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  • Applying correct bindings to WPF datatemplate to maximize reusability

    - by johncatfish
    Hi. I have a WPF application. I want to apply that datatemplate to a Listbox filled with records from Table02. Then, for each listboxitem I need to bind the combobox to the same database table (Table01), but for each listboxitem the selected item will vary. It will be a foreign key to Table01. <DataTemplate x:Key="Table01DataTemplate"> <Grid> <ComboBox ItemsSource="{Binding Model.IQueryable_Table01, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType={x:Type Window}}}" SelectedValue="{Binding Table01_ForeignKey}" DisplayMemberPath="name" SelectedValuePath="id" /> <!-- Other stuff --> </Grid> </DataTemplate> <ListBox x:Name="lbTest" ItemTemplate="{StaticResource Table01DataTemplate}" /> <!-- In .cs file lbTest.DataContext = this; --> Notes: Model.IQueryable_Table01 is a property which encapsulates a Linq-to-sql call returning a IQueryable. lbTest will be filled by setting ItemsSource with a Linq-to-sql call. Is this a good way to do the bindings in a data template for a maximum reusability? I also thought of replacing AncestorType={x:Type Window} with lbTest.DataContext = this; AncestorType={x:Type Application} and lbTest.DataContext = App.Current; But it didn't work (Exception on loading) and I don't know if there's any caveats or down-sides to this approach. Is this good? Any suggestions or improvements? Thanks.

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  • ADO.NET DataTable/DataRow Thread Safety

    - by Allen E. Scharfenberg
    Introduction A user reported to me this morning that he was having an issue with inconsistent results (namely, column values sometimes coming out null when they should not be) of some parallel execution code that we provide as part of an internal framework. This code has worked fine in the past and has not been tampered with lately, but it got me to thinking about the following snippet: Code Sample lock (ResultTable) { newRow = ResultTable.NewRow(); } newRow["Key"] = currentKey; foreach (KeyValuePair<string, object> output in outputs) { object resultValue = output.Value; newRow[output.Name] = resultValue != null ? resultValue : DBNull.Value; } lock (ResultTable) { ResultTable.Rows.Add(newRow); } (No guarantees that that compiles, hand-edited to mask proprietery information.) Explanation We have this cascading type of locking code other places in our system, and it works fine, but this is the first instance of cascading locking code that I have come across that interacts with ADO .NET. As we all know, members of framework objects are usually not thread safe (which is the case in this situation), but the cascading locking should ensure that we are not reading and writing to ResultTable.Rows concurrently. We are safe, right? Hypothesis Well, the cascading lock code does not ensure that we are not reading from or writing to ResultTable.Rows at the same time that we are assigning values to columns in the new row. What if ADO .NET uses some kind of buffer for assigning column values that is not thread safe--even when different object types are involved (DataTable vs. DataRow)? Has anyone run into anything like this before? I thought I would ask here at StackOverflow before beating my head against this for hours on end :) Conclusion Well, the consensus appears to be that changing the cascading lock to a full lock has resolved the issue. That is not the result that I expected, but the full lock version has not produced the issue after many, many, many tests. The lesson: be wary of cascading locks used on APIs that you do not control. Who knows what may be going on under the covers!

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  • Java abstract visitor - guarantueed to succeed? If so, why?

    - by disown
    I was dealing with hibernate, trying to figure out the run-time class behind proxied instances by using the visitor pattern. I then came up with an AbstractVisitable approach, but I wonder if it will always produce correct results. Consider the following code: interface Visitable { public void accept(Visitor v); } interface Visitor { public void visit(Visitable visitorHost); } abstract class AbstractVisitable implements Visitable { @Override public void accept(Visitor v) { v.visit(this); } } class ConcreteVisitable extends AbstractVisitable { public static void main(String[] args) { final Visitable visitable = new ConcreteVisitable(); final Visitable proxyVisitable = (Visitable) Proxy.newProxyInstance( Thread.currentThread().getContextClassLoader(), new Class<?>[] { Visitable.class }, new InvocationHandler() { @Override public Object invoke(Object proxy, Method method, Object[] args) throws Throwable { return method.invoke(visitable, args); } }); proxyVisitable.accept(new Visitor() { @Override public void visit(Visitable visitorHost) { System.out.println(visitorHost.getClass()); } }); } } This makes a ConcreteVisitable which inherits the accept method from AbstractVisitable. In c++, I would consider this risky, since this in AbstractVisitable could be referencing to AbstractVisitable::this, and not ConcreteVisitable::this. I was worried that the code under certain circumstances would print class AbstractVisible. Yet the code above outputs class ConcreteVisitable, even though I hid the real type behind a dynamic proxy (the most difficult case I could come up with). Is the abstract visitor approach above guaranteed to work, or are there some pitfalls with this approach? What guarantees are given in Java with respect to the this pointer?

