Search Results

Search found 31554 results on 1263 pages for 'object identity'.

Page 656/1263 | < Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >

• issue with tab bar view displaying a compound view

  - by ambertch

  I created a tab bar application, and I make the first tab a table. So I create a tableView controller, and go about setting the class identity of the view controller for the first tab to my tableView controller. This works fine, and I see the contents of the table filling up the whole screen. However, this is not what I actually want in the end goal - I would like a compound window having multiple views: - the aforementioned table - a custom view with data in it So what I do is create a nib for this content (call it contentNib), change the tab's class from the tableView controller to a generic UIViewController, and set the nib of that tab to this new contentNib. In this new contentNib I drag on a tableView and set File's Owner to the TableViewController. I then link the dataSource and delegate to file's owner (which is TableViewController). Surprisingly this does not work and I receive the error: **Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIViewController tableView:numberOfRowsInSection:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b0f910'** This is bewildering to me since the file's owner is the TableViewController, which has been assigned to be both the dataSource and delegate. Does someone have either insight into my confusions, or a link to an example of how to have a compound view include a tableView? *update* I see this in the Apple TableView programming guide: "Note: You should use a UIViewController subclass rather than a subclass of UITableViewController to manage a table view if the view to be managed is composed of multiple subviews, one of which is a table view. The default behavior of the UITableViewController class is to make the table view fill the screen between the navigation bar and the tab bar (if either are present)." <----- I don't really get what this is telling me to do though... if someone can explain or point me to an example I'd be much appreciated!

  Read the article

• What kind of data do I pass into a Django Model.save() method?

  - by poswald

  Lets say that we are getting POSTed a form like this in Django: rate=10 items= [23,12,31,52,83,34] The items are primary keys of an Item model. I have a bunch of business logic that will run and create more items based on this data, the results of some db lookups, and some business logic. I want to put that logic into a save signal or an overridden Model.save() method of another model (let's call it Inventory). The business logic will run when I create a new Inventory object using this form data. Inventory will look like this: class Inventory(models.Model): picked_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, related_name="items_picked_set") calculated_items = models.ManyToManyField(Item, related_name="items_calculated_set") rate = models.DecimalField() ... other fields here ... New calculated_items will be created based on the passed in items which will be stored as picked_items. My question is this: is it better for the save() method on this model to accept: the request object (I don't really like this coupling) the form data as arguments or kwargs (a list of primary keys and the other form fields) a list of Items (The caller form or view will lookup the list of Items and create a list as well as pass in the other form fields) some other approach? I know this is a bit subjective, but I was wondering what the general idea is. I've looked through a lot of code but I'm having a hard time finding a pattern I like.

  Read the article

• How can I prevent infinite recursion when using events to bind UI elements to fields?

  - by Billy ONeal

  The following seems to be a relatively common pattern (to me, not to the community at large) to bind a string variable to the contents of a TextBox. class MyBackEndClass { public event EventHandler DataChanged; string _Data; public string Data { get { return _Data; } set { _Data = value; //Fire the DataChanged event } } } class SomeForm : // Form stuff { MyBackEndClass mbe; TextBox someTextBox; SomeForm() { someTextBox.TextChanged += HandleTextBox(); mbe.DataChanged += HandleData(); } void HandleTextBox(Object sender, EventArgs e) { mbe.Data = ((TextBox)sender).Text; } void HandleData(Object sender, EventArgs e) { someTextBox.Text = ((MyBackEndClass) sender).Data; } } The problem is that changing the TextBox fires the changes the data value in the backend, which causes the textbox to change, etc. That runs forever. Is there a better design pattern (other than resorting to a nasty boolean flag) that handles this case correctly? EDIT: To be clear, in the real design the backend class is used to synchronize changes between multiple forms. Therefore I can't just use the SomeTextBox.Text property directly. Billy3

  Read the article

• how do i make the app take correct input..?

