Search Results

Search found 18913 results on 757 pages for 'ideas'.

Page 656/757 | < Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >

  • Accurately and securely measure the time spent viewing a web page

    - by balpha
    Suppose the following: You have a web page that presents a simple game to a user (e.g. a quiz, a puzzle, etc). The user solves the puzzle, submits the result, and you want to measure as precisely as possible how long they took to solve it. Assume it's quite simple, so we're talking seconds, not hours. Also assume JavaScript is required anyway, so there's no need to think of JS-disabled browsers. Finally, assume we don't want to use anything like Flash, Silverlight, or the like. I can think of several techniques: Simply take the time between the points when the data was sent from the server and when the submission arrives. Since this is exclusively server-side, there's no chance for cheating. However, issues like network latency and page rendering time might make this unfair for users with slow computers / browsers / internet connections. On the first request, just send the page without the actual game data. When everything is loaded so far, retrieve the game data through an AJAX call and populate it into the page. This is similar to 1., but reduces some of the caveats introduced through time spent on overhead. Have the time measured on the client side using JavaScript and submitted alongside with the solution. This would theoretically be the most accurate, but it introduces the possibility of cheating, because you're relying on client data. Use the request time headers of a "ready to play" AJAX call and the result submission request. Same caveat as 3., as it is still client data. A combination of server side and client side measuring with some kind of plausibility analysis. I can't think of a good way, but maybe you can. Thoughts? Other ideas?

    Read the article

  • How to get the set of beans that are to be created in Spring?

    - by cyborg
    So here's the scenario: I have a Spring XML configuration with some lazy-beans, some not lazy-beans and some beans that depend on other beans. Eventually Spring will resolve all this so that only the beans that are meant to be created are created. The question: how can I programmatically tell what this set is? When I use context.getBean(name) that initializes the bean. BeanDefinition.isLazyInit() will only tell me how I defined the bean. Any other ideas? ETA: In DefaultListableBeanFactory: public void preInstantiateSingletons() throws BeansException { if (this.logger.isInfoEnabled()) { this.logger.info("Pre-instantiating singletons in " + this); } synchronized (this.beanDefinitionMap) { for (Iterator it = this.beanDefinitionNames.iterator(); it.hasNext();) { String beanName = (String) it.next(); RootBeanDefinition bd = getMergedLocalBeanDefinition(beanName); if (!bd.isAbstract() && bd.isSingleton() && !bd.isLazyInit()) { if (isFactoryBean(beanName)) { FactoryBean factory = (FactoryBean) getBean(FACTORY_BEAN_PREFIX + beanName); if (factory instanceof SmartFactoryBean && ((SmartFactoryBean) factory).isEagerInit()) { getBean(beanName); } } else { getBean(beanName); } } } } } The set of instantiable beans is initialized. When initializing this set any beans not in this set referenced by this set will also be created. From looking through the source it does not look like there's going to be any easy way to answer my question.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC 2 - Custom route doesn't find controller action

    - by mcfroob
    For some reason my application isn't routing to my controller method correctly. I have a routelink like this in my webpage - <%= Html.RouteLink("View", "Blog", new { id=(item.BlogId), slug=(item.Slug) }) %> In global.asax.cs I have the following routes - routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "MoreBlogs", "Blog/Page/{page}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index" } ); routes.MapRoute( "Blog", "Blog/View/{id}/{slug}", new { controller = "Blog", action = "View"} ); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Blog", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } // Parameter defaults ); And then I have a class BlogController that has a method - public ActionResult View(int id, string slug) { ... etc. } I put a breakpoint in the first line of the View method but it's not getting hit at all. I checked with a route debugger for the format localhost/Blog/View/1/test and it matched my custom route. All I'm getting is a 404 while running this, I can't work out why the route won't post to the view method in my controller - any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Selecting random top 3 listings per shop for a range of active advertising shops

