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• How to hide the title bar while application is loading and show it when it finishes loading?

  - by Arci

  I have an application which uses a custom title bar. However, when my application launches, I noticed that the default title bar is shown for a brief period of time. My problem is I don't want to show the default title bar while my application is loading. How do I hide the title bar while my application is loading so that there will be no hint of it and then show it afterwards? So far, I tried the following solutions but none have worked: Hide the title bar in XML and then set the custom title bar in code. (Problem encountered: I received an error message saying: "You cannot combine custom titles with other title features".) In XML: <item name="android:windowNoTitle">true</item> In onCreate method: requestWindowFeature(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE); //... some code goes here getWindow().setFeatureInt(Window.FEATURE_CUSTOM_TITLE, R.layout.title_header); Set the size of the title bar in XML to 0. Then change it's size via code later. (Problem encountered: I don't know how to set the size of title bar in code. Is it possible? I tried getWindow().setAttributes() and getWindow().setLayout() but both of them didn't worked.)" In XML: <item name="android:windowTitleSize">30dp</item> Modify windowTitleBackgroundStyle and set a transparent drawable as background. (Problem encountered: The content of the title bar became invisible but a line below the title bar is still visible.) In XML: <!-- style used by windowTitleBackgroundStyle --> <item name="android:background">@drawable/transparent</item>

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• Can I get the IE debugger to break into long-running javascript

  - by Brian Deacon

  I have a page that has a byzantine amount of javascript running. In IE only, and only version 8, I get a long-script warning that I can reliably reproduce. I suspect it is event handlers triggering themselves in an infinite loop. The Developer Tools are limping horribly under the weight of the script running, but I do seem to be able to get the log to tell me what line of script it was executing when I aborted, but it is inevitably some of the deep plumbing of the ExtJS code we use, and I can't tell where it is in my stack of code. A way of seeing the call stack would work, but preferably I'd like to be able to just break into the debugger when I get the long script warning so I can just step through the stack. There is a similar question posted, but the answers given were for a not-the-right-tool, or the not terribly helpful advice to eliminate half my code at a time on a binary hunt for the infinite loop. If my code were simple enough that I could do that, it probably wouldn't have gotten the infinite loop in the first place. If I could reproduce the problem in firebug, I'd probably be a lot happier too.

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• How do actually castings work at the CLR level?

  - by devoured elysium

  When doing an upcast or downcast, what does really happen behind the scenes? I had the idea that when doing something as: string myString = "abc"; object myObject = myString; string myStringBack = (string)myObject; the cast in the last line would have as only purpose tell the compiler we are safe we are not doing anything wrong. So, I had the idea that actually no casting code would be embedded in the code itself. It seems I was wrong: .maxstack 1 .locals init ( [0] string myString, [1] object myObject, [2] string myStringBack) L_0000: nop L_0001: ldstr "abc" L_0006: stloc.0 L_0007: ldloc.0 L_0008: stloc.1 L_0009: ldloc.1 L_000a: castclass string L_000f: stloc.2 L_0010: ret Why does the CLR need something like castclass string? There are two possible implementations for a downcast: You require a castclass something. When you get to the line of code that does an castclass, the CLR tries to make the cast. But then, what would happen had I ommited the castclass string line and tried to run the code? You don't require a castclass. As all reference types have a similar internal structure, if you try to use a string on an Form instance, it will throw an exception of wrong usage (because it detects a Form is not a string or any of its subtypes). Also, is the following statamente from C# 4.0 in a Nutshell correct? Upcasting and downcasting between compatible reference types performs reference conversions: a new reference is created that points to the same object. Does it really create a new reference? I thought it'd be the same reference, only stored in a different type of variable. Thanks

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• Unable to call storyboard from xib