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  • Python base classes share attributes?

    - by tad
    Code in test.py: class Base(object): def __init__(self, l=[]): self.l = l def add(self, num): self.l.append(num) def remove(self, num): self.l.remove(num) class Derived(Base): def __init__(self, l=[]): super(Derived, self).__init__(l) Python shell session: Python 2.6.5 (r265:79063, Apr 1 2010, 05:22:20) [GCC 4.4.3 20100316 (prerelease)] on linux2 Type "help", "copyright", "credits" or "license" for more information. >>> import test >>> a = test.Derived() >>> b = test.Derived() >>> a.l [] >>> b.l [] >>> a.add(1) >>> a.l [1] >>> b.l [1] >>> c = test.Derived() >>> c.l [1] I was expecting "C++-like" behavior, in which each derived object contains its own instance of the base class. Is this still the case? Why does each object appear to share the same list instance?

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  • AutoMapper : Site wide usage of IValueFormatter for given types

    - by CRice
    It is my understanding I can configure AutoMapper in the following way and during mapping it should format all source model dates to the rules defined in the IValueFormatter and set the result to the mapped model. ForSourceType<DateTime>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); ForSourceType<DateTime?>().AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>(); I get no effect for my mapped class with this. It only works when I do the following: Mapper.CreateMap<Member, MemberForm>().ForMember(x => x.DateOfBirth, y => y.AddFormatter<StandardDateFormatter>()); I am mapping DateTime? Member.DateOfBirth to string MemberForm.DateOfBirth. The formatter basically creates a short date string from the date. Is there something I am missing when setting the default formatter for a given type? Thanks public class StandardDateFormatter : IValueFormatter { public string FormatValue(ResolutionContext context) { if (context.SourceValue == null) return null; if (!(context.SourceValue is DateTime)) return context.SourceValue.ToNullSafeString(); return ((DateTime)context.SourceValue).ToShortDateString(); } }

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  • Obtaining FontMetrics before getting a Graphics instance

    - by Tom Castle
    Typically, I'd obtain a graphics instance something like this: BufferedImage img = new BufferedImage(width, height, BufferedImage.TYPE_INT_ARGB); Graphics2D g = img.createGraphics(); However, in the current project I'm working on, the width and height variables above are dependent upon the size of a number of text fragments that will later be drawn onto the graphics instance. But, to obtain the dimensions of the font being used I would usually use the FontMetrics that I get from the graphics object. FontMetrics metrics = g.getFontMetrics(); So, I have a nasty little dependency cycle. I cannot create the graphics object until I know the size of the text, and I cannot know the size of the text until I have a graphics object. One solution is just to create another BufferedImage/Graphics pair first in order to get the FontMetrics instance I need, but this seems unnecessary. So, is there a nicer way? Or is it the case that the width, height etc. properties for a Font are somehow dependent upon what (graphics, component...) the text is to be drawn on?

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  • webpart context.session is null

    - by tbischel
    I've been using the session array to store a state variable for my webpart... so I have a property like this: public INode RootNode { get { return this.Context.Session["RootNode"] as INode; } set { this.Context.Session["RootNode"] = value as object; } } This usually works fine. I've discovered that sometimes, the context.session variable will be null. I'd like to know what are the conditions that cause the session to be null in the first place, and whats the best way to persist my object when this happens? Can I just assign a new HttpSessionState object to the context, or does that screw things up? Edit: Ok, so its not just the session that is null... the whole context is screwed up. When the webpart enters the init, the context is fine... but when it reaches the dropbox selectedindexchange postback event (the dropbox contains node id's to use to set the rootnode variable), the context contains mostly null properties. also, it only seems to happen when certain id's are selected. This looks more like some kind of weird bug on my end than a problem with my understanding of the session.

