Stat", 1); Submit_conn.Open(); Submit_comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); Submit_comm.Dispose(); Submit_comm = null; Submit_conn.Close(); get_Description(); Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "Refresh", "ReloadPage();", true); this function is called by a button on a pop-up form which shows the parameters content that is being changed in a text box which is also used to submit the changes back to the database, but when I press submit, the parameters which are displayed on the form don't change, I can't find any problem wit the code, even though I've compared it to similar code which is working fine. In case you need to, here is one of the text boxes I'm using to display and edit the content: <asp:TextBox ID="JustifBox" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" Width="250" Height="50"></asp:TextBox> What exactly is wrong with the code?

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• Regarding the ViewModel

  - by mizipzor

  Im struggling to understand the ViewModel part of the MVVM pattern. My current approach is to have a class, with no logic whatsoever (important), except that it implements INotifyPropertyChanged. The class is just a collection of properties, a struct if you like, describing an as small part of the data as possible. I consider this my Model. Most of the WPF code I write are settings dialogs that configure said Model. The code-behind of the dialog exposes a property which returns an instance of the Model. In the XAML code I bind to subproperties of that property, thereby binding directly to the Model's properties. Which works quite well since it implements the INotifyPropertyChanged. I consider this settings dialog the View. However, I havent really been able to figure out what in all this is the ViewModel. The articles Ive read suggests that the ViewModel should tie the View and the Model together, providing the logic the Model lacks but is still to complex to go directly into the View. Is this correct? Would, in my example, the code-behind of the settings dialog be considered the ViewModel? I just feel a bit lost and would like my peers to debunk some of my assumptions. Am I completely off track here?

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• How to find out where a thread lock happend?

  - by SchlaWiener

  One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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• WHY JSLint complains: "someFunction() was used before it was defined"?

  - by 7hi4g0

  Searching for the JSLint error "was used before it was defined" i've found these: JSLint: Using a function before it's defined error Function was used before it was defined - JSLint JSLint: was used before it was defined jsLint error: “somefunction() was used before it was defined” jslint - Should we tolerate misordered definitions? Problem None of those answers WHY the error is shown. Elaboration According to the ECMA-262 Specification functions are evaluated before execution starts, hence all functions declared using the function keyword are available to all the code idenpendent of the place they were declared (assuming they are acessible on that scope). This is otherwise known as hoisting. Douglas Crockford seems to think it is better to declare every function before the code that uses it regardless of the hoisting effect. According to StackOverflowNewbie in his question, this raises some code organization problems. Not to mention some people, like me, prefer to declare their functions underneath the main/init code. On those questions there are some ways to avoid or fix the error, such as using function expressions vs function declarations. But none of them showed me the reason of the error. Not even Crockford's site. Question(s) Why is it an error to call a function before the declaration, even if it was declared using the function keyword? Is it better to use function expressions instead of function declaration in the JSLint context? If one is preferred, why? Note Not looking for answers like: Crockford is a tyrant Is just Crockford's opinion Thank you :*

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• What corresponds to the Unity 'registration name' in the unity configuration section?

  - by unanswered

  When registering and resolving types in a Unity Container using code you can use 'Registration Names' to disambiguate your references that derive from an interface or base class hierarchy. The 'registration name' text would be provided as a parameter to the register and resolve methods: myContainer.RegisterType<IMyService, CustomerService>("Customers"); and MyServiceBase result = myContainer.Resolve<MyServiceBase>("Customers"); However when I register types in the configuration files I do not see where the 'registration name' can be assigned I register an Interface: <typeAlias alias="IEnlistmentNotification" type="System.Transactions.IEnlistmentNotification, System.Transactions, Version=2.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=b77a5c561934e089" /> Then two types that I happen to know implement that interface: <typeAlias alias="PlaylistManager" type="Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers.PlaylistManager, Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> <typeAlias alias="FlexAleManager" type="Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers.FlexAleManager, Sample.Dailies.Grid.Workers, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> Then I provide mappings between the interface and the two types: <type type="IEnlistmentNotification" mapTo="FlexAleManager"><lifetime type="singleton"/></type> <type type="IEnlistmentNotification" mapTo="PlaylistManager"><lifetime type="singleton"/></type> That seems to correspond to this code: myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, FlexAleManager>(); myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, PlaylistManager>(); but clearly what I need is a disambiguating config entry that corresponds to this code: myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, FlexAleManager>("Flex"); myContainer.RegisterType<IEnlistmentNotification, PlaylistManager>("Play"); Then when I get into my code I could do this: IEnlistmentNotification flex = myContainer.Resolve<IEnlistmentNotification>("Flex"); IEnlistmentNotification play = myContainer.Resolve<IEnlistmentNotification>("Play"); See what I mean? Thanks, Kimball