  - by Shruti Kapoor

  I am new to iOS development. I am trying to connect to a storyboard from xib file. My xib View Controller has a "Login" which if successful should connect to storyboard. I have googled and searched on stackoverflow for a solution and I am using this code that is given everywhere: UIStoryboard *storyboard = [UIStoryboard storyboardWithName:@"MainStoryboard" bundle:nil]; YourViewController * yourView = (YourViewController *)[storyboard instantiateViewControllerWithIdentifier:@"identifier ID"]; I have created an identifier for my storyboard as well. However, I am not being redirected to the storyboard no matter what I try. When the login finishes, I go back to my main View Controller (xib). I should be instead redirected to the storyboard. Here is what my code looks like in a file called ProfileTabView.m: -(void) loginViewDidFinish:(NSNotification*)notification { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] removeObserver:self]; UIStoryboard* storyboard = [UIStoryboard storyboardWithName:@"Storyboard" bundle:nil]; ProfileTabView * yourView = (ProfileTabView *)[storyboard instantiateViewControllerWithIdentifier:@"myID"]; } I have implemeted this code in the function that gets called once the login is successful. However, the storyboard "Storyboard" never gets called. Am i doing this right? Am I supposed to be writing this code anywhere else? Thanks a lot for any help :)

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• Shuffle Two NSMutableArray independently

  - by Superman

  I'm creating two NSMutableArray in my viewDidLoad, I add it in a NSMutableDictionary. When I tried shuffling it with one array, It is okay. But the problem is when Im shuffling two arrays independently its not working,somehow the indexes got mixed up. Here is my code for my array (I have two of these): self.items1 = [NSMutableArray new]; for(int i = 0; i <= 100; i++) { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSCachesDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDir = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *savedImagePath = [documentsDir stringByAppendingPathComponent:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"[Images%d.png", i]]; if([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:savedImagePath]){ self.container = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; [container setObject:[UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile:savedImagePath] forKey:@"items1"]; [container setObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:i] forKey:@"index1"]; [items1 addObject:container]; } } NSLog(@"Count : %d", [items1 count]); [items1 enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id object, NSUInteger index, BOOL *stop) { NSLog(@"%@ images at index %d", object, index); }]; then my shuffle code(Which I tried duplicating for the other array,but not working also): srandom(time(NULL)); NSUInteger count = [items1 count]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < count; ++i) { int nElements = count - i; int n = (random() % nElements) + i; [items1 exchangeObjectAtIndex:i withObjectAtIndex:n]; } How am I going to shuffle it using above code (or if you have other suggestions) with two arrays? Thanks My other problem is when I tries subclassing the class for the shuffle method or either use the above code, their index mixed. For example: Object: apple, ball, carrots, dog Indexes: 1 2 3 4 but in my View when shuffled: Object: carrots, apple, dog, balle Indexes: 2 4 1 3

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• Difference in behaviour (GCC and Visual C++)

  - by Prasoon Saurav

  Consider the following code. #include <stdio.h> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct XYZ { int X,Y,Z; }; std::vector<XYZ> A; int rec(int idx) { int i = A.size(); A.push_back(XYZ()); if (idx >= 5) return i; A[i].X = rec(idx+1); return i; } int main(){ A.clear(); rec(0); puts("FINISH!"); } I couldn't figure out the reason why the code gives a segmentation fault on Linux (IDE used: Code::Blocks) whereas on Windows (IDE used: Visual C++) it doesn't. When I used Valgrind just to check what actually the problem was, I got this output. I got Invalid write of size 4 at four different places. Then why didn't the code crash when I used Visual C++? Am I missing something?

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• Good Replacement for User Control?

  - by David Lively

  I found user controls to be incredibly useful when working with ASP.NET webforms. By encapsulating the code required for displaying a control with the markup, creation of reusable components was very straightforward and very, very useful. While MVC provides convenient separation of concerns, this seems to break encapsulation (ie, you can add a control without adding or using its supporting code, leading to runtime errors). Having to modify a controller every time I add a control to a view seems to me to integrate concerns, not separate them. I'd rather break the purist MVC ideology than give up the benefits of reusable, packaged controls. I need to be able to include components similar to webforms user controls throughout a site, but not for the entire site, and not at a level that belongs in a master page. These components should have their own code not just markup (to interact with the business layer), and it would be great if the page controller didn't need to know about the control. Since MVC user controls don't have codebehind, I can't see a good way to do this. I've searched previous SO questions, and have yet to find a good answer. Options so far In an attempt to avoid turning the comments section into a discussion... RenderAction This allows the view to call another controller, which will be responsible for interacting with the BLL and whatever data is necessary to its corresponding view. The calling view needs to be aware of the sub controller. This seems to provide a nice way to encapsulate partial views and controls, without having to modify the calling controller. RenderPartial The calling controller is still responsible for executing whatever code is associated with the partial view, and making sure that the model passed to the partial view contains the data it expects. Effectively, modifying the partial view potentially means modifying the calling controller. Annoying especially if this is used in multiple places. Portable Areas Place each control in its own project/area?

