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  • The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.

    - by Jed
    I am receiving an error that states: "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '[my path]' is not allowed.". The error is being caused by the fact that I am implementing an HTML form element that uses the POST method and does not explicitly define an .aspx page in its ACTION parameter. For example: <form action="" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> The HTML above is on a file at "/foo/default.aspx". Now, if the user points the URL to the root directory "foo" without specifying the aspx file (i.e. "http://localhost/foo") and then submits the form, the error "The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/foo' is not allowed." will be thrown. However, if the user goes to "http://localhost/foo/default.aspx" and then submits the form, all goes well (even if the ACTION parameter is left empty). Note: If I explicitly add the name of the .aspx (default.aspx) page to the ACTION parameter, no errors are thrown. So the example below works fine regardless if the user defines the name of the file in the URL or not. <form action="default.aspx" method="post"> <input type="submit" /> </form> I was curious as to why the error was being thrown, so I read a Microsoft KB that states This problem occurs because a client makes an HTTP request by sending the POST method to a static HTML page. Static HTML pages do not support the POST method. I suppose the core of the explanation makes sense, however in my case, my form is not being sent to a static html page - it's being sent to the same page that the html form lives on (default.aspx)... this is implicit to an ACTION param that is left empty. Is it possible to configure IIS (or otherwise) that will allow us to do form POSTing and keep the ACTION param empty?

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  • Unable to Connect to Management Studio Server

    - by Phil Hilliard
    I have a nasty situation. I am using Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio Express edition locally on my pc for testing, and once tested I upload database changes to a remote server. I have a situation where I deleted the Default Database on my local machine, and instead of searching hard enough to find an answer to that problem, I uninstalled and reinstalled Management Studio. Since then Management Studio has not been able to connect to the server. Is there any help (or hope for me for that matter), out there????? The following is the detailed error message: =================================== Cannot connect to LENOVO-E7A54767\SQLEXPRESS. =================================== A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: SQL Network Interfaces, error: 26 - Error Locating Server/Instance Specified) (.Net SqlClient Data Provider) ------------------------------ For help, click: http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink?ProdName=Microsoft+SQL+Server&EvtSrc=MSSQLServer&EvtID=-1&LinkId=20476 ------------------------------ Error Number: -1 Severity: 20 State: 0 ------------------------------ Program Location: at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) at System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Connect(ServerInfo serverInfo, SqlInternalConnectionTds connHandler, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, Boolean encrypt, Boolean trustServerCert, Boolean integratedSecurity, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreateNonPooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPoolGroup poolGroup) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) at System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) at System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.VSIntegration.ObjectExplorer.ObjectExplorer.ValidateConnection(UIConnectionInfo ci, IServerType server) at Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.UI.ConnectionDlg.Connector.ConnectionThreadUser()

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  • Changing direction of rotation Pygame

    - by czl
    How would you change the direction of a rotating image/rect in Pygame? Applying positive and negative degree values works but it seems to only be able to rotate one direction throughout my window. Is there a way to ensure a change in direction of rotation? Perhaps change up rotation of a spinning image every 5 seconds, or if able to change the direction of the spin when hitting a X or Y axis. I've added some code below. It seems like switching movement directions is easy with rect.move_ip as long as I specify a speed and have location clause, it does what I want. Unfortunately rotation is't like that. Here I'l adding angles to make sure it spins, but no matter what I try, I'm unable to negate the rotation. def rotate_image(self): #rotate image orig_rect = self.image.get_rect() rot_image = pygame.transform.rotate(self.image, self.angle) rot_rect = orig_rect.copy() rot_rect.center = rot_image.get_rect().center rot_image = rot_image.subsurface(rot_rect).copy() return rot_image def render(self): self.screen.fill(self.bg_color) self.rect.move_ip(0,5) #Y axis movement at 5 px per frame self.angle += 5 #add 5 anglewhen the rect has not hit one of the window self.angle %= 360 if self.rect.left < 0 or self.rect.right > self.width: self.speed[0] = -self.speed[0] self.angle = -self.angle #tried to invert the angle self.angle -= 5 #trying to negate the angle rotation self.angle %= 360 self.screen.blit(self.rotate_image(),self.rect) pygame.display.flip() I would really like to know how to invert rotation of a image. You may provide your own examples.