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• Difference in behaviour( gcc and MSVC++ )

  - by Prasoon Saurav

  Consider the following code. #include <stdio.h> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct XYZ { int X,Y,Z; }; std::vector<XYZ> A; int rec(int idx) { int i = A.size(); A.push_back(XYZ()); if (idx >= 5) return i; A[i].X = rec(idx+1); return i; } int main(){ A.clear(); rec(0); puts("FINISH!"); } I couldn't figure out the reason why the code gives segmentation fault on Linux(IDE used: Code::Blocks) whereas on Windows(IDE used : MSVC++) it doesn't. When I used valgrind just to check what actually the problem was, I got this output. I got Invalid write of size 4 at four different places. Then why didn't the code crash when I used MSVC++? Am I missing something?

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• Partial class or "chained inheritance"

  - by Charlie boy

  Hi From my understanding partial classes are a bit frowned upon by professional developers, but I've come over a bit of an issue; I have made an implementation of the RichTextBox control that uses user32.dll calls for faster editing of large texts. That results in quite a bit of code. Then I added spellchecking capabilities to the control, this was made in another class inheriting RichTextBox control as well. That also makes up a bit of code. These two functionalities are quite separate but I would like them to be merged so that I can drop one control on my form that has both fast editing capabilities and spellchecking built in. I feel that simply adding the code form one class to the other would result in a too large code file, especially since there are two very distinct areas of functionality, so I seem to need another approach. Now to my question; To merge these two classes should I make the spellchecking RichTextBox inherit from the fast edit one, that in turn inherits RichTextBox? Or should I make the two classes partials of a single class and thus making them more “equal” so to speak? This is more of a question of OO principles and exercise on my part than me trying to reinvent the wheel, I know there are plenty of good text editing controls out there. But this is just a hobby for me and I just want to know how this kind of solution would be managed by a professional. Thanks!

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• Good Replacement for User Control?

  - by David Lively

  I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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• How to hide the title bar while application is loading and show it when it finishes loading?

  - by Arci

  I have an application which uses a custom title bar. However, when my application launches, I noticed that the default title bar is shown for a brief period of time. My problem is I don't want to show the default title bar while my application is loading. How do I hide the title bar while my application is loading so that there will be no hint of it and then show it afterwards? So far, I tried the following solutions but none have worked: Hide the title bar in XML and then set the custom title bar in code. (Problem encountered: I received an error message saying: "You cannot combine custom titles with other title features".) In XML: <item name="android:windowNoTitle">true</item> In onCreate method: requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE); //... some code goes here getWindow().setFeatureInt(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE, R.layout.title_header); Set the size of the title bar in XML to 0. Then change it's size via code later. (Problem encountered: I don't know how to set the size of title bar in code. Is it possible? I tried getWindow().setAttributes() and getWindow().setLayout() but both of them didn't worked.)" In XML: <item name="android:windowTitleSize">30dp</item> Modify windowTitleBackgroundStyle and set a transparent drawable as background. (Problem encountered: The content of the title bar became invisible but a line below the title bar is still visible.) In XML: <!-- style used by windowTitleBackgroundStyle --> <item name="android:background">@drawable/transparent</item>

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• posting a variable with jquery and receiving it on other page