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• error while updating a database in ASP.NET

  - by Viredae

  I am having trouble updating an SQL database, the problem is not that it doesn't update at all, but that particular parameters are being updated while the others are not. here is the code for updating the parameters: string EditRequest = "UPDATE Requests SET Description = @Desc, BJustif = @Justif, Priority = @Priority, Requested_System = @Requested, Request_Status = @Stat WHERE"; EditRequest += " Req_ID=@ID"; SqlConnection Submit_conn = new SqlConnection(WebConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["DBConn"].ConnectionString); SqlCommand Submit_comm = new SqlCommand(EditRequest, Submit_conn); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@ID", Request.QueryString["reqid"]); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Desc", DescBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Justif", JustifBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Priority", PriorityList.SelectedValue); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Requested", RelatedBox.Text); Submit_comm.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Stat", 1); Submit_conn.Open(); Submit_comm.ExecuteNonQuery(); Submit_comm.Dispose(); Submit_comm = null; Submit_conn.Close(); get_Description(); Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "Refresh", "ReloadPage();", true); this function is called by a button on a pop-up form which shows the parameters content that is being changed in a text box which is also used to submit the changes back to the database, but when I press submit, the parameters which are displayed on the form don't change, I can't find any problem wit the code, even though I've compared it to similar code which is working fine. In case you need to, here is one of the text boxes I'm using to display and edit the content: <asp:TextBox ID="JustifBox" TextMode="MultiLine" runat="server" Width="250" Height="50"></asp:TextBox> What exactly is wrong with the code?

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• How to find out where a thread lock happend?

  - by SchlaWiener

  One of our company's Windows Forms application had a strange problem for several month. The app worked very reliable for most of our customers but on some PC's (mostly with a wireless lan connection) the app sometimes just didn't respond anymore. (You click on the UI and windows ask you to wait or kill the app). I wasn't able to track down the problem for a long time but now I figured out what happend. The app had this line of code // don't blame me for this. Wasn't my code :D Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false and used some background threads to modify the controls. No I found a way to reproduce the application stopping responding bug on my dev machine and tracked it down to a line where I actually used Invoke() to run a task in the main thread. Me.Invoke(MyDelegate, arg1, arg2) Obviously there was a thread lock somewhere. After removing the Control.CheckForIllegalCrossThreadCalls = false statement and refactoring the whole programm to use Invoke() if modifying a control from a background thread, the problem is (hopefully) gone. However, I am wondering if there is a way to find such bugs without debugging every line of code (Even if I break into debugger after the app stops responding I can't tell what happend last, because the IDE didn't jump to the Invoke() statement) In other words: If my apps hangs how can I figure out which line of code has been executed last? Maybe even on the customers PC. I know VS2010 offers some backwards debugging feature, maybe that would be a solution, but currently I am using VS2008.

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• How can I send GET data to multiple URLs at the same time using cURL?

  - by Rob

  My apologies, I've actually asked this question multiple times, but never quite understood the answers. Here is my current code: while($resultSet = mysql_fetch_array($SQL)){ $ch = curl_init($resultSet['url'] . $fullcurl); //load the urls and send GET data curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 2); //Only load it for two seconds (Long enough to send the data) curl_exec($ch); //Execute the cURL curl_close($ch); //Close it off } //end while loop What I'm doing here, is taking URLs from a MySQL Database ($resultSet['url']), appending some extra variables to it, just some GET data ($fullcurl), and simply requesting the pages. This starts the script running on those pages, and that's all that this script needs to do, is start those scripts. It doesn't need to return any output. Just the load the page long enough for the script to start. However, currently it's loading each URL (currently 11) one at a time. I need to load all of them simultaneously. I understand I need to use curl_multi_*, but I haven't the slightest idea on how cURL functions work, so I don't know how to change my code to use curl_multi_* in a while loop. So my questions are: How can I change this code to load all of the URLs simultaneously? Please explain it and not just give me code. I want to know what each individual function does exactly. Will curl_multi_exec even work in a while loop, since the while loop is just sending each row one at a time? And of course, any references, guides, tutorials about cURL functions would be nice, as well. Preferably not so much from php.net, as while it does a good job of giving me the syntax, its just a little dry and not so good with the explanations.