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  • HTML Helper/Text Box validation

    - by slandau
    I have this input on the view: <%= Html.TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission("EffectiveDate", Model.EffectiveDate.HasValue ? Model.EffectiveDate.Value.ToString("dd-MMM-yyyy") : "", new string[] { PERMISSIONS.hasICAdvanced }, new { @class = "economicTextBox", propertyName = "EffectiveDate", onchange = "parseAndSetDt(this); ", dataType = "Date" })%> Here is the custom HTML Helper: public static MvcHtmlString TextBoxCurrentDateWithoutPermission( this HtmlHelper htmlHelper, string name, object value, string[] permissions, object htmlAttributes ) { foreach (string permission in permissions) { if (Chatham.Web.UI.Extranet.SessionManager.DisplayUser.IsInRole(permission)) { // the user has the permission => render the textbox return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value, htmlAttributes); } } // the user has no permission => render a readonly checkbox var mergedHtmlAttributes = new RouteValueDictionary(htmlAttributes); mergedHtmlAttributes["disabled"] = "disabled"; return htmlHelper.TextBox(name, value == "" ? DateTime.Now : value, mergedHtmlAttributes); } The way this works now is, when a user does NOT have the permission passed in, the box is disabled. The way it needs to be -- if the user does NOT have the permission passed in, it needs to be enabled, however the only dates it can accept are todays date AND dates in the future. So I need JQuery validation (or just plain JS), for this textbox on the page for the following case: If the textbox is enabled AND the user does not have the permission, allow the user to input the current date or future dates ONLY.

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  • Dynamically cast a control type in runtime

    - by JayT
    Hello, I have an application whereby I dynamically create controls on a form from a database. This works well, but my problem is the following: private Type activeControlType; private void addControl(ContainerControl inputControl, string ControlName, string Namespace, string ControlDisplayText, DataRow drow, string cntrlName) { Assembly assem; Type myType = Type.GetType(ControlName + ", " + Namespace); assem = Assembly.GetAssembly(myType); Type controlType = assem.GetType(ControlName); object obj = Activator.CreateInstance(controlType); Control tb = (Control)obj; tb.Click += new EventHandler(Cntrl_Click); inputControl.Controls.Add(tb); activeControlType = controlType; } private void Cntrl_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string test = ((activeControlType)sender).Text; //Problem ??? } How do I dynamically cast the sender object to a class that I can reference the property fields of it. I have googled, and found myself trying everything I have come across..... Now I am extremely confused... and in need of some help Thnx JT

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  • Design pattern to integrate Rails with a Comet server

    - by empire29
    I have a Ruby on Rails (2.3.5) application and an APE (Ajax Push Engine) server. When records are created within the Rails application, i need to push the new record out on applicable channels to the APE server. Records can be created in the rails app by the traditional path through the controller's create action, or it can be created by several event machines that are constantly monitoring various inputstream and creating records when they see data that meets a certain criteria. It seems to me that the best/right place to put the code that pushes the data out to the APE server (which in turn pushes it out to the clients) is in the Model's after_create hook (since not all record creations will flow through the controller's create action). The final caveat is I want to push a piece of formatted HTML out to the APE server (rather than a JSON representation of the data). The reason I want to do this is 1) I already have logic to produce the desired layout in existing partials 2) I don't want to create a javascript implementation of the partials (javascript that takes a JSON object and creates all the HTML around it for presentation). This would quickly become a maintenance nightmare. The problem with this is it would require "rendering" partials from within the Model (which im having trouble doing anyhow because they don't seem to have access to Helpers when they're rendered in this manner). Anyhow - Just wondering what the right way to go about organizing all of this is. Thanks

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  • Unable to save data in database manually and get latest auto increment id, cakePHP

    - by shabby
    I have checked this question as well and this one as well. I am trying to implement the model described in this question. What I want to do is, on the add function of message controller, create a record in thread table(this table only has 1 field which is primary key and auto increment), then take its id and insert it in the message table along with the user id which i already have, and then save it in message_read_state and thread_participant table. This is what I am trying to do in Thread Model: function saveThreadAndGetId(){ //$data= array('Thread' => array()); $data= array('id' => ' '); //Debugger::dump(print_r($data)); $this->save($data); debug('id: '.$this->id); $threadId = $this->getInsertID(); debug($threadId); $threadId = $this->getLastInsertId(); debug($threadId); die(); return $threadId; } $data= array('id' => ' '); This line from the above function adds a row in the thread table, but i am unable to retrieve the id. Is there any way I can get the id, or am I saving it wrongly? Initially I was doing the query thing in the message controller: $this->Thread->query('INSERT INTO threads VALUES();'); but then i found out that lastId function doesnt work on manual queries so i reverted.