    - by GraGra33
    I’m trying to display a list of shops each with 3 random items from their shop, if they have 3 or more listings, that are actively advertising. I have 3 tables: one for the shops – “Shops”, one for the listings – “Listings” and one that tracks active advertisers – “AdShops”. Using the below statement, the listings returned are random however I’m not getting exactly 3 listings (rows) returned per shop. SELECT AdShops.ID, Shops.url, Shops.image_url, Shops.user_name AS shop_name, Shops.title, L.listing_id AS listing_id, L.title AS listing_title, L.price as price, L.image_url AS listing_image_url, L.url AS listing_url FROM AdShops INNER JOIN Shops ON AdShops.user_id = Shops.user_id INNER JOIN Listings AS L ON Shops.user_id = L.user_id WHERE (Shops.is_vacation = 0 AND Shops.listing_count > 2 AND L.listing_id IN (SELECT TOP 3 L2.listing_id FROM Listings AS L2 WHERE L2.listing_id IN (SELECT TOP 100 PERCENT L3.listing_id FROM Listings AS L3 WHERE (L3.user_id = L.user_id) ) ORDER BY NEWID() ) ) ORDER BY Shops.shop_name I’m stumped. Anyone have any ideas on how to fix it? The ideal solution would be one record per store with the 3 listings (and associated data) were in columns and not rows – is this possible?

    Read the article

  • Nhibernate Fluent domain Object with Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned not saveable

    - by urpcor
    Hi there, I am using for some legacy db the corresponding domainclasses with mappings. Now the Ids of the entities are calculated by some stored Procedure in the DB which gives back the Id for the new row.(Its legacy, I cant change this) Now I create the new entity , set the Id and Call Save. But nothing happens. no exeption. Even NH Profiler does not say a bit. its as the Save call does nothing. I expect that NH thinks that the record is already in the db because its got an Id already. But I am using Id(x = x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned() and intetionally the Session.Save(object) method. I am confused. I saw so many samples there it worked. does any body have any ideas about it? public class Appendix { public virtual int id { get; set; } public virtual AppendixHierarchy AppendixHierachy { get; set; } public virtual byte[] appendix { get; set; } } public class AppendixMap : ClassMap<Appendix> { public AppendixMap () { WithTable("appendix"); Id(x => x.id).GeneratedBy.Assigned(); References(x => x.AppendixHierachy).ColumnName("appendixHierarchyId"); Map(x => x.appendix); } }

    Read the article

  • How to pass common arguments to Perl modules

    - by Leonard
    I'm not thrilled with the argument-passing architecture I'm evolving for the (many) Perl scripts that have been developed for some scripts that call various Hadoop MapReduce jobs. There are currently 8 scripts (of the form run_something.pl) that are run from cron. (And more on the way ... we expect anywhere from 1 to 3 more for every function we add to hadoop.) Each of these have about 6 identical command-line parameters, and a couple command line parameters that are similar, all specified with Euclid. The implementations are in a dozen .pm modules. Some of which are common, and others of which are unique.... Currently I'm passing the args globally to each module ... Inside run_something.pl I have: set_common_args (%ARGV); set_something_args (%ARGV); And inside Something.pm I have sub set_something_args { (%MYARGS) =@_; } So then I can do if ( $MYARGS{'--needs_more_beer'} ) { $beer++; } I'm seeing that I'm probably going to have additional "common" files that I'll want to pass args to, so I'll have three or four set_xxx_args calls at the top of each run_something.pl, and it just doesn't seem too elegant. On the other hand, it beats passing the whole stupid argument array down the call chain, and choosing and passing individual elements down the call chain is (a) too much work (b) error-prone (c) doesn't buy much. In lots of ways what I'm doing is just object-oriented design without the object-oriented language trappings, and it looks uglier without said trappings, but nonetheless ... Anyone have thoughts or ideas?