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• Partial class or "chained inheritance"

  - by Charlie boy

  Hi From my understanding partial classes are a bit frowned upon by professional developers, but I've come over a bit of an issue; I have made an implementation of the RichTextBox control that uses user32.dll calls for faster editing of large texts. That results in quite a bit of code. Then I added spellchecking capabilities to the control, this was made in another class inheriting RichTextBox control as well. That also makes up a bit of code. These two functionalities are quite separate but I would like them to be merged so that I can drop one control on my form that has both fast editing capabilities and spellchecking built in. I feel that simply adding the code form one class to the other would result in a too large code file, especially since there are two very distinct areas of functionality, so I seem to need another approach. Now to my question; To merge these two classes should I make the spellchecking RichTextBox inherit from the fast edit one, that in turn inherits RichTextBox? Or should I make the two classes partials of a single class and thus making them more “equal” so to speak? This is more of a question of OO principles and exercise on my part than me trying to reinvent the wheel, I know there are plenty of good text editing controls out there. But this is just a hobby for me and I just want to know how this kind of solution would be managed by a professional. Thanks!

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• submittingthe form even if the form is in invalid state

  - by Abu Hamzah

  i am using asp.net web forms and i am using bassistance.de jquery validation.. i have bunch of fields in the form and its validatating how it suppose to but its still executing my code behind code, why is it doing that? here is my code: form: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#aspnetForm").validate({ rules: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { maxlength:1, //minlength: 12, required: true } ................. }, messages: { <%=txtVisitName.UniqueID %>: { required: "Enter visit name", minlength: jQuery.format("Enter at least {0} characters.") } ............ }, success: function(label) { label.html("&nbsp;").addClass("checked"); } }); $("#aspnetForm").validate(); }); </script> <div > <h1> Page</h1> <asp:Label runat="server" ID='Label1'>Visit Name:</asp:Label> <asp:TextBox ID="txtVisitName" runat='server'></asp:TextBox> ............ ............... <button id="btnSubmit" name="btnSubmit" type="submit"> Submit</button> </div> and i have a external .js file referencing to my web form page. $(document).ready(function() { $("#btnSubmit").click(function() { SavePage(); }); }); i have a WebMethod .cs and i have bookmark and it does hitting that line of code even thoug my page is in invalid state. how would i fix this? thanks.

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• Why Response.Write behavior varies in the given scenario?

  - by Sri Kumar

  Hello All, When i POST the page using the following code, the Response.write("Hey") doesn't write the content ("Hello") to the parent page <form method="post" name="upload" enctype="multipart/form-data" action="http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue" > <input type="file" name="filename" /> <input type="submit" value="Upload Data File" name="cmdSubmit" /> </form> But When i use following code , and POST the data, the Response.write("Hey") can be obtained in the parent page HttpWebRequest requestToSender = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:2518/Web/CrossPage.aspx?cmd=getvalue"); requestToSender.Method = "POST"; requestToSender.ContentType = "multipart/form-data"; HttpWebResponse responseFromSender = (HttpWebResponse)requestToSender.GetResponse(); string fromSender = string.Empty; using (StreamReader responseReader = new StreamReader(responseFromSender.GetResponseStream())) { fromSender = responseReader.ReadToEnd(); } In the CrossPage.aspx i have the following code if (!Page.IsPostBack) { NameValueCollection postPageCollection = Request.Form; foreach (string name in postPageCollection.AllKeys) { Response.Write(name + " " + postPageCollection[name]); } HttpFileCollection postCollection = Request.Files; foreach (string name in postCollection.AllKeys) { HttpPostedFile aFile = postCollection[name]; aFile.SaveAs(Server.MapPath(".") + "/" + Path.GetFileName(aFile.FileName)); } Response.Write("Hey"); } I don't have any code in the Page_Load event of parent page.? What could be the cause? I need to write the "hey" to the Parent page using the first scenario. Both the application are of different domain. Edit: "Hey" would be from the CrossPage.aspx. I need to write this back to the Parent Page