  - by user1824343

  This is my windows app's one layout which converts Celsius to Fahrenheit. The problem is that when I try to input the temperature it shows some junk(for eg: if i enter '3' it displayin '3.0000009') and sometimes its even showing stack overflow exception. The output is also not shown properly : cel.text is the textbox for celsius. fahre.text is the textbox for fahrenheit. namespace PanoramaApp1 { public partial class FahretoCel : PhoneApplicationPage { public FahretoCel() { InitializeComponent(); } private void fahre_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (fahre.Text != "") { try { double F = Convert.ToDouble(fahre.Text); cel.Text = "" + ((5.0/9.0) * (F - 32)) ; //this is conversion expression } catch (FormatException) { fahre.Text = ""; cel.Text = ""; } } else { cel.Text = ""; } } private void cel_TextChanged(object sender, TextChangedEventArgs e) { if (cel.Text != "") { try { Double c = Convert.ToDouble(cel.Text); fahre.Text = "" + ((c *(9.0 / 5.0 )) + 32); } catch (FormatException) { fahre.Text = ""; cel.Text = ""; } } else { fahre.Text = ""; } } } }

  Read the article

• Reflection and Generics get value of property

  - by GigaPr

  Hi i am trying to implement a generic method which allows to output csv file public static void WriteToCsv<T>(List<T> list) where T : new() { const string attachment = "attachment; filename=PersonList.csv"; HttpContext.Current.Response.Clear(); HttpContext.Current.Response.ClearHeaders(); HttpContext.Current.Response.ClearContent(); HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", attachment); HttpContext.Current.Response.ContentType = "text/csv"; HttpContext.Current.Response.AddHeader("Pragma", "public"); bool isFirstRow = true; foreach (T item in list) { //Get public properties PropertyInfo[] propertyInfo = item.GetType().GetProperties(); while (isFirstRow) { WriteColumnName(propertyInfo); isFirstRow = false; } Type type = typeof (T); StringBuilder stringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); foreach (PropertyInfo info in propertyInfo) { //string value ???? I am trying to get the value of the property info for the item object } HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(stringBuilder.ToString()); HttpContext.Current.Response.Write(Environment.NewLine); } HttpContext.Current.Response.End(); } but I am not able to get the value of the object's property Any suggestion? Thanks

  Read the article

• Programmatically setup a PEAP connection in Windows Mobile

  - by tomlog

  I have been working on this for a few days and this is doing my head in: Our application is built using the .NET Compact Framework 2.0 and running on Windows Mobile 5 & 6 devices. We can set the WLAN connection of the device programmatically using the Wireless Zero Config functions (described here: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms894771.aspx), most notably the WZCSetInterface function which we pinvoke from our application. This works fine for WEP and WPA-PSK connections. In a recent effort to add support for WPA2 networks we decided to modify the code. We have successfully added support for WPA2 which uses a certificate for the 802.1x authentication by setting the correct registry settings before calling WZCSetInterface. Now we want to do the same for WPA2 using PEAP (MS-CHAPv2) authentication. When manually creating such a connection in Windows Mobile the user will be prompted to enter the domain/user/password details. In our application we will have those details stored locally and want to do this all programmatically without any user intervention. So I thought going along the same route as the certificate authentication, setting the correct registry entries before calling WZCSetInterface. The registry settings we set are: \HKCU\Comm\EAP\Config\[ssid name] Enable8021x = 1 (DWORD) LastAuthSuccessful = 1 (DWORD) EapTypeId = 25 (DWORD) Identity = "domain\username" (string) Password = binary blob containing the password that is encrypted using the CryptProtectData function (described here: msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms938309.aspx) But when these settings are set and I call WZCSetInterface with the correct parameters, it still prompts me with the User Logon dialog asking for the domain/username/password. Has anyone got an idea what I need to do to prevent the password dialog from appearing and connect straight away with the settings stored in the registry?

  Read the article

• c# threading and getting COM port of attached phone

  - by I__

  i have the following code: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Data; using System.Drawing; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using System.Threading; namespace WindowsFormsApplication1 { public partial class Form1 : Form { public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); } public class ThreadWork { public static void DoWork() { } } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ThreadStart myThreadDelegate = new ThreadStart(ThreadWork.DoWork); Thread myThread = new Thread(myThreadDelegate); myThread.Start(); // Begin communications serialPort1.Open(); serialPort1.Write("AT+CMGF=1\r\n"); //Thread.Sleep(500); serialPort1.Write("AT+CNMI=2,2\r\n"); //Thread.Sleep(500); serialPort1.Write("AT+CSCA=\"+4790002100\"\r\n"); //Thread.Sleep(500); } private void serialPort1_DataReceived_1(object sender, System.IO.Ports.SerialDataReceivedEventArgs e) { string response = serialPort1.ReadLine(); this.BeginInvoke(new MethodInvoker(() => textBox1.AppendText(response + "\r\n"))); } } } what i am trying to do is send AT COMMANDS to my phone which is attached to the computer through USB how do i know how to configure the properties of the serial port? (like which COM is the phone on [it's attached through USB], what about baudrate and databits?) when i run the program nothing really happens, i would like to send AT COMMANDS to my phone and the textbox is there to receive the response from my phone this is my first time using threads. am i using them correctly? what is the purpose of it in the current example? is it to just have a delay between send a response? what am i doing wrong?