    Read the article

  • Apache and linux file permissions can't browse file or directories

    - by dardub
    I just copied my magento site over to a local server running CentOS 5.4. The browser said it can't locate the location of the stylesheets. The stylesheets are within /skin/frontend/my_new_interface/design2/css. I tried to view in the browser and I can't view any of the files within the css directory. I verified a million times that I'm typing in the correct location. I can view files within /skin/frontend/my_new_interface/design2. Can't browse directories within browser however. I typed in ls -l css and get: -rwxr-xr-x 1 apache apache listed for all the files I tried chmod -R 755 and the directories I changed the apache conf Options Indexes But still when I browse the directories I get Forbidden. However, in another fresh installation of magento in the same www dir, I am able to browse directories. As far as I can tell both installations have same ownership and permissions. I also tried find . -type f -exec chmod 644 {} \; find . -type d -exec chmod 755 {} \; which was recommended in the magento wiki I've just run out of ideas.

    Read the article

  • Update Web Reference in Visual Studio

    - by NeilD
    Hi, I have inherited a web site project that makes use of a number of WCF Web Services hosted on a BizTalk server. We have two environments that I need to deploy this project to, with different URLs for the different BizTalk servers. i.e. In the Staging environment, I need to point the services at xx.xx.xx.101 In the Live environment, I need to point them at xx.xx.xx.102, or whatever. Currently, we've got all of the URLs stored in keys in the web.config file, so that we can change them dynamically... Unfortunately this isn't working! If I change the URL in the web.config to something other than what the project was compiled with, I get an error when calling the service: Server did not recognize the value of HTTP Header SOAPAction: xx.xx.xx.101\ServiceName\MethodName I'm told that the only way they've known to deploy this is to update the web.config URLs, change all of the web references in Visual Studio to match, click on "update web reference" for each reference in Visual Studio, and then compile. It's driving me mad! I've written a pre-build NAnt script to go through and replace all instances of the URL found anywhere in the project directory, and even that isn't making any difference. There must be something else being pulled down from the service when I click the "update reference", but I'm new to working with web services, and so I'm not sure what. Does anyone have any ideas? Is there a way to do this programatically? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Responsive logo (image replacement) in html5boilerplate

    - by Barbara
    I'm using the responsive version of html5 boilerplate via initializr.com. My site uses a custom logo so i added the .ir class to h1 .ir { background-color: transparent; border: 0; overflow: hidden; *text-indent: -9999px; } like this <h1 class="title ir">h1.title</h1> The documentation says Add the .ir class to any element you are applying image-replacement to. When replacing an element's content with an image, make sure to also set a specific background-image: url(pathtoimage.png);, width, and height so that your replacement image appears. So I added to the code these lines .ir { background-image: url(http://i.imgur.com/yYnyJ.jpg); background-size: 100% auto; width:450px; height:450px } The problem are the specific width and height. I can't get rid of them but the logo is not responsive this way. Ideas? Here's the fiddle. http://jsfiddle.net/qeW3e/

    Read the article

  • How to get values of xml elements?

    - by user187580
    Hi, I have some xml data and I am trying to access some elements. The structure of data is as below (using print_r($data)). I can get $data->{'parent'}->title, it works but if I try to get value of href using $data->{'parent'}->link[0]->{'@attributes'}->href .. it doesnt work .. any ideas? Thanks SimpleXMLElement Object ( [@attributes] => Array ( [children] => 29 [modules] => 0 ) [title] => Test title [link] => Array ( [0] => SimpleXMLElement Object ( [@attributes] => Array ( [href] => data.php?id=2322 [rel] => self [type] => application/xml ) ) [1] => SimpleXMLElement Object ( [@attributes] => Array ( [href] => data.php?id=2342 [rel] => alternate [type] => text/html ) ) ) [parent] => SimpleXMLElement Object ( [@attributes] => Array ( [children] => 6 [modules] => 0 ) [title] => Top [link] => Array ( [0] => SimpleXMLElement Object ( [@attributes] => Array ( [href] => /data.php?id=5763 [rel] => self [type] => application/xml ) ) [1] => SimpleXMLElement Object ( [@attributes] => Array ( [href] => /data.php?id=2342 [rel] => alternate [type] => text/html ) ) ) ) )

    Read the article

  • Generic that takes only numeric types (int double etc)?