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  • Many tables for many users?

    - by Seagull
    I am new to web programming, so excuse the ignorance... ;-) I have a web application that in many ways can be considered to be a multi-tenant environment. By this I mean that each user of the application gets their own 'custom' environment, with absolutely no interaction between those users. So far I have built the web application as a 'single user' environment. In other words, I haven't actually done anything to support multi-users, but only worked on the functionality I want from the app. Here is my problem... What's the best way to build a multi-user environment: All users point to the same 'core' backend. In other words, I build the logic to separate users via appropriate SQL queries (eg. select * from table where user='123' and attribute='456'). Each user points to a unique tablespace, which is built separately as they join the system. In this case I would simply generate ALL the relevant SQL tables per user, with some sort of suffix for the user. (eg. now a query would look like 'select * from table_ where attribute ='456'). In short, it's a difference between "select * from table where USER=" and "select * from table_USER".

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  • Set bounds for markers generated by jQuery table loop?

    - by abemonkey
    I have some jQuery code that goes through a table of location results and puts corresponding pins on a map. I am having trouble figuring out how to set the bounds so that when it goes through the loop and generates the markers on the map that it zooms and pans to fit the markers in the view. I've tried implementing code from some similar questions on this site but nothing seems to be working. Please let me know what code I should be using and where the heck I should put it in my script: $(function() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(44, 44); var settings = { zoom: 15, center: latlng, disableDefaultUI: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), settings); $('tr').each(function(i) { var the_marker = new google.maps.Marker({ title: $(this).find('.views-field-title').text(), map: map, clickable: true, position: new google.maps.LatLng( parseFloat($(this).find('.views-field-latitude').text()), parseFloat($(this).find('.views-field-longitude').text()) ) }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: $(this).find('.views-field-title').text() + $(this).find('.adr').text() }); new google.maps.event.addListener(the_marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map, the_marker); }); }); }); `

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  • How to give user confirmation message before ActionLink based on validation

    - by RememberME
    I have the following link. On click, I'd like to check the item.primary_company field and if populated, give the user a warning and ask if they would like to continue. How can I do this? <a href="<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> EDIT I've changed to this, but nothing happens when clicked. Also, I don't know how to reference the item to do the check on the primary_company field. I only want to message to show if item.primary_company.HasValue. I'd also like to show item.company1.company_name in the confirm message. <a href="#" onclick="return Actionclick("<%= Url.Action("Activate", new {id = item.company_id}) %>");" class="fg=button fg-button-icon-solo ui-state-default ui-corner-all"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-refresh"></span></a> <script type="text/javascript"> function Actionclick(url) { alert("myclick"); if ( confirm("Do you want to activate this company's primary company and all other subsidiaries?")) { location.href(url); } }; </script>

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  • Configuration Error , Finding assembly after I swapped referenced dll out. Visual Studio 2003

    - by TampaRich
    Here is the situation. I had a clean build of my asp.net web application working. I then went into the bin folder under the web app and replaced two referenced dll's with two older version of the same dll's. (Same name etc.) After testing I replaced those dll's back to the new ones and now my application keeps throwing the configuration error === Pre-bind state information === LOG: DisplayName = xxxxx.xxxx.Personalization (Partial) LOG: Appbase = file:///c:/inetpub/wwwroot/appname LOG: Initial PrivatePath = bin Calling assembly : (Unknown). LOG: Policy not being applied to reference at this time (private, custom, partial, or location-based assembly bind). I found this issue on the web and tried all the solutions to it but nothing worked. I then went into all my projects that it references under the solution and cleared out the bin/debug folder in each, I cleared out the obj folder under each and also deleted the temporary files associated with the application. I rebuilt it and it still will not work due to this error Not sure what is causing this or how to fix this issue. I have tried restarting IIS, stopping index services which was said to be a known issue. This is .net framework 1.1 app and visual studio 2003 Any suggestions would be great. Thanks.