  - by Billa

  I want to post a varible "id" to a page. I'm trying following code, but I cant get the id value, it says "undefined". function box(){ var id=$(this).attr("id"); $("#votebox").slideDown("slow"); $("#flash").fadeIn("slow"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", //I want to post the "id" to the rating page. data: "id="+$(this).attr("id"), url: "rating.php", success: function(html){ $("#flash").fadeOut("slow"); $("#content").html(html); } }); } This function is called in following code. In the following code too, the id is posted to the page "votes.php", and it works fine, but in the above code when I'm trying to post the id to the rating.php page, it does not send. $(function(){ $("a.vote_up").click(function(){ the_id = $(this).attr('id'); $("span#votes_count"+the_id).fadeOut("fast"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "action=vote_up&id="+$(this).attr("id"), url: "votes.php", success: function(msg) { $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeOut(); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).html(msg); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeIn(); var that = this; box.call(that); } }); }); }); rating.php <? $id = $_POST['id']; echo $id; ?> The html part is: <a href='javascript:;' class='vote_up' id='<?php echo $row['id']; ?>'>Vote Up!</a> I'll appriciate any help.

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• How do you tell that your unit tests are correct?

  - by Jacob Adams

  I've only done minor unit testing at various points in my career. Whenever I start diving into it again, it always troubles me how to prove that my tests are correct. How can I tell that there isn't a bug in my unit test? Usually I end up running the app, proving it works, then using the unit test as a sort of regression test. What is the recommended approach and/or what is the approach you take to this problem? Edit: I also realize that you could write small, granular unit tests that would be easy to understand. However, if you assume that small, granular code is flawless and bulletproof, you could just write small, granular programs and not need unit testing. Edit2: For the arguments "unit testing is for making sure your changes don't break anything" and "this will only happen if the test has the exact same flaw as the code", what if the test overfits? It's possible to pass both good and bad code with a bad test. My main question is what good is unit testing since if your tests can be flawed you can't really improve your confidence in your code, can't really prove your refactoring worked, and can't really prove that you met the specification?

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• Why Response.Write behavior varies in the given scenario?

  - by Sri Kumar

  Hello All, When i POST the page using the following code, the Response.write("Hey") doesn't write the content ("Hello") to the parent page <form method="post" name="upload" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue" > <input type="file" name="filename" /> <input type="submit" value="Upload Data File" name="cmdSubmit" /> </form> But When i use following code , and POST the data, the Response.write("Hey") can be obtained in the parent page HttpWebRequest requestToSender = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue"); requestToSender.Method = "POST"; requestToSender.ContentType = "multipart/form-data"; HttpWebResponse responseFromSender = (HttpWebResponse)requestToSender.GetResponse(); string fromSender = string.Empty; using (StreamReader responseReader = new StreamReader(responseFromSender.GetResponseStream())) { fromSender = responseReader.ReadToEnd(); } In the CrossPage.aspx i have the following code if (!Page.IsPostBack) { NameValueCollection postPageCollection = Request.Form; foreach (string name in postPageCollection.AllKeys) { Response.Write(name + " " + postPageCollection[name]); } HttpFileCollection postCollection = Request.Files; foreach (string name in postCollection.AllKeys) { HttpPostedFile aFile = postCollection[name]; aFile.SaveAs(Server.MapPath(".") + "/" + Path.GetFileName(aFile.FileName)); } Response.Write("Hey"); } I don't have any code in the Page_Load event of parent page.? What could be the cause? I need to write the "hey" to the Parent page using the first scenario. Both the application are of different domain. Edit: "Hey" would be from the CrossPage.aspx. I need to write this back to the Parent Page

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• Can't touch UITextField on UIScrollView