    - by brandon
    In a program I'm working on, I need to write a function to take any numeric type (int, short, long etc) and shove it in to a byte array at a specific offset. There exists a Bitconverter.GetBytes() method that takes the numeric type and returns it as a byte array, and this method only takes numeric types. So far I have: private void AddToByteArray<T>(byte[] destination, int offset, T toAdd) where T : struct { Buffer.BlockCopy(BitConverter.GetBytes(toAdd), 0, destination, offset, sizeof(toAdd)); } So basically my goal is that, for example, a call to AddToByteArray(array, 3, (short)10) would take 10 and store it in the 4th slot of array. The explicit cast exists because I know exactly how many bytes I want it to take up. There are cases where I would want a number that is small enough to be a short to really take up 4 bytes. On the flip side, there are times when I want an int to be crunched down to just a single byte. I'm doing this to create a custom network packet, if that makes any ideas pop in to your heads. If the where clause of a generic supported something like "where T : int || long || etc" I would be ok. (And no need to explain why they don't support that, the reason is fairly obvious) Any help would be greatly appreciated! Edit: I realize that I could just do a bunch of overloads, one for each type I want to support... but I'm asking this question because I want to avoid precisely that :)

    Read the article

  • Concurrency problem with arrays (Java)

    - by Johannes
    For an algorithm I'm working on I tried to develop a blacklisting mechanism that can blacklist arrays in a specific way: If "1, 2, 3" is blacklisted "1, 2, 3, 4, 5" is also considered blacklisted. I'm quite happy with the solution I've come up with so far. But there seem to be some serious problems when I access a blacklist from multiple threads. The method "contains" (see code below) sometimes returns true, even if an array is not blacklisted. This problem does not occur if I only use one thread, so it most likely is a concurrency problem. I've tried adding some synchronization, but it didn't change anything. I also tried some slightly different implementations using java.util.concurrent classes. Any ideas on how to fix this? public class Blacklist { private static final int ARRAY_GROWTH = 10; private final Node root = new Node(); private static class Node{ private volatile Node[] childNodes = new Node[ARRAY_GROWTH]; private volatile boolean blacklisted = false; public void blacklist(){ this.blacklisted = true; this.childNodes = null; } } public void add(final int[] array){ synchronized (root) { Node currentNode = this.root; for(final int edge : array){ if(currentNode.blacklisted) return; else if(currentNode.childNodes.length <= edge) { currentNode.childNodes = Arrays.copyOf(currentNode.childNodes, edge + ARRAY_GROWTH); } if(currentNode.childNodes[edge] == null) { currentNode.childNodes[edge] = new Node(); } currentNode = currentNode.childNodes[edge]; } currentNode.blacklist(); } } public boolean contains(final int[] array){ synchronized (root) { Node currentNode = this.root; for(final int edge : array){ if(currentNode.blacklisted) return true; else if(currentNode.childNodes.length <= edge || currentNode.childNodes[edge] == null) return false; currentNode = currentNode.childNodes[edge]; } return currentNode.blacklisted; } } }

    Read the article

  • Crash using WscRegisterForChanges.