  Read the article

• Returning objects in php

  - by user220201

  I see similar questions asked but I seem to have problem with more basic stuff than were asked. How to declare a variable in php? My specific problem is I have a function that reads a DB table and returns the record (only one) as an object. class User{ public $uid; public $name; public $status; } function GetUserInfo($uid) { // Query DB $userObj = new User(); // convert the result into the User object. var_dump($userObj); return $userObj; } // In another file I call the above function. .... $newuser = GetUserInfo($uid); var_dump($newuser); What is the problem here, I cannot understand. Essentially the var_dump() in the function GetUserInfo() works fine. The var_dump() outside after the call to GetUserInfo() does not work. Thanks for any help. S

  Read the article

• Problem FlashVars parameter asp.net

  - by sofie-vo

  Code for asp.net page <%@ Page Language="VB" AutoEventWireup="false" CodeFile="trainingupload.aspx.vb" Inherits="trainingupload" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div height> <object width="1000" height="800"> <param name="movie" value="player.swf" /> <param name="FlashVars" value='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" '/> <embed src="bin-release/trainingscentrum.swf" FlashVars='userid=<%=String.Format(getuser())%>" ' width="1500" height="800" /> </embed> </object> </div> </form> </body> </html> Code behind Public Function getuser() As Guid Dim user As MembershipUser = Membership.GetUser() Dim userid As Guid = (CType(user.ProviderUserKey, Guid)) Return userid End Function In the code above I use an function to return the userid. When I replace <%=String.Format(getuser())% with an actual userid, I get the value in my flex application. But this code returns nothing. What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• How can I make this simple C# generics factory work?

  - by Kevin Brassen

  I have this design: public interface IFactory<T> { T Create(); T CreateWithSensibleDefaults(); } public class AppleFactory : IFactory<Apple> { ... } public class BananaFactory : IFactory<Banana> { ... } // ... The fictitious Apple and Banana here do not necessarily share any common types (other than object, of course). I don't want clients to have to depend on specific factories, so instead, you can just ask a FactoryManager for a new type. It has a FactoryForType method: IFactory<T> FactoryForType<T>(); Now you can invoke the appropriate interface methods with something like FactoryForType<Apple>().Create(). So far, so good. But there's a problem at the implementation level: how do I store this mapping from types to IFactory<T>s? The naive answer is an IDictionary<Type, IFactory<T>>, but that doesn't work since there's no type covariance on the T (I'm using C# 3.5). Am I just stuck with an IDictionary<Type, object> and doing the casting manually?

  Read the article

• How to merge two icons together? (overlay one icon on top of another)

  - by demoncodemonkey

  I've got two 16x16 RGB/A .ICO icon files, each loaded into a separate System.Drawing.Icon object. How would you create a new Icon object containing the merge of the two icons (one overlaid on top of the other)? Edit: I probably wasn't too clear, I don't want to blend two images into each other, I want to overlay one icon on top of another. I should add that the icons already contain transparent parts and I do not need any transparent "blending" to make both icons visible. What I need is to overlay the non-transparent pixels of one icon over the top of another icon. The transparent pixels should let the background icon show through. For example, look at the stackoverflow icon. It has some areas that are grey and orange, and some areas that are totally transparent. Imagine you want to overlay the SO icon on top of the Firefox icon. You would see the greys and oranges of the SO icon in full colour, and where the SO icon is transparent, you would see those parts of the Firefox icon.

  Read the article

• Which way to store this data is effective?