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  • RichTextBox text is not shown C#

    - by user271077
    using richtextbox control programatically i'm appending text to the richtextbox . richTextBox1.AppendText("hello"); somehow the text appears in the richTextBox1.Text but is not shown in the form. any idea of what might be the problem? (I checked the forecolor seems ok). Thanks in advance Edit: found the root cause (had by mistake the initializeComponent() twice. ) private void InitializeComponent() { this.richTextBox1 = new System.Windows.Forms.RichTextBox(); this.SuspendLayout(); // // richTextBox1 // this.richTextBox1.Location = new System.Drawing.Point(114, 104); this.richTextBox1.Name = "richTextBox1"; this.richTextBox1.Size = new System.Drawing.Size(100, 96); this.richTextBox1.TabIndex = 0; this.richTextBox1.Text = ""; // // Form1 // this.AutoScaleDimensions = new System.Drawing.SizeF(6F, 13F); this.AutoScaleMode = System.Windows.Forms.AutoScaleMode.Font; this.ClientSize = new System.Drawing.Size(284, 262); this.Controls.Add(this.richTextBox1); this.Name = "Form1"; this.Text = "Form1"; this.Load += new System.EventHandler(this.Form1_Load); this.ResumeLayout(false); } public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); InitializeComponent(); } private void Form1_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { richTextBox1.AppendText("hello world"); }` but still curious about why did this cause this weird behavior?

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  • Target a link if that link links to the current page?

    - by Des
    this may be a stupid question as I can't seem to find an answer :P Is there a way with javascript/jQuery to Target all links on a page ONLY if they link to the current page? Say i've got a static sidebar on ALL pages, for intents and purposes: <ul id="sidebar"> <li><a href="/one">One</a></li> <li><a href="/two">Two</a></li> <li><a href="/three">Three</a></li> </ul> Notice the code for ALL of them is the same. Let's say I'm on "www.domain.com/two" - Is there a way to target <li><a href="#">Two</a></li> because it's linking to the current page? ***ANSWERED***** The guy deleted his answer - but I used it to create this - var linksToCurrentPage = $('a[href="' + window.location.href + '"]'); if (linksToCurrentPage) { $('a').addClass('currently-active'); }; which worked :)

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  • jQuery: Problems cookies internet explorer

    - by user1140479
    I have made a login page. When the user logs in a request to an API is send. This API is PHP and checks the username and password. When both are correct an unique key is send back (this is placed in the database for further use: userid and other stuff needed in the website). After that key is sent back it is placed in a cookie: $.cookie("session", JSON.stringify(result)); After the cookie is set I send the user to a new page: location.href = 'dashboard.htm'; In this page jQuery checks if the cookie "session" is present. If not, the user is send back to the login page. sessionId = ($.cookie("session") ? JSON.parse($.cookie("session")).SessionId : 0); return sessionId; This works fine in Chrome, but IE (8/9) has some problems with this. I figured out that when you get to dashboard.htm the session is present. As soon as I hit F5 the session is gone. And sometimes the cookie isn't set at all! I can't seem to figure out why this is happening in IE. Has someone any idea? Other options/ideas to save that unique key are also welcome. Thanks in advance.

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  • Setting up a NAS with Citrix XenServer

    - by JasonBrown
    Just a quick query on anyone whos worked with XenServer, I want to setup a NAS at home but with virtualization (I've looked into VMWare Server and KVM, I quite like KVM!) but I was told about XenServer 5.5. I have comomodity hardware (ASUS board, dual core 2.66Ghz CPU with 8Gb RAM), I need to setup a fileserver to house about 2-3Tb worth of data (big chunky video - not porn!). Need to run Linux (preferably CentOS) but also run Windows virtualised for testing. I was thinking of going the XenServer route, however I want to be able to offer a VM access to the 2-3Tb of HDDs (5 HDD drives) directly so it can do its thing (maybe using FreeNAS). Would this be possible with XenServer? Or will I have to do more work - and another box - to offer this? My goals are to use FreeNAS (ZFS!) for the filesserver, CentOS for SVN and aother bits we need to use (LAMP Stack), Windows for our win32 testing all on one box. I see this iSCSI target bits and get scared.