  - by Chris B

  Hey guys, I know this has been talked about a lot. I think I've gone thru every question on this site, and still have not been able to get this working. I'm new to developing but I have a good sense of what's going on with all of my code. I definitely don't have a lot of experience though, this is my first iPhone app. I'm making a data entry field that is comprised of multiple UITextFields within a UIScrollView. I'll avoid explaining the other details for now, as it seems its a very basic problem. Without a scrollview, the textfields work perfectly. I can touch the textfield and the keyboard or picker view show up appropriately. When I add the textfields to a scrollview, the scrollview works, but then the text fields don't receive my touches. Here's the key: When 'User Interaction' is ENABLED, the scrollview works but the textfield touches are NOT registered. When 'User Interaction' is DISABLED, the scrollview doesn't work, but the textfield touches ARE registered and the keyboard/picker pops up. From the other posts I have seen people creating subclasses and overriding the touches in a separate implementation. I've seen people using custom content views (subviews?), I've seen some solutions that are now obsolete since the APIs have changed in newer versions of the SDK, and I am just completely stuck. I will leave out my code for now, because maybe there is a solution that someone has without requiring my code. If someone needs to see my code, I will put it up. My app is being written in the 3.1.3 SDK. If anyone has ANY information that could help, it would be so greatly appreciated.

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• Shuffle Two NSMutableArray independently

  - by Superman

  I'm creating two NSMutableArray in my viewDidLoad, I add it in a NSMutableDictionary. When I tried shuffling it with one array, It is okay. But the problem is when Im shuffling two arrays independently its not working,somehow the indexes got mixed up. Here is my code for my array (I have two of these): self.items1 = [NSMutableArray new]; for(int i = 0; i <= 100; i++) { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSCachesDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *savedImagePath = [documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"[Images%d.png", i]]; if([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:savedImagePath]){ self.container = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [container setObject:[UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:savedImagePath] forKey:@"items1"]; [container setObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:i] forKey:@"index1"]; [items1 addObject:container]; } } NSLog(@"Count : %d", [items1 count]); [items1 enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id object, NSUInteger index, BOOL *stop) { NSLog(@"%@ images at index %d", object, index); }]; then my shuffle code(Which I tried duplicating for the other array,but not working also): srandom(time(NULL)); NSUInteger count = [items1 count]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < count; ++i) { int nElements = count - i; int n = (random() % nElements) + i; [items1 exchangeObjectAtIndex:i withObjectAtIndex:n]; } How am I going to shuffle it using above code (or if you have other suggestions) with two arrays? Thanks My other problem is when I tries subclassing the class for the shuffle method or either use the above code, their index mixed. For example: Object: apple, ball, carrots, dog Indexes: 1 2 3 4 but in my View when shuffled: Object: carrots, apple, dog, balle Indexes: 2 4 1 3

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• starting rails in test environment

  - by Brian D.

  I'm trying to load up rails in the test environment using a ruby script. I've tried googling a bit and found this recommendation: require "../../config/environment" ENV['RAILS_ENV'] = ARGV.first || ENV['RAILS_ENV'] || 'test' This seems to load up my environment alright, but my development database is still being used. Am I doing something wrong? Here is my database.yml file... however I don't think it is the issue development: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_development pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_test pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost production: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_production pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost I can't use ruby script/server -e test because I'm trying to run ruby code after I load rails. More specifically what I'm trying to do is: run a .sql database script, load up rails and then run automated tests. Everything seems to be working fine, but for whatever reason rails seems to be loading in the development environment instead of the test environment. Here is a shortened version of the code I am trying to run: system "execute mysql script here" require "../../config/environment" ENV['RAILS_ENV'] = ARGV.first || ENV['RAILS_ENV'] || 'test' describe Blog do it "should be initialized successfully" do blog = Blog.new end end I don't need to start a server, I just need to load my rails code base (models, controllers, etc..) so I can run tests against my code. Thanks for any help.

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• Multiple exports with MEF does some really heinous stuff -- why, and why is it allowed?