  - by Tattat

  I am writing a game, which need a map, and I want to store the map. The first thing I can think of, is using a 2D-array. But the problem is what data should I store in the 2D-array. The player can tap different place to have different reaction. So, I am thinking store a 2D-array with objects, when player click some position, and I find it in the array, and use the object in that array to execute a cmd. But I have a concern that storing lots of object may use lots of memory. So, I am think storing char/int only. But it seems that not enough for me. I want to store the data like that: { Type:1 Color:Green } No matter what color is, if they are all type 1, the have same reactions in logic, but the visual effect is based on the color. So, it is not easy to store using a prue char/int data, unless I make something like this: 1-5 --> all type 1. 1=color green , 2=color red, 3 = color yellow.... ... 6-10 --> all type 2. 2 = color green, 2 = color red ... ... So, do you have any ideas on how to minimize the ram use, but also easy for me to read... ...thx

  Read the article

• BufferedImage & ColorModel in Java

  - by spol

  I am using a image processing library in java to manipulate images.The first step I do is I read an image and create a java.awt.Image.BufferedImage object. I do it in this way, BufferedImage sourceImage = ImageIO.read( new File( filePath ) ); The above code creates a BufferedImage ojbect with a DirectColorModel: rmask=ff0000 gmask=ff00 bmask=ff amask=0. This is what happens when I run the above code on my macbook. But when I run this same code on a linux machine (hosted server), this creates a BufferedImage object with ColorModel: #pixelBits = 24 numComponents = 3 color space = java.awt.color.ICC_ColorSpace@c39a20 transparency = 1 has alpha = false isAlphaPre = false. And I use the same jpg image in both the cases. I don't know why the color model on the same image is different when run on mac and linux. The colormodel for mac has 4 components and the colormodel for linux has 3 components.There is a problem arising because of this, the image processing library that I use always assumes that there are always 4 components in the colormodel of the image passed, and it throws array out of bounds exception when run on linux box. But on macbook, it runs fine. I am not sure if I am doing something wrong or there is a problem with the library. Please let me know your thoughts. Also ask me any questions if I am not making sense!

  Read the article

• deployd authentification using jquery ajax

  - by user2507987

  I have installed deployd in my debian 7.0.0 64 bit, I have also succesfully installed mongodb in it, I have create some collection and user collection in deployd dashboard, then using user guide how to connect and query the table in deployd, I choose jquery ajax to log in to deployd from my localhost site and after login success I try to get/post some data, but somehow deployd return access denied. I have create collection name it people, and then at the GET, POST, PUT Event I have write this code : cancelUnless(me, "You are not logged in", 401); then using this ajax code, I try to login and POST new people data: $(document).ready(function(){ /* Create query for username and password for login */ var request = new Object; request.username = 'myusername'; request.password = 'mypassword'; submitaddress = "http://myipaddress:myport/users/login"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress, data: request, cache: false, success: function(data){ var returndata = eval(data); /* After Login success try to post people data */ if (returndata){ var request2 = new Object; request2.name = 'People Name'; submitaddress2 = "http://myipaddress:myport/people"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress2, data: request2, cache: false, success: function(){ } }) } } } }); }) The login process success, it's return session id and my user id, but after login success and I try to POST people data it's return "You are not logged in", can anyone help me, what is the correct way to login to deployd using jquery from other website(cross domain)?

  Read the article

• java + increasing performance and scalability

  - by varun

  Hi, below is the a code snippet, which returns the object of a class. now the object is basially comparing to some parameter in loop. my concern is what if there are thousands of objects in loop, in that case performance and scalability can be an issue. please suggest how to improve this code for performance part public Widget get(String name,int major,int minor,boolean exact) { Widget widgetToReturn = null; if(exact) { Widget w = new Widget(name, major, minor); // for loop using JDK 1.5 version for(Widget wid : set) { if((w.getName().equals(wid.getName())) && (wid.getVersion()).equals(w.getVersion())) { widgetToReturn = w; break; } } } else { Widget w = new Widget(name, major, minor); WidgetVersion widgetVersion = new WidgetVersion(major, minor); // for loop using JDK 1.5 version for(Widget wid : set) { WidgetVersion wv = wid.getVersion(); if((w.getName().equals(wid.getName())) && major == wv.getMajor() && WidgetVersion.isCompatibleAndNewer(wv, widgetVersion)) { widgetToReturn = wid; } else if((w.getName().equals(wid.getName())) && wv.equals(widgetVersion.getMajor(), widgetVersion.getMinor())) { widgetToReturn = w; } } } return widgetToReturn; }