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  • Using entity framework to connect to multiple similar tables in .net MVC.

    - by Dite
    A relative newcomer to .net MVC2 and the entity framework, I am working on a project which requires a single web application, (C# .net 4), to connect to multiple different databases depending on the route of access, (ie subdomain). No problem with this in principle and all the logic is written to transform the subdomain into an entity connection and pass this through to the Entity Model. The problem comes with the fact that the different database whilst being largely similar in structure contain 3 or 4 unique tables bespoke to that instance. To my mind there are two ways to solve this issue, neither of which i am sure will be possible. 1/ Use a separate entity model for each database. -Attempts down this route have through up conflicts where table/sp names are the same across differnt db's, or implicit conversion errors when I try and put the different models in different namespaces. or 2/ Overwrite the classes which refer to the changeable database objects based on the value of a base controller property. -I have found nothing to suggest i can even do this. My question is if either of theser routes can ever work in principle or if i should just give up on the EF and connect to the dtabases directlky using ADO. Perhaps there is another way to solve this problem i haven't thought of? Thanks for any help...

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  • using usort to re-arrange multi-dimension array

    - by Thomas Bennett
    I have a large array: [0] => stdClass Object ( [products] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [body_html] => bodyhtml [published_at] => 2012-12-16T23:59:18+00:00 [created_at] => 2012-12-16T11:30:24+00:00 [updated_at] => 2012-12-18T10:52:14+00:00 [vendor] => Name [product_type] => type ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [body_html] => bodyhtml [published_at] => 2012-12-16T23:59:18+00:00 [created_at] => 2012-12-16T10:30:24+00:00 [updated_at] => 2012-12-18T10:52:14+00:00 [vendor] => Name [product_type] => type ) ) ) and I need to arrange each of the products by the date they where created... I've tried and failed all kinds of usort, ksort, uksort techniques to try and get it to be in a specific order (chronological) but failed! any guidance would be most appreciated

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  • ASP.Net MVC - how can I easily serialize query results to a database?

    - by Mortanis
    I've been working on a little property search engine while I learn ASP.Net MVC. I've gotten the results from various property database tables and sorted them into a master generic property response. The search form is passed via Model Binding and works great. Now, I'd like to add pagination. I'm returning the chunk of properties for the current page with .Skip() and .Take(), and that's working great. I have a SearchResults model that has the paged result set and various other data like nextPage and prevPage. Except, I no longer have the original form of course to pass to /Results/2. Previously I'd have just hidden a copy of the form and done a POST each time, but it seems inelegant. I'd like to serialize the results to my MS SQL database and return a unique key for that results set - this also helps with a "Send this query to a friend!" link. Killing two birds with one stone. Is there an easy way to take an IQueryable result set that I have, serialize it, stick it into the DB, return a unique key and then reverse the process with said key? I'm using Linq to SQL currently on a MS SQL Express install, though in production it'll be on MS SQL 2008.

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  • Ensuring that all callbacks were completed before sending a new request through a DuplexChannel usin

    - by Etan
    I am experiencing some issues when using a Callback in a WCF project. First, the server invokes some function Foo on the client which then forwards the request to a Windows Forms GUI: GUI CLASS delegate void DoForward(); public void ForwardToGui() { if (this.cmdSomeButton.InvokeRequired) { DoForward d = new DoForward(ForwardToGui); this.Invoke(d); } else { Process(); // sets result variable in callback class as soon as done } } } CALLBACK CLASS object _m = new object(); private int _result; public int result { get { return _result; } set { _result = value; lock(_m) { Monitor.PulseAll(_m); } } } [OperationContract] public int Foo() { result = 0; Program.Gui.ForwardToGui(); lock(_m) { Monitor.Wait(_m, 30000); } return result; } The problem now is that the user should be able to cancel the process, which doesn't work properly: SERVER INTERFACE [OperationContract] void Cleanup(); GUI CLASS private void Gui_FormClosed(object sender, EventArgs e) { Program.callbackclass.nextAction = -1; // so that the monitor pulses and Foo() returns Program.server.Cleanup(); } The problem with this is that Cleanup() hangs. However, when I close the form when Process() is not running, it works properly. The source seems to be that the Cleanup() is called before the monitor pulses etc and therefore a new request is sent to the server before the last request from the server has not yet been responded. How can I solve this problem? How can I ensure before calling Cleanup() that no Foo() is currently being executed?