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  • Serializing an extended form object

    - by andyperfect
    I've been reading up on this whole subject, but I never came across this specific problem. I already understand that the whole idea of serializing an entire form is a horrible idea and just doesn't work. But, I am encountering a bit of a different problem. I have a class that inherits the "button" form object, that I call DataButton. Now for my problem. I want to be able to serialize this class, but I don't need any of the information from the actual button class. Is there any way to bypass the fact that I can't set the button form object to Serializable() and notify VB that when serialization is to occur, it should simply skip over that information? Theoretically, if such a procedure were possible, I'd be able to do the entire serialization without a hitch. I came up with the idea earlier of removing the "inherits" feature from the class, and having simply a button within the class, but that makes my program really difficult to work with as I am constantly changing the location, size, backgroundImage, text, and whatnot. Thus, immediate updates would be much tougher to work with. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Aliasing `T*` with `char*` is allowed. Is it also allowed the other way around?

    - by StackedCrooked
    Note: This question has been renamed and reduced to make it more focused and readable. Most of the comments refer to the old text. According to the standard objects of different type may not share the same memory location. So this would not be legal: int i = 0; short * s = reinterpret_cast<short*>(&i); // BAD! The standard however allows an exception to this rule: any object may be accessed through a pointer to char or unsigned char: int i = 0; char * c = reinterpret_cast<char*>(&i); // OK However, it is not clear to me if this is also allowed the other way around. For example: char * c = read_socket(...); unsigned * u = reinterpret_cast<unsigned*>(c); // huh? Summary of the answers The answer is NO for two reasons: You an only access an existing object as char*. There is no object in my sample code, only a byte buffer. The pointer address may not have the right alignment for the target object. In that case dereferencing it would result in undefined behavior. On the Intel and AMD platforms it will result performance overhead. On ARM it will trigger a CPU trap and your program will be terminated! This is a simplified explanation. For more detailed information see answers by @Luc Danton, @Cheers and hth. - Alf and @David Rodríguez.

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  • make target is never determined up to date

    - by Michael
    Cygwin make always processing $(chrome_jar_file) target, after first successful build. So I never get up to date message and always see commands for $(chrome_jar_file) are executing. However it happens only on Windows 7. On Windows XP once it built and intact, no more builds. I narrowed down the issue to one prerequisite - $(jar_target_dir). Here is part of the code # The location where the JAR file will be created. jar_target_dir := $(build_dir)/chrome # The main chrome JAR file. chrome_jar_file := $(jar_target_dir)/$(extension_name).jar # The root of the JAR sources. jar_source_root := chrome # The sources for the JAR file. jar_sources := bla #... some files, doesn't matter jar_sources_no_dir := $(subst $(jar_source_root)/,,$(jar_sources)) $(chrome_jar_file): $(jar_sources) $(jar_target_dir) @echo "Creating chrome JAR file." @cd $(jar_source_root); $(ZIP) ../$(chrome_jar_file) $(jar_sources_no_dir) @echo "Creating chrome JAR file. Done!" $(jar_target_dir): $(build_dir) echo "Creating jar target dir..." if [ ! -x $(jar_target_dir) ]; \ then \ mkdir $(jar_target_dir); \ fi $(build_dir): @if [ ! -x $(build_dir) ]; \ then \ mkdir $(build_dir); \ fi so if I just remove $(jar_target_dir) from $(chrome_jar_file) rule, it works fine.