  Read the article

• How to do something when AVQueuePlayer finishes the last playeritem

  - by user1634529

  I've got an AVQueuePlayer which I'm creating from an array of 4 AVPlayerItems, and it all plays fine. I want to do something when the last item in the queue finishes playing, I've looked a load of answers on here and this is the one that looks most promising for what I want: The best way to execute code AFTER a sound has finished playing In my button handler i have this code: static const NSString *ItemStatusContext; [thePlayerItemA addObserver:self forKeyPath:@"status" options:0 context:&ItemStatusContext]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(playerItemDidReachEnd) name:AVPlayerItemDidPlayToEndTimeNotification object:thePlayerItemA]; theQueuePlayer = [AVQueuePlayer playerWithPlayerItem:thePlayerItemA]; [theQueuePlayer play]; and then I have a function to handle playerItemDidReachEnd: - (void)playerItemDidReachEnd:(NSNotification *)notification { // Do stuff here NSLog(@"IT REACHED THE END"); } But when I run this I get an Internal Inconsistency Exception: An -observeValueForKeyPath:ofObject:change:context: message was received but not handled. Key path: status Observed object: <AVPlayerItem: 0x735a130, asset = <AVURLAsset: 0x73559c0, URL = file://localhost/Users/mike/Library/Application%20Support/iPhone%20Simulator/5.0/Applications/A0DBEC13-2DA6-4887-B29D-B43A78E173B8/Phonics%2001.app/yes.mp3>> Change: { kind = 1; } What am I doing wrong?

  Read the article

• How to catch this low level MySQL (?) error in PHP/Magento

  - by andnil

  When I'm executing the following statement in Magento with a really large $sku, the execution terminates without any errors thrown what so ever. There are no errors in either Magento's, Apache's or PHP's error logs. Mage::getModel('catalog/product')-loadByAttribute('sku', $sku); Question: How do I catch the error? I've tried to set custom error handlers, and for testing purposes I've also managed to trigger error situations where each of the error handler functions are invoked. But when running the previously mentioned Magento code with a large $sku, none of the error handling functions are executed. error_reporting( -1 ); set_error_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureNormal' ) ); set_exception_handler( array( 'Error', 'captureException' ) ); register_shutdown_function( array( 'Error', 'captureShutdown' ) ); For completeness, this is the $sku I'm passing to loadByAttribute(). (The sku is invalid, but that is not the issue) 1- 9685 0102046|1- 9685 1212100|1- 9685 1212092|1- 9685 1212096|1- 9685 1102100|1- 9685 1102108|1- 9685 1102112|1- 9685 1102092|1- 9685 0102048|1- 9685 0102054|1- 9685 0102056|1- 9685 0102058|1- 9685 1212104|1- 9685 1212108|1- 9685 0212058|1- 9685 0104050|1- 9685 0212050|1- 9685 0212056|1- 9685 0212044|1- 9685 0212048|1- 9685 0212052|1- 9685 0212054|1- 9685 1102104|1- 9685 1102124 Any insight into this matter is much appreciated! Update: Upon further investigation, this is the exact point in the code where execution terminates. when the foreach is executed I guess Magento goes into MySQL world and starts loading up data from the database. \Mage\Catalog\Model\Abstract.php public function loadByAttribute($attribute, $value, $additionalAttributes = '*') { $collection = $this->getResourceCollection() ->addAttributeToSelect($additionalAttributes) ->addAttributeToFilter($attribute, $value) ->setPage(1,1); foreach ($collection as $object) { // <--------------- HERE return $object; } return false; } Note, I'm ONLY interested in finding out how to properly CATCH these kinds of errors, not "fix" the logic. This is so that I can present a proper error message to the user. The example above with the malformed sku is contrived and I have no desire to make my Magento app work with those erroneous skus.