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  • ASP.NET MVC Dropdownlist retain the selected value in the browser after post

    - by MLabib
    I build a drop down list in my aspx page as following <%= Html.DropDownList("SelectedRole", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.roles, "RoleId", "RoleName", Model.SelectedRole), "")%> it works fine for first Get and the first default value is selected; then I select item from the drop down list and submit the form. the controller bind the values correctly, public ActionResult About([Bind] Roles r) { //r.SelectedRole = the selected value in the page. //Roles r = new Roles(); r.roles = new List<Role>(); r.roles.Add(new Role(1, "one")); r.roles.Add(new Role(2, "two")); r.roles.Add(new Role(3, "three")); r.roles.Add(new Role(4, "four")); r.SelectedRole = null; return View(r) } Then I nullify the selected item and return my view, but still the previous selected Item is selected (although I did nullify it) Any Idea if I am doing something wrong or it is a bug in MVC? I am using ASP.NET MVC 1 Thanks

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  • DBIx::Class base result class

    - by Rob
    Hi there, I am trying to create a model for Catalyst by using DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader. I want the result classes to have a base class I can add methods to. So MyTable.pm inherits from Base.pm which inherits from DBIx::Class::core (default). Somehow I cannot figure out how to do this. my create script is below, can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? The script creates my model ok, but all resultset classes just directly inherit from DBIx::Class::core without my Base class in between. #!/usr/bin/perl use DBIx::Class::Schema::Loader qw/ make_schema_at /; #specifically for the entities many-2-many relation $ENV{DBIC_OVERWRITE_HELPER_METHODS_OK} = 1; make_schema_at( 'MyApp::Schema', { dump_directory => '/tmp', debug => 1, overwrite_modifications => 1, components => ['EncodedColumn'], #encoded password column use_namespaces => 1, default_resultset_class => 'Base' }, [ 'DBI:mysql:database=mydb;host=localhost;port=3306','rob', '******' ], );

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  • Entity Framework POCO objects

    - by Dan
    I'm struggling with understanding Entity Framework and POCO objects. Here's what I'm trying to achieve. 1) Separate the DAL from the Business Layer by having my business layer use an interface to my DAL. Maybe use Unity to create my context. 2) Use Entity Framework inside my DAL. I have a Domain model with objects that reside in my business layer. I also have a database full of tables that doesn't really represent my domain model. I setup Entity Framework and generated POCO objects by using the ADO.NET POCO Generator extension. This gave me an object for each table in my database. Now I want to be able to say context.GetAll<User>(); and have it return a list of my User objects. The User object is in my business layer. Is that possible? Does that make sense or am I totally off and should start over? I'm guessing I need to use the repository pattern to achieve this, but I'm not sure. Can anyone help?

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  • CodeIgniter: problem using foreach in view

    - by krike
    I have a model and controller who gets some data from my database and returns the following array Array ( [2010] => Array ( [year] => 2010 [months] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [sales] => 2 [month] => Apr ) [1] => stdClass Object ( [sales] => 1 [month] => Nov ) ) ) [2011] => Array ( [year] => 2011 [months] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [sales] => 1 [month] => Nov ) ) ) ) It shows exactly what it should show but the key's have different names so I have no idea on how to loop through the years using foreach in my view. Arrays is something I'm not that good at yet :( this is the controller if you need to know: function analytics() { $this->load->model('admin_model'); $analytics = $this->admin_model->Analytics(); foreach ($analytics as $a): $data[$a->year]['year'] = $a->year; $data[$a->year]['months'] = $this->admin_model->AnalyticsMonth($a->year); endforeach; echo"<pre style='text-align:left;'>"; print_r($data); echo"</pre>"; $data['main_content'] = 'analytics'; $this->load->view('template_admin', $data); }//end of function categories()

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  • Recursive Enumeration in Java