  - by Dave

  I have an interesting situation where I need to do something like this: [Export[typeof(ICandy1)] [Export[typeof(ICandy2)] public class Candy : ICandy2 { ... } where public interface ICandy1 { ... } public interface ICandy2 : ICandy1 { ... } I couldn't find any posts anywhere regarding using multiple [Export] attributes, so I figured, what the hell, might as well try it. At first glance, it actually seemed to work. I have a couple of methods that call into both interfaces of a Candy instance, and it was fine. However, as I started to test the app, I saw that the behavior wasn't right, and when looking at the Output window, I saw that I was getting tons of COMExceptions. I couldn't track down where they were all coming from, but they always occurred when a worker thread was sleeping. I figured that it had to be from the main thread, then, but didn't know how to debug this at all. Nothing should have been going on in the GUI, and I disabled my DispatchTimers just in case -- same thing. Even more strange than the COMExceptions was the really, really erratic behavior when stepping through code. About 30% of the time, when I single stepped, it would pop out of the method, or it would single step over two lines of code! Totally weird stuff that I am not used to seeing. The only thing that changed between working and non-working code was the introduction of MEF through my plugin loading code. So as a test, I changed my plugin assembly to only export one interface, and I hardcoded everything in the app that relied on the other (now not-implemented) interface. And now the COMExceptions are gone, and the weird debugging behavior is gone. Is this something people here have seen before? If MEF is not expected to allow a class to Export multiple interfaces, then shouldn't a CompositionException get raised when composing the parts? Can anyone explain why MEF would cause these weird problems???

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• Limit CPU usage of a process

  - by jb

  I have a service running which periodically checks a folder for a file and then processes it. (Reads it, extracts the data, stores it in sql) So I ran it on a test box and it took a little longer thaan expected. The file had 1.6 million rows, and it was still running after 6 hours (then I went home). The problem is the box it is running on is now absolutely crippled - remote desktop was timing out so I cant even get on it to stop the process, or attach a debugger to see how far through etc. It's solidly using 90%+ CPU, and all other running services or apps are suffering. The code is (from memory, may not compile): List<ItemDTO> items = new List<ItemDTO>(); using (StreamReader sr = fileInfo.OpenText()) { while (!sr.EndOfFile) { string line = sr.ReadLine() try { string s = line.Substring(0,8); double y = Double.Parse(line.Substring(8,7)); //If the item isnt already in the collection, add it. if (items.Find(delegate(ItemDTO i) { return (i.Item == s); }) == null) items.Add(new ItemDTO(s,y)); } catch { /*Crash*/ } } return items; } - So I am working on improving the code (any tips appreciated). But it still could be a slow affair, which is fine, I've no problems with it taking a long time as long as its not killing my server. So what I want from you fine people is: 1) Is my code hideously un-optimized? 2) Can I limit the amount of CPU my code block may use? Cheers all

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• Spring Security ACL: NotFoundException from JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl

  - by user340202

  Hello, I've been working on this task for too long to abandon the idea of using Spring Security to achieve it, but I wish that the community will provide with some support that will help reduce the regret that I have for choosing Spring Security. Enough ranting and now let's get to the point. I'm trying to create an ACL by using JDBCMutableAclService.createAcl as follows: [code] public void addPermission(IWFArtifact securedObject, Sid recipient, Permission permission, Class clazz) { ObjectIdentity oid = new ObjectIdentityImpl(clazz.getCanonicalName(), securedObject.getId()); this.addPermission(oid, recipient, permission); } @Override @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, isolation = Isolation.READ_UNCOMMITTED, readOnly = false) public void addPermission(ObjectIdentity oid, Sid recipient, Permission permission) { SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet(); MutableAcl acl; try { acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); } catch (AlreadyExistsException e) { acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); } // try { // acl = (MutableAcl) this.mutableAclService.readAclById(oid); // } catch (NotFoundException nfe) { // acl = this.mutableAclService.createAcl(oid); // } acl.insertAce(acl.getEntries().length, permission, recipient, true); this.mutableAclService.updateAcl(acl); } [/code] The call throws a NotFoundException from the line: [code] // Retrieve the ACL via superclass (ensures cache registration, proper retrieval etc) Acl acl = readAclById(objectIdentity); [/code] I believe this is caused by something related to Transactional, and that's why I have tested with many TransactionDefinition attributes. I have also doubted the annotation and tried with declarative transaction definition, but still with no luck. One important point is that I have used the statement used to insert the oid in the database earlier in the method directly on the database and it worked, and also threw a unique constraint exception at me when it tried to insert it in the method. I'm using Spring Security 2.0.8 and IceFaces 1.8 (which doesn't support spring 3.0 but definetely supprorts 2.0.x, specially when I keep caling SpringSecurityUtils.assureThreadLocalAuthSet()). My AppServer is Tomcat 6.0, and my DB Server is MySQL 6.0 I wish to get back a reply soon because I need to get this task off my way