  Read the article

• How to implement iterator as an attribute of a class in Java

  - by de3

  Hi, let's say I have this simple MyArray class, with two simple methods: add, delete and an iterator. In the main method we can see how it is supposed to be used: public class MyArray { int start; int end; int[] arr; myIterator it; public MyArray(){ this.start=0; this.end=0; this.arr=new int[500]; it=new myIterator(); } public void add(int el){ this.arr[this.end]=el; this.end++; } public void delete(){ this.arr[this.start]=0; this.start++; } public static void main(String[] args){ MyArray m=new MyArray(); m.add(3); m.add(299); m.add(19); m.add(27); while(m.it.hasNext()){ System.out.println(m.it.next()); } } And then MyIterator should be implemented somehow: import java.util.Iterator; public class myIterator implements Iterator{ @Override public boolean hasNext() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } @Override public Object next() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return null; } @Override public void remove() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub } } MyIterator should iterate arr from MyArray class, from start to end values; both are also attributes of MyArray. So, as MyIterator should use MyArray attributes, how should MyIterator be implemented? Perhaps I can send the current object in the initialization: it=new myIterator(this); But I guess it's not the best soultion. Or maybe MyArray itself should implement Iterator interface? How is this solved?

  Read the article

• What is the best approach to embed mp4 for the iPhone without using JavaScript?

  - by usingtechnology

  I am trying to troubleshoot this code and am running into a dead-end, so I thought I would ask my first question here. I have three questions: 1) What is the best approach to embed an mp4 for an iPhone specific view, preferably without using Javascript? 2) Are there any preferred practices to debug code on an iPhone? 3) Can anyone tell me what is wrong with my specific code below? I should mention upfront that the variable $fileName does indeed contain the correct info, I've just omitted that portion of the code. Also, the poster image does flicker for a brief moment before I receive the greyed out, broken QuickTime image so that is an indication that this is partially working. Code: <object width="448" height="335" classid="clsid:02BF25D5-8C17-4B23-BC80-D3488ABDDC6B" codebase="http://www.apple.com/qtactivex/qtplugin.cab"> <param name="src" value="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" /> <param name="href" value="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" /> <param name="target" value="myself" /> <param name="controller" value="true" /> <param name="autoplay" value="false" /> <param name="scale" value="aspect" /> <embed src="/libraries/images/$fileName.jpg" href="/libraries/media/$fileName.mp4" type="video/mp4" target="myself" width="448" height="335" scale="aspect" controller="false" autoplay="false"> </embed> </object>

  Read the article

• Any techniques to interrupt, kill, or otherwise unwind (releasing synchronization locks) a single de

  - by gojomo

  I have a long-running process where, due to a bug, a trivial/expendable thread is deadlocked with a thread which I would like to continue, so that it can perform some final reporting that would be hard to reproduce in another way. Of course, fixing the bug for future runs is the proper ultimate resolution. Of course, any such forced interrupt/kill/stop of any thread is inherently unsafe and likely to cause other unpredictable inconsistencies. (I'm familiar with all the standard warnings and the reasons for them.) But still, since the only alternative is to kill the JVM process and go through a more lengthy procedure which would result in a less-complete final report, messy/deprecated/dangerous/risky/one-time techniques are exactly what I'd like to try. The JVM is Sun's 1.6.0_16 64-bit on Ubuntu, and the expendable thread is waiting-to-lock an object monitor. Can an OS signal directed to an exact thread create an InterruptedException in the expendable thread? Could attaching with gdb, and directly tampering with JVM data or calling JVM procedures allow a forced-release of the object monitor held by the expendable thread? Would a Thread.interrupt() from another thread generate a InterruptedException from the waiting-to-lock frame? (With some effort, I can inject an arbitrary beanshell script into the running system.) Can the deprecated Thread.stop() be sent via JMX or any other remote-injection method? Any ideas appreciated, the more 'dangerous', the better! And, if your suggestion has worked in personal experience in a similar situation, the best!

  Read the article

• Problem accessing private variables in jQuery like chainable design pattern

  - by novogeek

  Hi folks, I'm trying to create my custom toolbox which imitates jQuery's design pattern. Basically, the idea is somewhat derived from this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2061501/jquery-plugin-design-pattern-common-practice-for-dealing-with-private-function (Check the answer given by "David"). So here is my toolbox function: (function(window){ var mySpace=function(){ return new PrivateSpace(); } var PrivateSpace=function(){ var testCache={}; }; PrivateSpace.prototype={ init:function(){ console.log('init this:', this); return this; }, ajax:function(){ console.log('make ajax calls here'); return this; }, cache:function(key,selector){ console.log('cache selectors here'); testCache[key]=selector; console.log('cached selector: ',testCache); return this; } } window.hmis=window.m$=mySpace(); })(window) Now, if I execute this function like: console.log(m$.cache('firstname','#FirstNameTextbox')); I get an error 'testCache' is not defined. I'm not able to access the variable "testCache" inside my cache function of the prototype. How should I access it? Basically, what I want to do is, I want to cache all my jQuery selectors into an object and use this object in the future.