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  • Hide div based on url

    - by Ghetto Styles
    Sorry if this is another repost. I have been attempting to find a solution but nothing works that I have tried. I am using a blog which I have full html control over. I can usually find my way around basic html but when it comes to Java or CSS I am a complete newb. Sorry, I know absolutely nothing. Now that that is out of the way. I have two sidebar div's that I am trying to hide on one specific url to utilize more space for a content iframe. This is one of the coded I have tried to use which doesn't seem to work or I am missing something. <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script language="text/javascript" <?php &#36;(function(){ if (window.location.search === "mywebsite/Videos.html") { &#36;('#navleft').hide(); } else { &#36;('#navleft').show(); } }); ?> </script> Please remember I do not know anything when it comes to php or java. I want to do this for both #navright and #navleft. Also this is in the CSS section. Thanks for any help!! #navright{ width: 200px; } #navleft{ width: 200px; } #content{ margin:0px; }

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  • Major JQuery bug on IE not reproducible - What can i do in this situation to solve this bug?

    - by ming yeow
    I am hoping to get some help on this issue. Some users on IE have been reporting this javascript issue, but I have been unable to re-produce it. In essence, for some class of windows IE users, the game doesn't work (or $.ajax() is not working). What I know: I swapped out an ajax call (ajax_init_trainer) and used a standard link with some request parameters to do the initialization and ppl seemed to get passed the problem until they hit the next ajax call. I read somewhere that IE does crazy caching so you need to make the urls unique, which is why i added the _requestno parameter. However, setting the cache:false is said to also do this. This didn't fix it for someone who was complaining. function done(res, status) { var data = JSON.parse(res.responseText); hide_loading(); if (status == "success") { window.location.href="/bamo/battle/?{{ fb_sig}}"; } else { display_alert("Problem!",data.msg,$("#notifications")); } }; $(".monster_select_class").click(function() { $(this).attr("src","{{MEDIA_URL}}/bamo/button_select_click.png"); monster_class = $(this).attr("monster_class"); monster_type = $(this).attr("monster_type"); ajax_init_trainer(monster_class,monster_type); }); function ajax_init_trainer(trainer_class,monster_type) { var data = {trainer_class:trainer_class,monster_type:monster_type}; var d = new Date(); var args = { type:"POST",url:"/bamo/api/init_trainer/?_requestno="+d.getTime(),data:data,contentType:"application/json;", dataType: "json",cache:false,complete:done}; $.ajax(args); return false; };

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  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer works from Maven command line, but not from Eclipse?

    - by HDave
    I have Eclipse configured to use an external maven instance. Nonetheless I have an integration test that runs fine from the command line, but fails from within Eclipse. The error is a class Spring application context bean error: Cannot convert value of type [java.lang.String] to required type The culprit it a bean that sets property values using a PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer. <!-- property settings for non-JNDI database connections --> <bean id="placeholderConfigUuid" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer"> <property name="systemPropertiesModeName" value="SYSTEM_PROPERTIES_MODE_OVERRIDE" /> <property name="location" value="classpath:database.properties" /> <property name="placeholderPrefix" value="$DS{" /> </bean> I know which bean is failing because it appears in the stack trace and because when I replace the $DS{hibernate.dialect} with a static value it works. I have two questions: 1) Since M2Eclipse is using the same Maven setup as the command line, why does one work and the other fail? 2) How to fix this? I really like the ability to run a single jUnit test from within Eclipse on demand.

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  • Calendar gets saved successfully.but edit event force close error

    - by Jast Vacaty
    I am trying to add calendar events with my applicatiom. Event gets saved successfully. However when i try to edit that event in Calendar. I get Force Close error. String calId = ""; Cursor userCursor =getContentResolver().query(Uri.parse(content://com.android.calendar/calendars),null, null, null, null); if(userCursor.getCount() > 0){ userCursor.moveToFirst(); calId = userCursor.getString(userCursor.getColumnIndex("_id")); } ContentValues event = new ContentValues(); event.put("title", "title"); event.put("description", "description"); event.put("eventLocation", "Event Location"); event.put("allDay", 0); event.put("hasAlarm",0); event.put("calendar_id",calId); Calendar mCalendar = Calendar.getInstance(); mCalendar.set(2012, 2, 27,7,00,00); long start = mCalendar.getTimeInMillis(); mCalendar.set(2012, 2, 27,8,00,00); long end = mCalendar.getTimeInMillis(); event.put("dtstart", start); event.put("dtend", end); Uri newEvent = Uri.parse(content://com.android.calendar/events); getContentResolver().insert(newEvent, event); ContentValues values = new ContentValues(); userCursor.close(); But when I change event.put("allDay", 0); to event.put("allDay", 1); Event gets saved successfully and gets edited successfully. How do I fix it? Using 2.3.5 device. Appreciate any help. thanks.