    - by Harm De Weirdt
    Hello everyone. I still have a question about Enumerations. Here's a quick sketch of the situation. I have a class Backpack that has a Hashmap content with as keys a variable of type long, and as value an ArrayList with Items. I have to write an Enumeration that iterates over the content of a Backpack. But here's the catch: in a Backpack, there can also be another Backpack. And the Enumeration should also be able to iterate over the content of a backpack that is in the backpack. (I hope you can follow, I'm not really good at explaining..) Here is the code I have: public Enumeration<Object> getEnumeration() { return new Enumeration<Object>() { private int itemsDone = 0; //I make a new array with all the values of the HashMap, so I can use //them in nextElement() Collection<Long> keysCollection = getContent().keySet(); Long [] keys = keysCollection.toArray(new Long[keysCollection.size()]); public boolean hasMoreElements() { if(itemsDone < getContent().size()) { return true; }else { return false; } } public Object nextElement() { ArrayList<Item> temporaryList= getContent().get(keys[itemsDone]); for(int i = 0; i < temporaryList.size(); i++) { if(temporaryList.get(i) instanceof Backpack) { return temporaryList.get(i).getEnumeration(); }else { return getContent().get(keys[itemsDone++]); } } } }; Will this code work decently? It's just the "return temporaryList.get(i).getEnumeration();" I'm worried about. Will the users still be able to use just the hasMoreElemens() and nextElement() like he would normally do? Any help is appreciated, Harm De Weirdt

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  • SQLAlchemy Mapping problem

    - by asdvalkn
    Dear Everyone, I am trying to sqlalchemy to correctly map my data. Note that a unified group is basically a group of groups. (One unifiedGroup maps to many groups but each group can only map to one ug). So basically this is the definition of my unifiedGroups: CREATE TABLE `unifiedGroups` ( `ugID` INT AUTO_INCREMENT, `gID` INT NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY(`ugID`, `gID`), KEY( `gID`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM DEFAULT CHARSET=utf8 ; Note that each row is a ugID, gID tuple. ( I do not know before hand how many gID is per ugID so this is probably the most sensible and simplest method). Definition for my UnifiedGroup class class UnifiedGroup(object): """UnifiedProduct behaves very much like a group """ def __init__(self, ugID): self.ugID=ugID #Added by mapping self.groups=False def __str__(self): return '<%s:%s>' % (self.ugID, ','.join( [g for g in self.groups])) These are my mapping tables: tb_groupsInfo = Table( 'groupsInfo', metadata, Column('gID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gName', String(128)), ) tb_unifiedGroups = Table( 'unifiedGroups', metadata, Column('ugID', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('gID', Integer, ForeignKey('groupsInfo.gID')), ) My mapper maps in the following manner: mapper( UnifiedGroup, tb_unifiedGroups, properties={ 'groups': relation( Group, backref='unifiedGroup') }) However, when I tried to do groupInstance.unifiedGroup, I am getting an empty list [], while groupInstance.unifiedGroup.groups returns me an error: AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' Traceback (most recent call last): File "Mapping.py", line 119, in <module> print p.group.unifiedGroup.groups AttributeError: 'InstrumentedList' object has no attribute 'groups' What is wrong?

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  • How do I create an exception-wrapping fubumvc behaviour?

    - by Jon M
    How can I create a fubumvc behaviour that wraps actions with a particular return type, and if an exception occurs while executing the action, then the behaviour logs the exception and populates some fields on the return object? I have tried the following: public class JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour : IActionBehavior { private static readonly Logger logger = LogManager.GetCurrentClassLogger(); private readonly IActionBehavior _innerBehavior; private readonly IFubuRequest _request; public JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour(IActionBehavior innerBehavior, IFubuRequest request) { _innerBehavior = innerBehavior; _request = request; } public void Invoke() { try { _innerBehavior.Invoke(); var response = _request.Get<AjaxResponse>(); response.Success = true; } catch(Exception ex) { logger.ErrorException("Error processing JSON request", ex); var response = _request.Get<AjaxResponse>(); response.Success = false; response.Exception = ex.ToString(); } } public void InvokePartial() { _innerBehavior.InvokePartial(); } } But, although I get the AjaxResponse object from the request, any changes I make don't get sent back to the client. Also, any exceptions thrown by the action don't make it as far as this, the request is terminated before execution gets to the catch block. What am I doing wrong? For completeness, the behaviour is wired up with the following in my WebRegistry: Policies .EnrichCallsWith<JsonExceptionHandlingBehaviour>(action => typeof(AjaxResponse).IsAssignableFrom(action.Method.ReturnType)); And AjaxResponse looks like: public class AjaxResponse { public bool Success { get; set; } public object Data { get; set; } public string Exception { get; set; } }