  Read the article

• How to make 2 incompatible types, but with the same members, interchangeable?

  - by Quigrim

  Yesterday 2 of the guys on our team came to me with an uncommon problem. We are using a third-party component in one of our winforms applications. All the code has already been written against it. They then wanted to incorporate another third-party component, by the same vender, into our application. To their delight they found that the second component had the exact same public members as the first. But to their dismay, the 2 components have completely separate inheritance hierarchies, and implement no common interfaces. Makes you wonder... Well, makes me wonder. An example of the problem: public class ThirdPartyClass1 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass1"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass1 is doing its thing."); } } public class ThirdPartyClass2 { public string Name { get { return "ThirdPartyClass2"; } } public void DoThirdPartyStuff () { Console.WriteLine ("ThirdPartyClass2 is doing its thing."); } } Gladly they felt copying and pasting the code they wrote for the first component was not the correct answer. So they were thinking of assigning the component instant into an object reference and then modifying the code to do conditional casts after checking what type it was. But that is arguably even uglier than the copy and paste approach. So they then asked me if I can write some reflection code to access the properties and call the methods off the two different object types since we know what they are, and they are exactly the same. But my first thought was that there goes the elegance. I figure there has to be a better, graceful solution to this problem.

  Read the article

• In Ruby or Python can the very idea of Class be rewritten?

  - by John Berryman

  Howdy All... first time at stack overflow. I'm looking into using some of the metaprogramming features provided by Ruby or Python, but first I need to know the extent to which they will allow me to extend the language. The main thing I need to be able to do is to rewrite the concept of Class. This doesn't mean that I want to rewrite a specific class during run time, but rather I want to make my own conceptualization of what a Class is. To be a smidge more specific here, I want to make something that is like what people normally call a Class, but I want to follow an "open world" assumption. In the "closed world" of normal Classes, if I declare Poodle to be a subclass of Dog to be a subclass of Animal, then I know that Poodle is not going to also be a type of FurCoat. However, in an open world Class, then the Poodle object I've defined may or may not be and object of type FurCoat and we won't know for sure until I explain that I can wear the poodle. (Poor poodle.) This all has to do with a study I'm doing concerning OWL ontologies. Just so you know, I've tried to find information online, but due to the overloading of terms here I haven't found anything helpful. Super thanks, John

  Read the article

• Class with property referenced with dll not serializing

  - by djerry

  Hey guys, I got this class TapiCall. It has 4 properties : 2 datetimes, 1 string and an object. The object is a class that's referenced by Atapi3.dll, so i cannot alter it. My class TapiCall looks like this : [DataContract] public class TapiCall { private DateTime start, end; private TCall call; private string status; [DataMember] public string Status { get { return status; } set { status = value; } } [DataMember] public TCall Call { get { return call; } set { call = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime End { get { return end; } set { end = value; } } [DataMember] public DateTime Start { get { return start; } set { start = value; } } public TapiCall() { } public TapiCall(DateTime start, DateTime end, TCall call) { this.Start = start; this.End = end; this.Call = call; } } Now when i use my visual studio command line, to generate my proxy class, it generates an error. When i remove TapiCall from the method in my app, i can rebuild my proxy again, so i know [OperationContract] void StuurUpdatedCall(TapiCall tpCall); is causing the problem. My question now is can i Serialize a class that's referenced by a dll? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• What access token should i use?

  - by user548458

  I made a posting scores. It worked normaly sometimes. But, now I cant post any score. If I use user accessToken: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> (){ { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", accessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get error: {"error":{"message":"(#15) This method must be called with an app access_token.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":15}} If I use an app access token: string path = meID + "/scores"; var parameters = new Dictionary<string, object> () { { "score", score.ToString () }, { "access_token", appAccessToken } }; facebook.post (path, parameters, ( error, obj ) => I get other error: {"error":{"message":"A user access token is required to request this resource.", "type":"OAuthException", "code":102}} Help me please, what am i doing wrong? PS: I worked well recently, but now - dont. Cant explain it...

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 652 653 654 655 656 657 658 659 660 661 662 663  | Next Page >