    - by user335126
    I'm trying to use the WscRegisterForChanges with C++ function in Windows 7. Documentation located here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb432507(v=VS.85).aspx My problem is that even though the callback properly executes, the code crashes when it gets to the end of the callback's execution. Here's the code in question. It's very simple, so I'm not sure why it's crashing: #include #include #include void SecurityCenterChangeOccurred(void *param) { printf("Change occurred!\n"); } int main() { HRESULT result = S_OK; HANDLE callbackRegistration = NULL; result = WscRegisterForChanges( NULL, &callbackRegistration, (LPTHREAD_START_ROUTINE)SecurityCenterChangeOccurred, NULL); while(1) { Sleep(100); } return 0; } My call stack looks like this when the crash occurs: 00faf6e8() ntdll.dll!_TppWorkerThread@4() + 0x1293 bytes kernel32.dll!@BaseThreadInitThunk@12() + 0x12 bytes ntdll.dll!___RtlUserThreadStart@8() + 0x27 bytes ntdll.dll!__RtlUserThreadStart@8() + 0x1b bytes If I add ExitThread(0); to the end of SecurityCenterChangeOccurred, I get an error and the following trace (So I don't think I should be using ExitThread): Unhandled exception at 0x7799852b (ntdll.dll) in WscRegisterForChangesCrash.exe: 0xC000071C: An invalid thread, handle %p, is specified for this operation. Possibly, a threadpool worker thread was specified. ntdll.dll!_TpCheckTerminateWorker@4() + 0x3ca2f bytes ntdll.dll!_RtlExitUserThread@4() + 0x30 bytes WscRegisterForChangesCrash.exe!SecurityCenterChangeOccurred(void * param=0x00000000) Line 8 + 0xa bytes C++ wscapi.dll!WorkItemWrapper() + 0x19 bytes ntdll.dll!_RtlpTpWorkCallback@8() + 0xdf bytes ntdll.dll!_TppWorkerThread@4() + 0x1293 bytes kernel32.dll!@BaseThreadInitThunk@12() + 0x12 bytes ntdll.dll!___RtlUserThreadStart@8() + 0x27 bytes ntdll.dll!__RtlUserThreadStart@8() + 0x1b bytes Does anyone have any ideas why this might be happening? To trigger the crash run the program and turn the firewall on or off.

    Read the article

  • JQuery: Live <a> tag partially working second time around.

    - by BPotocki
    I have the following jquery code: $("a[id*='Add_']").live('click', function() { //Get parentID to add to. var parentID = $(this).attr('id').substring(4); //Get div. var div = $("#CreateList"); //Ajax call to refresh "CreateList" div with new XML. div.load("/AddUnit?ParentID=" + parentID); }); Basically, contained within the div is a nested unordered list with several "Add_#" links. Clicking the links uses an ajax call to recreate the list with a new node. It clears all the add links, but they are added again by the ajax call. This is why I used the .live method so newly added "Add_#" links still have the binding. This works in most cases. If I click "Add_1", the div refreshes with the new info. If I then click "Add_2", it works again as expected. The problem I'm having happens when I click "Add_1", then the page refreshes (and creates a new "Add_1" link), then I click the re-rendered "Add_1" again. It's the same link, but it was refreshed during the ajax call. When I do that, the javascript function still gets called, but the .load method doesn't work. Any ideas why this might be happening? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • VS ASP.NET 500 Server Error

    - by rlb.usa
    Hey guys, I'm having a super weird problem with my VS 2008 solution. We had this hand-coded ASP.NET compiled web app on our old IIS6/Win2003 server, working great, moved it to our new IIS7/Win2008 server, still working great, but when I try to compile the application and publish it again to our new Win2008 server, I get server 500 errors. It's ASP.NET 2.0 with AJAX extensions and AJAX control toolkit. I'm not too great with server issues, or even sure if it is a server issue but here are some more symptoms... ? I know the website works (it only differs by some minor code fixes) and can use it's code on a development machine, there are no errors, and it publishes fine. Publishing (using the DLL files), and even not publishing and trying to use the code-behind files on our new server, both no success. The old website does work on the new server just fine. If I put a simple hello world html page in the website's virtual directory, with the old code, it works fine, but with the new code, that html page gets the 500 error. And in fact, oddly, I can add all the files to the website, only when I add the web.config, do I get the 500 error. The web.config has not changed. Tried stopping and restarting IIS What's the problem, here? Any ideas, what else can I do to troubleshoot the problem?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC twitter/myspace style routing