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• Java - problems iterating through an ArrayList

  - by cc0

  Ok so I have an ArrayList (arrBok), which is full of book objects (the code is in Norwegian, so pay no attention to that please). I want to make a public method which iterates through all the objects in the arraylist. When I execute the code, it just seems to run in an infinite loop, not producing any return values. Here is the relevant (I hope, because there are a couple of other classes involved) part of the code; public String listAll() { itr = arrBok.iterator(); while (itr.hasNext()) { i++; } return "lol"; } This code does nothing useful, but I just want to see if it can iterate through it successfully. What I have tried so far; Tested if the bokArr (arraylist) is empty, which it's not. It has 4 objects inside of it. Return the toString() method of the itr, with the following result; java.util.AbstractList$Itr@173a10f // <-- not sure if this would be relevant to anything return itr.next().toString(); <-- // which seems to return the first object in the array, does that make sense?

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• Difference in behaviour( gcc and MSVC++ )

  - by Prasoon Saurav

  Consider the following code. #include <stdio.h> #include <vector> #include <iostream> struct XYZ { int X,Y,Z; }; std::vector<XYZ> A; int rec(int idx) { int i = A.size(); A.push_back(XYZ()); if (idx >= 5) return i; A[i].X = rec(idx+1); return i; } int main(){ A.clear(); rec(0); puts("FINISH!"); } I couldn't figure out the reason why the code gives segmentation fault on Linux(IDE used: Code::Blocks) whereas on Windows(IDE used : MSVC++) it doesn't. When I used valgrind just to check what actually the problem was, I got this output. I got Invalid write of size 4 at four different places. Then why didn't the code crash when I used MSVC++? Am I missing something?

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• posting a variable with jquery and receiving it on other page

  - by Billa

  I want to post a varible "id" to a page. I'm trying following code, but I cant get the id value, it says "undefined". function box(){ var id=$(this).attr("id"); $("#votebox").slideDown("slow"); $("#flash").fadeIn("slow"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", //I want to post the "id" to the rating page. data: "id="+$(this).attr("id"), url: "rating.php", success: function(html){ $("#flash").fadeOut("slow"); $("#content").html(html); } }); } This function is called in following code. In the following code too, the id is posted to the page "votes.php", and it works fine, but in the above code when I'm trying to post the id to the rating.php page, it does not send. $(function(){ $("a.vote_up").click(function(){ the_id = $(this).attr('id'); $("span#votes_count"+the_id).fadeOut("fast"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", data: "action=vote_up&id="+$(this).attr("id"), url: "votes.php", success: function(msg) { $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeOut(); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).html(msg); $("span#votes_up"+the_id).fadeIn(); var that = this; box.call(that); } }); }); }); rating.php <? $id = $_POST['id']; echo $id; ?> The html part is: <a href='javascript:;' class='vote_up' id='<?php echo $row['id']; ?>'>Vote Up!</a> I'll appriciate any help.

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• Loading Javascript through an AJAX load through jQuery??

  - by Jason Axelrod

  I have an javascript that I place into a page using the code below. What the code does is place an object/embed code into a webpage. Simple javascript loader to a NicoVideo movie <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395"></script> This works great in a webpage. But what if I want to load this javascript into a page using AJAX? This no longer works for the obvious reasons, you would need to eval the script in order to get it to run. However, I have no idea how to do this. I am using jQuery on my page; so keep that in mind. I have tried the following code, but it doesn't seem to work through AJAX, or even in a normal page load environment. <script>$.getScript("http://ext.nicovideo.jp/thumb_watch/sm13154955?w=640&h=395");</script> Any ideas on how I would get this to work?

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• starting rails in test environment

  - by Brian D.