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  • How do I pass references as method parameters across AppDomains?

    - by Thiado de Arruda
    I have been trying to get the following code to work(everything is defined in the same assembly) : namespace SomeApp{ public class A : MarshalByRefObject { public byte[] GetSomeData() { // } } public class B : MarshalByRefObject { private A remoteObj; public void SetA(A remoteObj) { this.remoteObj = remoteObj; } } public class C { A someA = new A(); public void Init() { AppDomain domain = AppDomain.CreateDomain("ChildDomain"); string currentAssemblyPath = Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location; B remoteB = domain.domain.CreateInstanceFromAndUnwrap(currentAssemblyPath,"SomeApp.B") as B; remoteB.SetA(someA); // this throws an ArgumentException "Object type cannot be converted to target type." } } } What I'm trying to do is pass a reference of an 'A' instance created in the first AppDomain to the child domain and have the child domain execute a method on the first domain. In some point on 'B' code I'm going to call 'remoteObj.GetSomeData()'. This has to be done because the 'byte[]' from 'GetSomeData' method must be 'calculated' on the first appdomain. What should I do to avoid the exception, or what can I do to achieve the same result?

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  • SFTP in Python? (platform independent)

    - by Mark Wilbur
    I'm working on a simple tool that transfers files to a hard-coded location with the password also hard-coded. I'm a python novice, but thanks to ftplib, it was easy: import ftplib info= ('someuser', 'password') #hard-coded def putfile(file, site, dir, user=(), verbose=True): """ upload a file by ftp to a site/directory login hard-coded, binary transfer """ if verbose: print 'Uploading', file local = open(file, 'rb') remote = ftplib.FTP(site) remote.login(*user) remote.cwd(dir) remote.storbinary('STOR ' + file, local, 1024) remote.quit() local.close() if verbose: print 'Upload done.' if __name__ == '__main__': site = 'somewhere.com' #hard-coded dir = './uploads/' #hard-coded import sys, getpass putfile(sys.argv[1], site, dir, user=info) The problem is that I can't find any library that supports sFTP. What's the normal way to do something like this securely? Edit: Thanks to the answers here, I've gotten it working with Paramiko and this was the syntax. import paramiko host = "THEHOST.com" #hard-coded port = 22 transport = paramiko.Transport((host, port)) password = "THEPASSWORD" #hard-coded username = "THEUSERNAME" #hard-coded transport.connect(username = username, password = password) sftp = paramiko.SFTPClient.from_transport(transport) import sys path = './THETARGETDIRECTORY/' + sys.argv[1] #hard-coded localpath = sys.argv[1] sftp.put(localpath, path) sftp.close() transport.close() print 'Upload done.' Thanks again!

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  • Choosing between Facebook iframe scrollbar or page cut off halfway

    - by pg.
    I have an iframe tab in facebook. I used "overflow:hidden" in the body tag and this code at the bottom of my page: <div id="fb-root"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> window.fbAsyncInit = function() { FB.init({ appId : 'MY_APP_ID', status : true, // check login status cookie : true, // enable cookies to allow the server to access the session xfbml : true // parse XFBML }); FB.Canvas.setAutoResize(100); }; (function() { var e = document.createElement('script'); e.async = true; e.src = document.location.protocol + '//connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js'; document.getElementById('fb-root').appendChild(e); }()); </script> This removes the scrollbars and resizes the iframe. The problem is that my page is cut off after about 800px (that leaves about 400px). I've set the height in facebook to "fluid". It works absolutely fine in every other browser but not in IE8. As a side question, why does IE still exist? It's the absolute worst thing. Anyways, I added this to the head: <!--[if IE]> <style> body{overflow-y:scroll;} </style> <![endif]--> But that just gets me back to having the scrollbars again.