    - by Astrofaes
    Hi guys, This is my first post after being a long-time lurker - so please be gentle :-) I have a website similar to twitter, in that people can sign up and choose a 'friendly url', so on my site they would have something like: mydomain.com/benjones I also have root level static pages such as: mydomain.com/about and of course my homepage: mydomain.com/ I'm new to ASP.NET MVC 2 (in fact I just started today) and I've set up the following routes to try and achieve the above. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("images/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute("About", "about", new { controller = "Common", action = "About" } ); // User profile sits at root level so check for this before displaying the homepage routes.MapRoute("UserProfile", "{url}", new { controller = "User", action = "Profile", url = "" } ); routes.MapRoute("Home", "", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } For the most part this works fine, however, my homepage is not being triggered! Essentially, when you browser to mydomain.com, it seems to trigger the User Profile route with an empty {url} parameter and so the homepage is never reached! Any ideas on how I can show the homepage?

    Read the article

  • Application runs fine when executed directly, fails as scheduled task (security issues)

    - by Carl
    I have an application that loads some files from a network share (the input folder), extracts certain data from them and saves new files (zips them with SharpZLib) on a different network share (output folder). This application runs fine when you open it directly, but when it is set to a scheduled task, it fails in numerous places. This application is scheduled on a Win 2003 server. Let me say right off the bat, the scheduled task is set to use the same login account that I am currently logged in with, so it's not because it's using the LocalSystem account. Something else is going on here. Originally, the application was assigning a drive letter to the input folder using WNetGetConnectionA(). I don't remember why this was done, someone else on our team did that and she's gone now. I think there was some issue with using the WinZip command line with a UNC path. I switched from the WinZip command line utility to using SharpZLib because there were other issues with using the WinZip command line. Anyway, the application failed when trying to assign a drive letter with the error "connection already established." That wasn't true and even after trying WNetCancelConnection(), it still didn't work. Then I decided to just map the drive manually on the server. Then when the app calls Directory.Exists(inputFolderPath) it returns false, even though it does exist. So, for whatever reason, I cannot read this directory from within the application. I can manually navigate to this folder in Windows Explorer and open files. The app log file shows that the user executing it on the schedule is the user I expect, not LocalSystem. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Where should global Application Settings be stored on Windows 7?

    - by Kerido
    Hi everybody, I'm working hard on making my product work seamlessly on Windows 7. The problem is that there is a small set of global (not user-specific) application settings that all users should be able to change. On previous versions I used HKLM\Software\__Company__\__Product__ for that purpose. This allowed Power Users and Administrators to modify the Registry Key and everything worked correctly. Now that Windows Vista and Windows 7 have this UAC feature, by default, even an Administrator cannot access the Key for writing without elevation. A stupid solution would, of course, mean adding requireAdministrator option into the application manifest. But this is really unprofessional since the product itself is extremely far from administration-related tasks. So I need to stay with asInvoker. Another solution could mean programmatic elevation during moments when write access to the Registry Key is required. Let alone the fact that I don't know how to implement that, it's pretty awkward also. It interferes with normal user experience so much that I would hardly consider it an option. What I know should be relatively easy to accomplish is adding write access to the specified Registry Key during installation. I created a separate question for that. This also very similar to accessing a shared file for storing the settings. My feeling is that there must be a way to accomplish what I need, in a way that is secure, straightforward and compatible with all OS'es. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • c++ connect() keeps returning WSATIMEDOUT over internet but not localy