  I'm trying to load up rails in the test environment using a ruby script. I've tried googling a bit and found this recommendation: require "../../config/environment" ENV['RAILS_ENV'] = ARGV.first || ENV['RAILS_ENV'] || 'test' This seems to load up my environment alright, but my development database is still being used. Am I doing something wrong? Here is my database.yml file... however I don't think it is the issue development: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_development pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_test pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost production: adapter: mysql encoding: utf8 reconnect: false database: BrianSite_production pool: 5 username: root password: dev host: localhost I can't use ruby script/server -e test because I'm trying to run ruby code after I load rails. More specifically what I'm trying to do is: run a .sql database script, load up rails and then run automated tests. Everything seems to be working fine, but for whatever reason rails seems to be loading in the development environment instead of the test environment. Here is a shortened version of the code I am trying to run: system "execute mysql script here" require "../../config/environment" ENV['RAILS_ENV'] = ARGV.first || ENV['RAILS_ENV'] || 'test' describe Blog do it "should be initialized successfully" do blog = Blog.new end end I don't need to start a server, I just need to load my rails code base (models, controllers, etc..) so I can run tests against my code. Thanks for any help.

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• How do you tell that your unit tests are correct?

  - by Jacob Adams

  I've only done minor unit testing at various points in my career. Whenever I start diving into it again, it always troubles me how to prove that my tests are correct. How can I tell that there isn't a bug in my unit test? Usually I end up running the app, proving it works, then using the unit test as a sort of regression test. What is the recommended approach and/or what is the approach you take to this problem? Edit: I also realize that you could write small, granular unit tests that would be easy to understand. However, if you assume that small, granular code is flawless and bulletproof, you could just write small, granular programs and not need unit testing. Edit2: For the arguments "unit testing is for making sure your changes don't break anything" and "this will only happen if the test has the exact same flaw as the code", what if the test overfits? It's possible to pass both good and bad code with a bad test. My main question is what good is unit testing since if your tests can be flawed you can't really improve your confidence in your code, can't really prove your refactoring worked, and can't really prove that you met the specification?

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• Jquery autocomplete with Dynamic input box.?

  - by Kaps Hasija

  I have done so much R & D for Jquery Auto complete, I found some result but not as much i needed. I am giving you code which are currently i am using . <input type="text" value="|a" name="completeMe" id="Subject" />// This input box will created by Dynamic using forloop // My Jquery Code $(function () { $("#Subject").autocomplete({ source: '/Cataloging/Bib/GetSubject', minLength: 1, select: function (event, ui) { // Do something with "ui.item.Id" or "ui.item.Name" or any of the other properties you selected to return from the action } }); }); // My Action Method public ActionResult GetSubject(string term) { term = term.Substring(2, term.Length-2); return Json(db.BibContents.Where(city => city.Value.StartsWith(term)).Select(city => city.Value), JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } // My code is running with static input but while creating Dynamic I need to use live event but i don't know how can i use Live Event with this code. NOTE: I am using static value of input "|a" after rendering on action i am removing that first two char to make proper search from database. Thanks

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• Prevent Javascript Execution in JQuery html()

  - by Mahan

  well i do have a div that contains some more html and a lot of javascript on it <div id="mydiv"> <p>Hello Philippines</p> my first time in Philippines is nice <script type="text/javascript">alert("how was it became nice?");</script> well i experienced a lot of things <script type="text/javascript">alert("and how about your Japan's trip?");</script> well its more nicer ^^ but both countries are good! hahah </div> now what i want there is to put the non-javascript code and javascript code in two separate variables var html = $("#mydiv").html(); but my problem here is my javascript is executing..which makes me stop to create the code i want which is the storing of javascript and non-javascript to two different variables. now my questions is how can i stop the javascript codes from executing when they are get inside the div? how can i store the javascript and non-javascript code into two different variables safely? NOTE: i need the stored javascript for later execution

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• Can't touch UITextField on UIScrollView