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  • Which web solution should I use for my project?

    - by BenIOs
    I'm going to create a fairly large (from my point of view anyway) web project with a friend. We will create a site with roads and other road related info. Our calculations is that we will have around 100k items in our database. Each item will contain some information like location, name etc. (about 30 thing each). We are counting on having a few hundred thousand unique visitors per month. The 100k items and their locations (that will be searchable) will be the main part of the page but we will also have some articles, comments, news and later on some more social functions (accounts, forums, picture uploads etc.). We were going to use Google AppEngine to develop our project since it is really scalable and free (at least for a while). But I'm actually starting to doubt that AppEngine is right for us. It seems to be for webbapps and not sites like ours. Which system (language/framework etc.) would you guys recommend us to use? It doesn't really mater if we know the language since before (we like learning new stuff) but it would be good if it's something that is future proof.

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  • Receiving 404 error when trying to get to MVC application in local IIS

    - by Corey Sunwold
    I have an existing web site setup on my local IIS built with web forms setup in this format: -MainSite -Application1 -Application2 -Application3 There are separate applications in each location, so MainSite has an application, and Application1 has another application and so on. This way development on different applications in the same site can be broken out. I want to add a new Application that is MVC instead of web forms. I created a new MVC project which runs in Cassini just fine, but when I create a new IIS application for it and point it to the MVC project I am unable to navigate to it in the browser and get a 404 error. I am expecting to be able to navigate to http://MainSite/NewMVCApplication/. I want the root of NewMVCApplication to point to my Contacts Controller. My global.asax in the new MVC application currently looks like this: public class MvcApplication : System.Web.HttpApplication { public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Root", // Route name "", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Contacts", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); } protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); RouteDebug.RouteDebugger.RewriteRoutesForTesting(RouteTable.Routes); } }

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  • Logging in with sha1() encryption.

    - by Samir Ghobril
    Hey guys, I added this to my sign up code : $password=mysql_real_escape_string(sha1($_POST['password'])); and now it inserts the password into the database while its encrypted. But signing in doesn't seem to work anymore. Here is the login code. function checklogin($username, $password){ global $mysqli; $password=sha1($password); $result = $mysqli->prepare("SELECT * FROM users WHERE username = ? and password=?"); $result->bind_param("ss", $username, $password); $result->execute(); if($result != false){ $dbArray=$result->fetch(); if(!$dbArray){ echo '<p class="statusmsg">The username or password you entered is incorrect, or you haven\'t yet activated your account. Please try again.</p><br/><input class="submitButton" type="button" value="Retry" onClick="location.href='."'login.php'\">"; return; } $_SESSION['username']=$username; if(isset($_POST['remember'])){ setcookie("jmuser",$username,time()+60*60*24*356); setcookie("jmpass",$password ,time()+60*60*24*356); } redirect(); }

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  • Copy/publish images linked from the html files to another server and update the HTML files referenci

    - by Phil
    I am publishing content from a Drupal CMS to static HTML pages on another domain, hosted on a second server. Building the HTML files was simple (using PHP/MySQL to write the files). I have a list of images referenced in my HTML, all of which exist below the /userfiles/ directory. cat *.html | grep -oE [^\'\"]+userfiles[\/.*]*/[^\'\"] | sort | uniq Which produces a list of files http://my.server.com/userfiles/Another%20User1.jpg http://my.server.com/userfiles/image/image%201.jpg ... My next step is to copy these images across to the second server and translate the tags in the html files. I understand that sed is probably the tool I would need. E.g.: sed 's/[^"]\+userfiles[\/image]\?\/\([^"]\+\)/\/images\/\1/g' Should change http://my.server.com/userfiles/Another%20User1.jpg to /images/Another%20User1.jpg, but I cannot work out exactly how I would use the script. I.e. can I use it to update the files in place or do I need to juggle temporary files, etc. Then how can I ensure that the files are moved to the correct location on the second server

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