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  • Elegant Disjunctive Normal Form in Django

    - by Mike
    Let's say I've defined this model: class Identifier(models.Model): user = models.ForeignKey(User) key = models.CharField(max_length=64) value = models.CharField(max_length=255) Each user will have multiple identifiers, each with a key and a value. I am 100% sure I want to keep the design like this, there are external reasons why I'm doing it that I won't go through here, so I'm not interested in changing this. I'd like to develop a function of this sort: def get_users_by_identifiers(**kwargs): # something goes here return users The function will return all users that have one of the key=value pairs specified in **kwargs. Here's an example usage: get_users_by_identifiers(a=1, b=2) This should return all users for whom a=1 or b=2. I've noticed that the way I've set this up, this amounts to a disjunctive normal form...the SQL query would be something like: SELECT DISTINCT(user_id) FROM app_identifier WHERE (key = "a" AND value = "1") OR (key = "b" AND value = "2") ... I feel like there's got to be some elegant way to take the **kwargs input and do a Django filter on it, in just 1-2 lines, to produce this result. I'm new to Django though, so I'm just not sure how to do it. Here's my function now, and I'm completely sure it's not the best way to do it :) def get_users_by_identifiers(**identifiers): users = [] for key, value in identifiers.items(): for identifier in Identifier.objects.filter(key=key, value=value): if not identifier.user in users: users.append(identifier.user) return users Any ideas? :) Thanks!

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  • Issue with dynamically loading a user control on button click

    - by Kumar
    I have a page in which I am loading a user control dynamically as follows: Default.aspx: <cc1:ToolkitScriptManager ID="ToolkitScriptManager1" runat="server"> </cc1:ToolkitScriptManager> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder1" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> Default.aspx.cs: protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { var ctrl = LoadControl("~/UserCtrl1.ascx"); ctrl.ID = "ucUserCtrl1"; PlaceHolder1.Controls.Add(ctrl); } Below is the code for UserCtrl1.ascx <asp:Label ID="Label1" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Button ID="Button1" runat="server" Text="Button1" OnClick="Button1_Click" /> <br /> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="PlaceHolder2" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> I am dynamically loading another user control when the Button1 is clicked UserCtrl1.ascx.cs protected void Button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label1.Text = "UserControl - 1 button clicked!"; var ctrl = LoadControl("~/UserCtrl2.ascx"); ctrl.ID = "ucUserCtrl2"; PlaceHolder2.Controls.Add(ctrl); } Below is the markup for UserCtrl2.ascx <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Label ID="Label2" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Button ID="Button2" runat="server" Text="Button2" OnClick="Button2_Click" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> UserCtrl2.ascx.cs protected void Button2_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { Label2.Text = "UserControl - 2 button clicked!"; } After the page loads when I click the Button1 in UserCtrl1 the click event fires and I am able to see the Label1 text. It also properly loads the UserCtrl2, but when I click the Button2 in UserCtrl2 the click event dosent fire and even worse when I click the Button2 twice the UserCtrl2 control dissappears from the page. How can I fix this?

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  • manyToOne is creating new products

    - by user788721
    I am trying to implement Sylius Cart Bundle, but every time I add a product to the cart, a new product is created. This is probably link to my line: cascade: ["persist", "remove"] In my YAML File: Pharmacie\FrontBundle\Entity\CartItem: type: entity table: app_cart_item manyToOne: produit: targetEntity: Pharmacie\FrontBundle\Entity\Product cascade: ["persist", "remove"] joinColumn: name: product_id referencedColumnName: id But if take it off, I get an error: A new entity was found through the relationship 'Pharmacie\FrontBundle\Entity\CartItem#produit' that was not configured to cascade persist operations for entity: 3test2. To solve this issue: Either explicitly call EntityManager#persist() on this unknown entity or configure cascade persist this association in the mapping for example @ManyToOne(..,cascade={"persist"}) According to the doctrine doc, this error occurs when you set a new object. But I am only getting an existing object By ID: $product = $this->getProductRepository()->find($productId); $item->setProduit($product); //this generates the error $item->setUnitPrice(5); //this works fine I don't understand why it's save as a new object. If I use merge instead of persist, I get the same error: A new entity was found through the relationship...

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