    - by KaiserJohaan
    Hello, For some reason, my chat application always gets WSATIMEDOUT when trying to connect to another person over the internet. int len_ip = GetWindowTextLength(GetDlgItem(hWnd,ID_EDIT_IP)); char ipBuffer[16]; SendMessage(GetDlgItem(hWnd,ID_EDIT_IP),WM_GETTEXT,16,(LPARAM)ipBuffer); long host_ip = inet_addr(ipBuffer); int initializeConnection(long host_ip, HWND hWnd) { // initialize winsock WSADATA wdata; int result = WSAStartup(MAKEWORD(2,2),&wdata); if (result != 0) { return 0; } // setup socket tcp_sock = socket(AF_INET,SOCK_STREAM,IPPROTO_TCP); if (tcp_sock == INVALID_SOCKET) { return 0; } // setup socket address SOCKADDR_IN tcp_sock_addr; tcp_sock_addr.sin_family = AF_INET; tcp_sock_addr.sin_port = SERVER_TCP_PORT; tcp_sock_addr.sin_addr.s_addr = host_ip; // connect to server if (connect(tcp_sock,(SOCKADDR*)&tcp_sock_addr,sizeof(tcp_sock_addr)) == SOCKET_ERROR) { return 0; } HRESULT hr = WSAGetLastError(); // set socket in asynchronous mode if (WSAAsyncSelect(tcp_sock,hWnd,SOCKET_TCP, FD_READ | FD_WRITE | FD_CONNECT | FD_CLOSE) == SOCKET_ERROR) { return 0; } return 1; } For some reason it works perfectly fine on local network between computers, but totally screws up over the internet. WSATIMEDOUT is always returned (not connection refused, so its not a port problem). It makes me believe something is wrong with the IP but why on earth can it work on local addresses (like 192.168.2.4) Any ideas? Cheers

    Read the article

  • How do I strip multiple (optional) parts of a SQL string using .NET Regular Expressions?

    - by Luc
    I've been working on this for a few hours now and can't find any help on it. Basically, I'm trying to strip a SQL string into various parts (fields, from, where, having, groupBy, orderBy). I refuse to believe that I'm the first person to ever try to do this, so I'd like to ask for some advise from the StackOverflow community. :) To understand what I need, assume the following SQL string: select * from table1 inner join table2 on table1.id = table2.id where field1 = 'sam' having table1.field3 > 0 group by table1.field4 order by table1.field5 I created a regular expression to group the parts accordingly: select\s+(?<fields>.+)\s+from\s+(?<from>.+)\s+where\s+(?<where>.+)\s+having\s+(?<having>.+)\s+group\sby\s+(?<groupby>.+)\s+order\sby\s+(?<orderby>.+) This gives me the following results: fields => * from => table1 inner join table2 on table1.id = table2.id where => field1 = 'sam' having => table1.field3 > 0 groupby => table1.field4 orderby => table1.field5 The problem that I'm faced with is that if any part of the SQL string is missing after the 'from' clause, the regular expression doesn't match. To fix that, I've tried putting each optional part in it's own (...)? group but that doesn't work. It simply put all the optional parts (where, having, groupBy, and orderBy) into the 'from' group. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • What exactly can "Full Control" with SharePoint Designer accomplish?

    - by Brian L.
    I've been brought in as an intern to develop a SharePoint site. My team won't authorize the budget for Visual Studio and I don't have physical or remote access to the SharePoint server (running Windows SharePoint Services 3.0 a.k.a. WSS) on the back-end. So what exactly can I do? I'm a pretty decent programmer when it comes to web technologies like PHP, JS and the obvious HTML and CSS. In an environment like this locked-down SharePoint though, I'm stumped trying to figure out how much control I have with MS's definition of "Full Control". If I figured out a way to write some C#, I'm pretty sure I could handle my own, but as I said no Visual Studio for me. Any good ideas of features that people will use on a site built with the limited functionality of WSS and SharePoint Designer with "Full Control"? Can I somehow manipulate the default Web Parts into something cool or useful? Are there Ajax tricks I can do to accomplish something on the back-end? Thanks in advance, I'm new to StackOverflow and very anxious to get involved here!