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• submittingthe form even if the form is in invalid state

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

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• Loading Javascript through an AJAX load through jQuery??

  - by Jason Axelrod

  I have an javascript that I place into a page using the code below. What the code does is place an object/embed code into a webpage. Simple javascript loader to a NicoVideo movie <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395"></script> This works great in a webpage. But what if I want to load this javascript into a page using AJAX? This no longer works for the obvious reasons, you would need to eval the script in order to get it to run. However, I have no idea how to do this. I am using jQuery on my page; so keep that in mind. I have tried the following code, but it doesn't seem to work through AJAX, or even in a normal page load environment. <script>$.getScript("http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395");</script> Any ideas on how I would get this to work?

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• Dataset holds a table called "Table", not the table I pass in?

  - by dotnetdev

  Hi, I have the code below: string SQL = "select * from " + TableName; using (DS = new DataSet()) using (SqlDataAdapter adapter = new SqlDataAdapter()) using (SqlConnection sqlconn = new SqlConnection(connectionStringBuilder.ToString())) using (SqlCommand objCommand = new SqlCommand(SQL, sqlconn)) { sqlconn.Open(); adapter.SelectCommand = objCommand; adapter.Fill(DS); } System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(DS.Tables[0].TableName); return DS; However, every time I run this code, the dataset (DS) is filled with one table called "Table". It does not represent the table name I pass in as the parameter TableName and this parameter does not get mutated so I don't know where the name Table comes from. I'd expect the table to be the same as the tableName parameter I pass in? Any idea why this is not so? EDIT: Important fact: This code needs to return a dataset because I use the dataRelation object in another method, which is dependent on this, and without using a dataset, that method throws an exception. The code for that method is: DataRelation PartToIntersection = new DataRelation("XYZ", this.LoadDataToTable(tableName).Tables[tableName].Columns[0], // Treating the PartStat table as the parent - .N this.LoadDataToTable("PartProducts").Tables["PartProducts"].Columns[0]); // 1 // PartsProducts (intersection) to ProductMaterial DataRelation ProductMaterialToIntersection = new DataRelation("", ds.Tables["ProductMaterial"].Columns[0], ds.Tables["PartsProducts"].Columns[1]); Thanks

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• Converting image to Black & White image on iPhone SDK issues.

  - by KfirS

  Hello, I've used a familiar code to convert image to Black & White which I've founded on several forums. The code is: CGColorSpaceRef colorSapce = CGColorSpaceCreateDeviceGray(); CGContextRef context = CGBitmapContextCreate(nil, originalImage.size.width, originalImage.size.height, 8, originalImage.size.width, colorSapce, kCGImageAlphaNone); CGContextSetInterpolationQuality(context, kCGInterpolationHigh); CGContextSetShouldAntialias(context, NO); CGContextDrawImage(context, CGRectMake(0, 0, originalImage.size.width, originalImage.size.height), [originalImage CGImage]); CGImageRef bwImage = CGBitmapContextCreateImage(context); CGContextRelease(context); CGColorSpaceRelease(colorSapce); UIImage *resultImage = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:bwImage]; // This is result B/W image. CGImageRelease(bwImage); return resultImage; When I'm using this code with on Horizontal image it's work fine, but when I'm trying a to use this code on Vertical image, the result is disproportionate image and rotate 90 degree left. Can anyone know what could be the problem? Thanks, Kfir.

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