  - by Chris B

  Hey guys, I know this has been talked about a lot. I think I've gone thru every question on this site, and still have not been able to get this working. I'm new to developing but I have a good sense of what's going on with all of my code. I definitely don't have a lot of experience though, this is my first iPhone app. I'm making a data entry field that is comprised of multiple UITextFields within a UIScrollView. I'll avoid explaining the other details for now, as it seems its a very basic problem. Without a scrollview, the textfields work perfectly. I can touch the textfield and the keyboard or picker view show up appropriately. When I add the textfields to a scrollview, the scrollview works, but then the text fields don't receive my touches. Here's the key: When 'User Interaction' is ENABLED, the scrollview works but the textfield touches are NOT registered. When 'User Interaction' is DISABLED, the scrollview doesn't work, but the textfield touches ARE registered and the keyboard/picker pops up. From the other posts I have seen people creating subclasses and overriding the touches in a separate implementation. I've seen people using custom content views (subviews?), I've seen some solutions that are now obsolete since the APIs have changed in newer versions of the SDK, and I am just completely stuck. I will leave out my code for now, because maybe there is a solution that someone has without requiring my code. If someone needs to see my code, I will put it up. My app is being written in the 3.1.3 SDK. If anyone has ANY information that could help, it would be so greatly appreciated.

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• How to use Enquire.Js?

  - by big_smile

  Enquire.js is a Javascipt that re-creates CSS media queries for Javascripts. This means you can wrap your Javascripts in Media Queries. (Just like you would wrap CSS in Media Queries). I'm not quite sure how to use it. This tutorial says this: enquire.register("max-width: 960px", function() { // put your code here }); However, when I follow that, my code stops working. Here is an example of some Jquery Tabs without Enquire.JS. It works fine. Here are the same tabs, but with Enquire.JS added. Now it stops working. I've experimented with different variations of the code, but none of them work. What am I doing wrong? I think you might have place the Jquery Tab code in a separate file and then link to that file from within Enquire.Js, but I'm not sure how you would do that. (Although it would be handy to know as I'd imagine it would let you keep your scripts be more reusable). PS. This is not a criticism of Enquire.Js. I know that the problem lies squarely with my lack of proficiency in Javascript! I did spend a couple of hours searching for a solution, but couldn't find anything. Thanks for any help!

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• Limit CPU usage of a process

  - by jb

  I have a service running which periodically checks a folder for a file and then processes it. (Reads it, extracts the data, stores it in sql) So I ran it on a test box and it took a little longer thaan expected. The file had 1.6 million rows, and it was still running after 6 hours (then I went home). The problem is the box it is running on is now absolutely crippled - remote desktop was timing out so I cant even get on it to stop the process, or attach a debugger to see how far through etc. It's solidly using 90%+ CPU, and all other running services or apps are suffering. The code is (from memory, may not compile): List<ItemDTO> items = new List<ItemDTO>(); using (StreamReader sr = fileInfo.OpenText()) { while (!sr.EndOfFile) { string line = sr.ReadLine() try { string s = line.Substring(0,8); double y = Double.Parse(line.Substring(8,7)); //If the item isnt already in the collection, add it. if (items.Find(delegate(ItemDTO i) { return (i.Item == s); }) == null) items.Add(new ItemDTO(s,y)); } catch { /*Crash*/ } } return items; } - So I am working on improving the code (any tips appreciated). But it still could be a slow affair, which is fine, I've no problems with it taking a long time as long as its not killing my server. So what I want from you fine people is: 1) Is my code hideously un-optimized? 2) Can I limit the amount of CPU my code block may use? Cheers all

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• How do you work on Strategic Development initiatives when Tactical work takes priority?

  - by Shaun F

  My day-to-day job consists of maintaining large volume websites and this has given me exposure to developing better methods to develop and maintain the code. This has also given me a large body of knowledge in the code base in terms of troubleshooting that is beneficial to the company. I'm also the maintainer of an IDE plug in I created to help navigate and generate code that is used. Operationally though, my job is to handle any client requests that come in of that are emergencies and make any enhancements and additions to the code base required. This work, along with the daily managing and feeding of the the project managers will take up my entire day. How does one manage the time between the tactical day job and the strategic initiatives? How does one get and ask for recognition for taking strategic initiatives? Is the 8-9 hour day just not going to cut it? Is there even a job out there for programmers to develop strategic initiatives and solutions for a company? I want to also point out that this isn't a problem with the company at all. I think this is more of a personal-improvement decision. Nobody will say no to the improvements at all. I believe in making the things happen but I don't think I'm going to get time from the company to do it...

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