    Read the article

  • Cakephp cache only caching one file per action

    - by Jamesz
    Hi, I have a songs controller. Within the songs controller i have a 'view' action which get's passed an id, eg /songs/view/1 /songs/view/5 /songs/view/500 When a user visits /songs/view/1, the file is cached correctly and saved as 'songs_view_1.php' Now for the problem, when a user hit's a different song, eg /songs/view/2, the 'songs_view_1.php' is deleted and '/songs/view/2.php' is in it's place. The cahced files will stay there for a day if I don't visit a different url, and visiting a different action will not affect any other action's cached file. I've tried replacing my 'cake' folder (from 1.2 to 1.2.6), but that didn't do anything. I get no error messages at all and nothing in the logs. Here's my code, I've tried umpteen variations all ending up with the same problem. var $helpers = array('Cache'); var $cacheAction = array( 'view/' => '+1 day' ); Any ideas? EDIT: After some more testing, this code var $cacheAction = array( 'view/1' => "1 day", 'view/2' => "1 day" ); will cache 'view/1' or 'view/2', but delete the previous page as before. If I visit '/view/3' it will delete the cached page from before... sigh EDIT: Having the same issue on another server with same code...

    Read the article

  • Table index design

    - by Swoosh
    I would like to add index(s) to my table. I am looking for general ideas how to add more indexes to a table. Other than the PK clustered. I would like to know what to look for when I am doing this. So, my example: This table (let's call it TASK table) is going to be the biggest table of the whole application. Expecting millions records. IMPORTANT: massive bulk-insert is adding data in this table table has 27 columns: (so far, and counting :D ) int x 9 columns = id-s varchar x 10 columns bit x 2 columns datetime x 5 columns INT COLUMNS all of these are INT ID-s but from tables that are usually smaller than Task table (10-50 records max), example: Status table (with values like "open", "closed") or Priority table (with values like "important", "not so important", "normal") there is also a column like "parent-ID" (self - ID) join: all the "small" tables have PK, the usual way ... clustered STRING COLUMNS there is a (Company) column (string!) that is something like "5 characters long all the time" and every user will be restricted using this one. If in Task there are 15 different "Companies" the logged in user would only see one. So there's always a filter on this one. Might be a good idea to add an index to this column? DATE COLUMNS I think they don't index these ... right? Or can / should be?

    Read the article

  • How should I link two items with MouseMovementListeners?

    - by user1708810
    I'm working on a program that will display two "views" of the same set of items. So I need to have something set up so that when the top down view is changed, the side view is updated (and vice versa). Here's a brief outline of the relevant code so you can get an idea of my structure so far: public class DraggableComponent extends JComponent { //Contains code for MouseMovementListener that makes the item draggable } public class ItemGraphic extends DraggableComponent { //Code to render the graphic } public class Item { private ItemGraphic topGraphic; private ItemGraphic sideGraphic; } I'm able to get each graphic to display fine in my GUI. I can also independently drag each graphic. I'm missing the "linking." Some ideas I've been thinking about: Have one listener for the whole GUI. Loop through each Item and if the cursor is within the bounds of either graphic, move the other graphic. I'm concerned about the efficiency of this method. Multiple "paired" listeners (not quite sure how this would work, but the idea is that each graphic would have a listener for the other paired graphic)

    Read the article

  • C++ design related question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! Here is the question's plot: suppose I have some abstract classes for objects, let's call it Object. It's definition would include 2D position and dimensions. Let it also have some virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const = 0 method used for rendering. Now I specialize my inheritance tree and add Rectangle and Ellipse class. Guess they won't have their own properties, but they will have their own virtual void Render method. Let's say I implemented these methods, so that Render for Rectangle actually draws some rectangle, and the same for ellipse. Now, I add some object called Plane, which is defined as class Plane : public Rectangle and has a private member of std::vector<Object*> plane_objects; Right after that I add a method to add some object to my plane. And here comes the question. If I design this method as void AddObject(Object& object) I would face trouble like I won't be able to call virtual functions, because I would have to do something like plane_objects.push_back(new Object(object)); and this should be push_back(new Rectangle(object)) for rectangles and new Circle(...) for circles. If I implement this method as void AddObject(Object* object), it looks good, but then somewhere else this means making call like plane.AddObject(new Rectangle(params)); and this is generally a mess because then it's not clear which part of my program should free the allocated memory. ["when destroying the plane? why? are we sure that calls to AddObject were only done as AddObject(new something).] I guess the problems caused by using the second approach could be solved using smart pointers, but I am sure there have to be something better. Any ideas?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >