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  • Using RabbitMQ (Java client), is there a way to determine if network connection is closed during con

    - by MItch Branting
    I'm using RabbitMQ on RHEL 5.3 using the Java client. I have 2 nodes (machines). Node1 is consuming messages from a queue on Node2 using the Java helper class QueueingConsumer. QueueingConsumer consumer = new QueueingConsumer(channel); channel.basicConsume("MyQueueOnNode2", noAck, consumer); while (true) { QueueingConsumer.Delivery delivery = consumer.nextDelivery(); ... Process message - delivery.getBody() } If the interface is brought down on Node1 or Node2 (e.g. ifconfig eth1 down), the client (above) never knows the network isn't there anymore. Does RabbitMQ provide some type of configuration on the Java client that can be used to determine if the connection has gone away. Shutting down the RabbitMQ server on Node2 will trigger a ShutdownSignalException, which can be caught and the app can go into a reconnect loop. But bringing down the interface doesn't cause any type of exception to happen, so the code will be waiting forever on consumer.nextDelivery(). I've also tried using the timeout version of this call. e.g. QueueingConsumer consumer = new QueueingConsumer(channel); channel.basicConsume("MyQueueOnNode2", noAck, consumer); int timeout_ms = 30000; while (true) { QueueingConsumer.Delivery delivery = consumer.nextDelivery(timeout_ms); if (delivery == null) { if (channel.isOpen() == false) // Seems to always return true { throw new ShutdownSignalException(); } } else { ... Process message - delivery.getBody() } } but appears that this always returns true (even though the interface is down). I assume registering for the ShutdownListener on the connection will yield the same results, but haven't tried that yet. Is there a way to configure some sort of heartbeat, or do you just have to write custom lease logic (e.g. "I'm here now") in order to get this to work?

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  • jQuery UI Dialog Error: b("<div></div>").addClass("ui-widget-overlay") is undefined

    - by Mithun
    I have the below code for my a Dialog box for a which contains a dropdown field KPMS.ServiceRequests.Status = { showOptions : function(requestId, userId, requestType) { var url = BASE_URL+'service_requests/status_options/'; $("#dialog-modal").dialog("destroy"); $("#dialog-modal").load(url, {"request_id": requestId, "user_id": userId, "request_type":requestType}).dialog( { modal: true, title: "Update Status", buttons: { Cancel : function() { $(this).dialog('close'); }, Update: function() { alert(1); } } } ); } } There is an anchor tag to populate the Dialog <a onclick="KPMS.ServiceRequests.Status.showOptions(9, 11, 'SR'); return false;" title="Update status" href="http://localhost/kitco/pms/#9"><img alt="[E]" title="Update" src="http://localhost/kitco/pms/images/edit.png"></a> My problem is When i click the link for the first time the dialog box is populating properly. Then I closed the dialog using the cancel button, then again clicked the link to open the dialog and closed it. For the third click on the link I'm getting the below Javascript error, and Dialog box is not opened Error: b("<div></div>").addClass("ui-widget-overlay") is undefined Source File: http://localhost/kitco/pms/js/jquery-ui-1.8rc3.custom.min.js Line: 199 How to solve this problem?

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  • jQuery Autocomplete using extraParams to pass additional GET variables

    - by paperclip
    I am referring specifically to the jQuery Autocomplete v1.1 plugin by Jörn Zaefferer [source: http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-autocomplete/] as there seems to be quite a few variations of this plugin. I'm trying to pass additional parameters to the server when the user starts typing because I have multiple fields that I want autocomplete to provide suggestions for. In addition to the query, I want to send the input name attribute to the server but I can't seem to use $(this).attr('name') within the extraParams. My jQuery: $('.ajax-auto input').autocomplete('search.php', { extraParams: { search_type: function(){ return $(this).attr('name'); } } }) This is my HTML. <form method="post" action="#" id="update-form" autocomplete="off"> <ol> <li class="ajax-auto"> <label for="form-initials">Initials</label> <input type="text" id="form-initials" name="initials" /> </li> <li class="ajax-auto"> <label for="form-company">Company</label> <input type="text" id="form-company" name="company" /> </li> </ol> </form> Any suggestions?

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  • Android - Using PreferenceScreen to display and save settings to/from ContentProvider

    - by Donal Rafferty
    I have my own custom Content Provider that loads a datasbase which contains the settings information for my application. I load the settings from the ContentProvider on the creation of my Settings activity. My Settings activity is made up of a PreferenceScreen and Dialog based EditText's. The following code shows how I use the preference screen and edit texts. So as you can see from the first image this works and displays the menu with the information underneath. The problem is in image two, when I click on a choice in the menu the dialog pops up but it is empty, I would like to be able to load the data from my content provider into the edit text in the dialog, so in image one it shows "Donal" as the user name so in image two "Donal" should also appear in the edit text in the dialog. I would also like to be able to listen to the OK button in the dialog so when a user changes a setting I can update the data in my content provider. Can anyone help me with what I'm trying to do? Code // Root PreferenceScreen root = getPreferenceManager().createPreferenceScreen(this); // Dialog based preferences PreferenceCategory dialogBasedPrefCat = new PreferenceCategory(this); dialogBasedPrefCat.setTitle(R.string.dialog_based_preferences); root.addPreference(dialogBasedPrefCat); // Edit text preference EditTextPreference editTextPref = new EditTextPreference(this); editTextPref.setDialogTitle(R.string.dialog_title_edittext_preference); editTextPref.setKey("edittext_preference"); editTextPref.setTitle(R.string.title_edittext_preference); editTextPref.setSummary(name); dialogBasedPrefCat.addPreference(editTextPref); Image One Image Two

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  • Python Image Library, Close method

    - by DNN
    Hello, I have been using pil for the first time today. And I wanted to resize an image assuming it was larger than 800x600 and also create a thumbnail. I could do either of these tasks separately but not together in one method (I am doing a custom save method in django admin). This returns a "cannot identify image file" error message. The error is on the line "image = Image.open(self.photo)" after "#if image is size is greatet than 800 x 600 then resize image." I thought this may be because the image is already open, but if i remove the line I still get issues. So I thought I could try closing after creating a thumbnail and then reopening. But I couldn't find a close method.... This is my code: def save(self): #create thumbnail Thumb_Size = (75, 75) image = Image.open(self.photo) if image.mode not in ('L', 'RGB'): image = image.convert('RGB') image.thumbnail(Thumb_Size, Image.ANTIALIAS) temp_handle = StringIO() image.save(temp_handle, 'jpeg') temp_handle.seek(0) suf = SimpleUploadedFile(os.path.split(self.photo.name)[-1], temp_handle.read(), content_type='image/jpg') self.thumbnail.save(suf.name+'.jpg', suf, save=False) #if image is size is greatet than 800 x 600 then resize image. image = Image.open(self.photo) if image.size[0] > 800: if image.size[1] > 600: Max_Size = (800, 600) if image.mode not in ('L', 'RGB'): image = image.convert('RGB') image.thumbnail(Max_Size, Image.ANTIALIAS) temp_handle = StringIO() image.save(temp_handle, 'jpeg') temp_handle.seek(0) suf = SimpleUploadedFile(os.path.split(self.photo.name)[-1], temp_handle.read(), content_type='image/jpg') self.photo.save(suf.name+'.jpg', suf, save=False) #enter info to database super(Photo, self).save()

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  • MVCContrib ActionFilter PassParametersDuringRedirect still passes reference type in querystring

    - by redsquare
    I am attempting to use the PRG pattern in an asp.net mvc 2 rc application. I found that the MVCContrib project has a custom action filter that will auto persist the parameters in TempData In an action I have the following return this.RedirectToAction(c => c.Requested(accountAnalysis)); however this is adding a querystring param to the request e.g http://mysite.com/account/add?model=MyProject.Models.AccountAnalysisViewModel Can anyone explain how I can use the PassParametersDuringRedirect filter attribute from MVCContrib to not pass the ViewModel type in the querystring. I see a patch was issued to fix this however in the latest MvcContrib that supports MVC 2 RC it is commented out as follows public static RedirectToRouteResult RedirectToAction<T>(this Controller controller, Expression<Action<T>> action) where T : Controller { /*var body = action.Body as MethodCallExpression; AddParameterValuesFromExpressionToTempData(controller, body); var routeValues = Microsoft.Web.Mvc.Internal.ExpressionHelper.GetRouteValuesFromExpression(action); RemoveReferenceTypesFromRouteValues(routeValues); return new RedirectToRouteResult(routeValues);*/ return new RedirectToRouteResult<T>(action); } Any help much appreciated. Thanks

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  • How do I make an ellipse blink?

    - by MedicineMan
    I am trying to make a custom control in WPF. I want it to simulate the behavior of a LED that can blink. There are three states to the control: On, Off, and Blinking. I know how to set On and Off through the code behind, but this WPF animation stuff is just driving me nuts!!!! I cannot get anything to animate whatsoever. The plan is to have a property called state. When the user sets the value to blinking, I want the control to alternate between green and grey. I'm assuming I need a dependency property here, but have no idea. I had more xaml before but just erased it all. it doesn't seem to do anything. I'd love to do this in the most best practice way possible, but at this point, I'll take anything. I'm half way to writing a thread that changes the color manually at this point. <UserControl x:Class="WpfAnimation.LED" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Height="300" Width="300"> <Grid> <Ellipse x:Name="MyLight" Height="Auto" Width="Auto"/> </Grid> </UserControl>

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  • how to import csv data into django models

    - by little_fish
    i have some csv data and i want to export into django models the example of csv data 1;"02-01-101101";"Worm Gear HRF 50";"Ratio 1 : 10";"input shaft, output shaft, direction A, color dark green"; 2;"02-01-101102";"Worm Gear HRF 50";"Ratio 1 : 20";"input shaft, output shaft, direction A, color dark green"; 3;"02-01-101103";"Worm Gear HRF 50";"Ratio 1 : 30";"input shaft, output shaft, direction A, color dark green"; 4;"02-01-101104";"Worm Gear HRF 50";"Ratio 1 : 40";"input shaft, output shaft, direction A, color dark green"; 5;"02-01-101105";"Worm Gear HRF 50";"Ratio 1 : 50";"input shaft, output shaft, direction A, color dark green"; and i have some django models name Product in Product there is some fields like name, description and price and i want to something like this product=Product() product.name = "Worm Gear HRF 70(02-01-101116)" product.description = "input shaft, output shaft, direction A, color dark green" product.price = 100

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  • Get an IDataReader from a typed List

    - by Jason Kealey
    I have a List<MyObject> with a million elements. (It is actually a SubSonic Collection but it is not loaded from the database). I'm currently using SqlBulkCopy as follows: private string FastInsertCollection(string tableName, DataTable tableData) { string sqlConn = ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings[SubSonicConfig.DefaultDataProvider.ConnectionStringName].ConnectionString; using (SqlBulkCopy s = new SqlBulkCopy(sqlConn, SqlBulkCopyOptions.TableLock)) { s.DestinationTableName = tableName; s.BatchSize = 5000; s.WriteToServer(tableData); s.BulkCopyTimeout = SprocTimeout; s.Close(); } return sqlConn; } I use SubSonic's MyObjectCollection.ToDataTable() to build the DataTable from my collection. However, this duplicates objects in memory and is inefficient. I'd like to use the SqlBulkCopy.WriteToServer method that uses an IDataReader instead of a DataTable so that I don't duplicate my collection in memory. What's the easiest way to get an IDataReader from my list? I suppose I could implement a custom data reader (like here http://blogs.microsoft.co.il/blogs/aviwortzel/archive/2008/05/06/implementing-sqlbulkcopy-in-linq-to-sql.aspx) , but there must be something simpler I can do without writing a bunch of generic code. Edit: It does not appear that one can easily generate an IDataReader from a collection of objects. Accepting current answer even though I was hoping for something built into the framework.

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  • "Message":"Invalid JSON primitive: RecordId."

    - by Radhi
    getting error in ajax call from jquery. here is my jquery function function AddAlbumToMyProfile(AlbumId, AlbumName, AlbumTypeName) { var obj = { AlbumId: AlbumId, AlbumName: AlbumName, AlbumTypeName: AlbumTypeName }; //following is ASP.NET AJAX serialize function to convert //object into jSON. var json = Sys.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer.serialize(obj); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Gallary.aspx/AddAlbumToMyProfile", data: json, contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", async: true, cache: false, success: function(msg) { if (msg.d == '') { alert("Album Added to your profile"); } else { alert(msg.d); } }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { } }); } and this is my webmethod [WebMethod] public static string DeleteRecord(Int64 RecordId, Int64 UserId, Int64 UserProfileId, string ItemType, string FileName) { try { string FilePath = HttpContext.Current.Server.MapPath(FileName); XDocument xmldoc = XDocument.Load(FilePath); XElement Xelm = xmldoc.Element("UserProfile"); XElement parentElement = Xelm.XPathSelectElement(ItemType + "/Fields"); (from BO in parentElement.Descendants("Record") where BO.Element("Id").Attribute("value").Value == RecordId.ToString() select BO).Remove(); XDocument xdoc = XDocument.Parse(Xelm.ToString(), LoadOptions.PreserveWhitespace); xdoc.Save(FilePath); UserInfoHandler obj = new UserInfoHandler(); return obj.GetHTML(UserId, UserProfileId, FileName, ItemType, RecordId, Xelm).ToString(); } catch (Exception ex) { HandleException.LogError(ex, "EditUserProfile.aspx", "DeleteRecord"); } return "success"; } can anybody please tell me whats wrong in my code?? i am getting error: {"Message":"Invalid JSON primitive: RecordId.","StackTrace":" at System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptObjectDeserializer.DeserializePrimitiveObject()\r\n at System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptObjectDeserializer.DeserializeInternal(Int32 depth)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptObjectDeserializer.BasicDeserialize(String input, Int32 depthLimit, JavaScriptSerializer serializer)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer.Deserialize(JavaScriptSerializer serializer, String input, Type type, Int32 depthLimit)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer.Deserialize[T](String input)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Services.RestHandler.GetRawParamsFromPostRequest(HttpContext context, JavaScriptSerializer serializer)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Services.RestHandler.GetRawParams(WebServiceMethodData methodData, HttpContext context)\r\n at System.Web.Script.Services.RestHandler.ExecuteWebServiceCall(HttpContext context, WebServiceMethodData methodData)","ExceptionType":"System.ArgumentException"}

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  • Adding a modal view controller when I press a info button inside a tableviewCell

    - by gvalero87
    Hi, Here is a complex question, maybe it's not hard but there are many doubts i have. First let me give you what i have. This is the only place where i've gotten good answers. I have a table view controller with custom cells. In those cells i added a button (info dark one from IB) for each one of the cells. What i would like it's that when I press that button it displays a new view with more information about that cell, different of the view that i get from didSelectRowAtIndexPath. I've read a little bit about Modal View Controller and I think this is a case where I should use it. So here are my questions: How do i make a view controller a modal view controller?. I read that i have to have a delegate. Is there an example of how to create a normal modal view controller. I haven't been able to do so. How can this button know which cell is it from?. What i have right is a subclass tableviewcell with an IBOUTLET to this info button. This is not an important question because i guess i just could add a NSIndexPath attribute. I added an action in my tableviewsubclass that is triggered when the touchDown Event is called. I did this connection through IB. How can I call the modal view controller through here?, and is it even the right place to do this? Thanks

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  • How to programmatically show & hide BalloonPopupExtender?

    - by Danferd
    I have a page that will be having few buttons that will redirect user to certain pages that required them to login before to proceed to the page. I would like to have something like, when user click on the button that required login and if user is not logged in prior to the click, a tooltip will show up beside the 'User ID' textbox to inform user to login in order to proceed. So, I implemented the jQuery Tooltipster in the page to show the tooltip message. I'm having problem on IE8 in Windows XP where the first click on the button, the tooltip would show up, but the second click it wouldn't then the third click, it shows up again and then the fourth click, it wouldn't! But for IE8 in Windows 7, IE9 & IE10, they have no such problem. Any idea how to fix this? The 'imgBtnKISS' & 'lnkBtnKISS' buttons are located in a content page but the tooltip and the 'User ID' textbox are in a master page. Below is the code that how I call the tooltip: function loginAlertMsg() { $('.tooltip').tooltipster({ trigger: 'custom', position: 'left', onlyOne: false, content: 'Login required! Please login to proceed.' }); $('#ctl00_txtID').tooltipster('show'); $('#ctl00_txtID').focus(); } Private Sub KISS_Click() Handles imgBtnKISS.Click, lnkBtnKISS.Click If Not bIsRefresh Then '==Detect User Login Status== Session(sesClickFromIcon) = toKISS If Session(USR.sesLogin) Is Nothing Then '//User NOT LOGIN. If (Not Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered("loginAlertMsg")) Then Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(Me.GetType(), "loginAlertMsg", "loginAlertMsg();", True) End If Exit Sub Else If Trim(CType(Session.Item(USR.sesLogin), Boolean)) <> True Then '//User NOT LOGIN. If (Not Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered("loginAlertMsg")) Then Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(Me.GetType(), "loginAlertMsg", "loginAlertMsg();", True) End If Exit Sub End If End If '**Detect User Login Status** Response.Redirect("~/page2.aspx", False) Session.Remove(sesClickFromIcon) End If End Sub

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  • Sql Query - Limiting query results

    - by Gublooo
    I am quite certain we cannot use the LIMIT clause for what I want to do - so wanted to find if there are any other ways we can accomplish this. I have a table which captures which user visited which store. Every time a user visits a store, a row is inserted into this table. Some of the fields are shopping_id (primary key) store_id user_id Now what I want is - for a given set of stores, find the top 5 users who have visited the store max number of times. I can do this 1 store at a time as: select store_id,user_id,count(1) as visits from shopping where store_id = 60 group by user_id,store_id order by visits desc Limit 5 This will give me the 5 users who have visited store_id=60 the max times What I want to do is provide a list of 10 store_ids and for each store fetch the 5 users who have visited that store max times select store_id,user_id,count(1) as visits from shopping where store_id in (60,61,62,63,64,65,66) group by user_id,store_id order by visits desc Limit 5 This will not work as the Limit at the end will return only 5 rows rather than 5 rows for each store. Any ideas on how I can achieve this. I can always write a loop and pass 1 store at a time but wanted to know if there is a better way

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  • Writing a docx file to a BLOB using Java 1.4 inside Oracle 10g

    - by Jon Renaut
    I'm trying to generate a blank docx file using Java, add some text, then write it to a BLOB that I can return to our document processing engine (a custom mess of PL/SQL and Java). I have to use the 1.4 JVM inside Oracle 10g, so no Java 1.5 stuff. I don't have a problem writing the docx to a file on my local machine, but when I try to write to BLOB, I'm getting garbage. Am I doing something dumb? Any help is appreciated. Note in the code below, all the get[name]Xml() methods return an org.w3c.dom.Document. public void save(String fileName) throws Exception { ZipOutputStream zos = new ZipOutputStream(new FileOutputStream(fileName)); addEntry(zos, getDocumentXml(), "word/document.xml"); addEntry(zos, getContentTypesXml(), "[Content_Types].xml"); addEntry(zos, getRelsXml(), "_rels/.rels"); zos.flush(); zos.close(); } public java.sql.BLOB save() throws Exception { java.sql.Connection conn = DbUtilities.openConnection(); BLOB outBlob = BLOB.createTemporary(conn, true, BLOB.DURATION_SESSION); outBlob.open(BLOB.MODE_READWRITE); ZipOutputStream zos = new ZipOutputStream(outBlob.setBinaryStream(0L)); addEntry(zos, getDocumentXml(), "word/document.xml"); addEntry(zos, getContentTypesXml(), "[Content_Types].xml"); addEntry(zos, getRelsXml(), "_rels/.rels"); zos.flush(); zos.close(); return outBlob; } private void addEntry(ZipOutputStream zos, Document doc, String fileName) throws Exception { Transformer t = TransformerFactory.newInstance().newTransformer(); ByteArrayOutputStream baos = new ByteArrayOutputStream(); t.transform(new DOMSource(doc), new StreamResult(baos)); ZipEntry ze = new ZipEntry(fileName); byte[] data = baos.toByteArray(); ze.setSize(data.length); zos.putNextEntry(ze); zos.write(data); zos.flush(); zos.closeEntry(); }

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  • In Asp.Net MVC 2 is there a better way to return 401 status codes without getting an auth redirect

    - by Greg Roberts
    I have a portion of my site that has a lightweight xml/json REST API. Most of my site is behind forms auth but only some of my API actions require authentication. I have a custom AuthorizeAttribute for my API that I use to check for certain permissions and when it fails it results in a 401. All is good, except since I'm using forms auth, Asp.net conveniently converts that into a 302 redirect to my login page. I've seen some previous questions that seem a bit hackish to either return a 403 instead or to put some logic in the global.asax protected void Application_EndRequest() that will essentially convert 302 to 401 where it meets whatever criteria. Previous Question Previous Question 2 What I'm doing now is sort of like one of the questions, but instead of checking the Application_EndRequest() for a 302 I make my authorize attribute return 666 which indicates to me that I need to set this to a 401. Here is my code: protected void Application_EndRequest() { if (Context.Response.StatusCode == MyAuthAttribute.AUTHORIZATION_FAILED_STATUS) { //check for 666 - status code of hidden 401 Context.Response.StatusCode = 401; } } Even though this works, my question is there something in Asp.net MVC 2 that would prevent me from having to do this? Or, in general is there a better way? I would think this would come up a lot for anyone doing REST api's or just people that do ajax requests in their controllers. The last thing you want is to do a request and get the content of a login page instead of json.

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  • Core Data: Keypath "objectID" not found in entity

    - by Martin Gordon
    I'm using NSFetchedResultsController with a predicate to load a list of Documents in my application. I want to load all the Documents except the currently active one. I am using Rentzsch's MOGenerator to create a _Document class and then I put all my custom code in the Document subclass. _Document generates an objectID property with type DocumentID. In the class that creates the controller, I set the controller's currentDocID property: controller.currentDocID = self.document.objectID; In the controller itself, I lazy load the fetchedResultsController like this: - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Document" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(objectID != %@)", self.currentDocID]; [fetchRequest setPredicate:predicate]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"dateModified" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:nil cacheName:@"Root"]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; [aFetchedResultsController release]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } When the fetchedResultsController loads, my app crashes with an unhandled exception: *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: 'keypath objectID not found in entity <NSSQLEntity Document id=1>' It's my understanding that all NSManagedObjects have an objectID, whether temporary or permanent. Is this not the case? Any thoughts?

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  • UISplitViewController and complex view heirarchy

    - by Jasconius
    I'm doing an iPad tech demo and I'm running into a serious technical problem. I have an app concept that leverages UISplitViewController, but NOT as the primary controller for the entire app. The app flow could be described roughly as this: Home screen (UIViewController) List-Detail "Catalog" (UISplitViewController) Super Detail Screen (UIViewController but could conceivable also be a child of SplitView). The problem is in the flow between Home and Catalog. Once a UISplitViewController view is added to the UIWindow, it starts to throw hissy fits. The problem can be summarized at this: When a UISplitView generates a popover view, it appears to then be latched to its parent view. Upon removing the UISplitView from the UIWindow subviews, you will get a CoreGraphics exception and the view will fail to be removed. When adding other views (presumably in this case, the home screen to which you are returning), they do not autorotate, instead, the UISplitView, which has failed to be removed due to a CG exception, continues to respond to the rotation instead, causing horrible rendering bugs that can't be just "dealt with". At this point, adding any views, even re-adding the SplitView, causes a cascade of render bugs. I then tried simply to leave the SplitView ever present as the "bottom" view, and keeping adding and removing the Home Screen from on top of it, but this fails as SplitView dominates the Orientation change calls, and Home Screen will not rotate, even if you call [homeScreen becomeFirstResponder] You can't put SplitView into a hierarchy like UINavigationController, you will get an outright runtime error, so that option is off the table. Modals just look bad and are discourages anyway. My presumption at this moment is that the only proper way to deal with this problem is so somehow "disarm" UISplitViewController so that it can be removed from its parent view without throwing an unhandled exception, but I have no idea how. If you want to see an app that does exactly what I need to do, check out GILT Groupe in the iPad app store. They pulled it off, but they seem to have programmed an entire custom view transition set. Help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Help with SqlCeChangeTracking

    - by MusiGenesis
    I'm trying to use a new class in SqlCe 3.5 SP2 called SqlCeChangeTracking. This class (allegedly) lets you turn on change tracking on a table, without using RDA replication or Sync Services. Assuming you have an open SqlCeConnection, you enable change tracking on a table like this: SqlCeChangeTracking tracker = new SqlCeChangeTracking(conn); tracker.EnableTracking(TableName, TrackingKeyType.PrimaryKey, TrackingOptions.All); This appears to work, sort of. When I open the SDF file and view it in SQL Server Management Studio, the table has three additional fields: __sysChangeTxBsn, __sysInsertTxBsn and __sysTrackingContext. According to the sparse documentation, these columns (along with the __sysOCSDeletedRows system table) are used to track changes. The problem is that these three columns always contain NULL values for all rows, no matter what I do. I can add, delete, edit etc. and those columns remain NULL no matter what (and no deleted records ever show up in __sysOCSDeletedRows). I have found virtually no documentation on this class at all, and the promised MSDN API appears non-existent. Anybody know how to use this class?

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  • Faster way to transfer table data from linked server

    - by spender
    After much fiddling, I've managed to install the right ODBC driver and have successfully created a linked server on SQL Server 2008, by which I can access my PostgreSQL db from SQL server. I'm copying all of the data from some of the tables in the PgSQL DB into SQL Server using merge statements that take the following form: with mbRemote as ( select * from openquery(someLinkedDb,'select * from someTable') ) merge into someTable mbLocal using mbRemote on mbLocal.id=mbRemote.id when matched /*edit*/ /*clause below really speeds things up when many rows are unchanged*/ /*can you think of anything else?*/ and not (mbLocal.field1=mbRemote.field1 and mbLocal.field2=mbRemote.field2 and mbLocal.field3=mbRemote.field3 and mbLocal.field4=mbRemote.field4) /*end edit*/ then update set mbLocal.field1=mbRemote.field1, mbLocal.field2=mbRemote.field2, mbLocal.field3=mbRemote.field3, mbLocal.field4=mbRemote.field4 when not matched then insert ( id, field1, field2, field3, field4 ) values ( mbRemote.id, mbRemote.field1, mbRemote.field2, mbRemote.field3, mbRemote.field4 ) WHEN NOT MATCHED BY SOURCE then delete; After this statement completes, the local (SQL Server) copy is fully in sync with the remote (PgSQL server). A few questions about this approach: is it sane? it strikes me that an update will be run over all fields in local rows that haven't necessarily changed. The only prerequisite is that the local and remote id field match. Is there a more fine grained approach/a way of constraining the merge statment to only update rows that have actually changed?

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  • Pivotcache problem using ado recordset into excel

    - by bbenton
    I'm having a problem with runtime error 1004 at the last line. I'm bringing in an access query into excel 2007. I know the recordset is ok as I can see the fields and data. Im not sure about the picotcache was created in the set ptCache line. I see the application, but the index is 0. Code is below... Private Sub cmdPivotTables_Click() Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Dim i As Integer Dim appExcel As Excel.Application Dim wkbTo As Excel.Workbook Dim wksTo As Excel.Worksheet Dim str As String Dim strSQL As String Dim rng As Excel.Range Dim rs As DAO.Recordset Dim db As DAO.Database Dim ptCache As Excel.PivotCache Set db = CurrentDb() 'to handle case where excel is not open On Error GoTo errhandler: Set appExcel = GetObject(, "Excel.Application") 'returns to default excel error handling On Error GoTo 0 appExcel.Visible = True str = FilePathReports & "Reports SCU\SCCUExcelReports.xlsx" 'tests if the workbook is open (using workbookopen functiion) If WorkbookIsOpen("SCCUExcelReports.xlsx", appExcel) Then Set wkbTo = appExcel.Workbooks("SCCUExcelReports.xlsx") wkbTo.Save 'To ensure correct Ratios&Charts is used wkbTo.Close End If Set wkbTo = GetObject(str) wkbTo.Application.Visible = True wkbTo.Parent.Windows("SCCUExcelReports.xlsx").Visible = True Set rs = New ADODB.Recordset strSQL = "SELECT viewBalanceSheetType.AccountTypeCode AS Type, viewBalanceSheetType.AccountGroupName AS AccountGroup, " _ & "viewBalanceSheetType.AccountSubGroupName As SubGroup, qryAmountIncludingAdjustment.BranchCode AS Branch, " _ & "viewBalanceSheetType.AccountNumber, viewBalanceSheetType.AccountName, " _ & "qryAmountIncludingAdjustment.Amount, qryAmountIncludingAdjustment.MonthEndDate " _ & "FROM viewBalanceSheetType INNER JOIN qryAmountIncludingAdjustment ON " _ & "viewBalanceSheetType.AccountID = qryAmountIncludingAdjustment.AccountID " _ & "WHERE (qryAmountIncludingAdjustment.MonthEndDate = GetCurrent()) " _ & "ORDER BY viewBalanceSheetType.AccountTypeSortOrder, viewBalanceSheetType.AccountGroupSortOrder, " _ & "viewBalanceSheetType.AccountNumber;" rs.Open strSQL, CurrentProject.Connection, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic ' Set rs = db.OpenRecordset("qryExcelReportsTrialBalancePT", dbOpenForwardOnly) **'**********problem here Set ptCache = wkbTo.PivotCaches.Create(SourceType:=XlPivotTableSourceType.xlExternal) Set wkbTo.PivotCaches("ptCache").Recordset = rs**

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  • Problem with ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript in WebControl nested in UpdatePanel

    - by Chris
    Hello, I am having what I believe should be a fairly simple problem, but for the life of me I cannot see my problem. The problem is related to ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript, something I have used many times before. The scenario I have is that I have a custom web control that has been inserted into a page. The control (and one or two others) are nested inside an UpdatePanel. They are inserted onto the page onto a PlaceHolder: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="pnlAjax" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="placeholder" runat="server"> </asp:PlaceHolder> ... protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e){ placeholder.Controls.Add(Factory.CreateControl()); base.OnInit(e); } This is the only update panel on the page. The control requires some initial javascript be run for it to work correctly. The control calls: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, GetType(), Guid.NewGuid().ToString(), script, true); and I have also tried: ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(Page, Page.GetType(), Guid.NewGuid().ToString(), script, true); The problem is that the script runs correctly when the page is first displayed, but does not re-run after a partial postback. I have tried the following: Calling RegisterStartupScript from CreateChildControls Calling RegisterStartupScript from OnLoad / OnPreRender Using different combinations of parameters for the first two parameters (in the example above the Control is Page and Type is GetType(), but I have tried using the control itself, etc). I have tried using persistent and new ids (not that I believe this should have a major impact either way). I have used a few breakpoints and so have verified that the Register line is being called correctly. The only thing I have not tried is using the UpdatePanel itself as the Control and Type, as I do not believe the control should be aware of the update panel (and in any case there does not seem to be a good way of getting the update panel?). Can anyone see what I might be doing wrong in the above? Thanks :)

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  • Android: Map Overlay Labels

    - by karnage
    I am building a MapView and I want my custom overlay items to display the name of the location they are marking when the user taps them, like the Android Maps app. I setup the onTap listener and the floating TextView to hold the location name. I still need to set it up so that it redraws the label when the user moves the map, etc. Anyway, I am wondering if I am reinventing the wheel here. Is there a built-in method I am unaware of? I would think that most implementations of MapView have labels. For reference, my implementation so far: in map xml: <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/mapBubbleWrap" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentTop="true"> <TextView android:id="@+id/mapBubble" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:visibility="gone" android:background="#ffffff" android:textColor="#ff0000"/> </LinearLayout> in my extended ItemizedOverlay: public boolean onTap(int index) { this.setFocus( mOverlays.get(index) ); return true; } in my Activity onFocus: public void onFocusChanged( ItemizedOverlay overlay, OverlayItem item ) { if( item != null) { mapBubble.setText(item.getTitle()); Point newPoint = mapView.getProjection().toPixels(item.getPoint(), null); mapBubbleWrap.setPadding(newPoint.x, newPoint.y-10, 0, 0); mapBubble.setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); } }

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  • C# WPF XAML DataTable binding to relation

    - by LnDCobra
    I have 2 tables: COmpany {CompanyID, CompanyName} Deal {CompanyID, Value} And I have a listbox: <ListBox Name="Deals" Height="100" Width="420" Margin="0,20,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Visibility="Visible" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding}" SelectionChanged="Deals_SelectionChanged"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK.CompanyName}" FontWeight="Bold" /> <TextBlock Text=" -> TGS -> " /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding BuyFrom}" FontWeight="Bold" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> As you can see, I want to display the CompanyName rather then the ID which is a foreign Key. The relation "companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK" exists, as in Deals_SelectionChanged I can access companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK property of the Deals row, and I also can access the CompanyName propert of that row. Is the reason why this is not working because XAML binding uses the [] indexer? Rather than properties on the CompanyRows in my DataTable? At the moment im getting values such as - TGS - 3 - TGS - 4 Any ideas? Edit: I still can't get this to work, What would be the best way to accomplish this? Make a converter to convert foreign keys using Table being referenced as custom parameter. Create Table View for each table? This would be long winded as I have quite a large number of tables that have foreign keys.

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  • ASP.Net FormsAuthentication Redirect Loses the cookie between Redirect and Application_AuthenticateR

    - by Joel Etherton
    I have a FormsAuthentication cookie that is persistent and works independently in a development, test, and production environment. I have a user that can authenticate, the user object is created, the authentication cookie is added to the response: 'Custom object to grab the TLD from the url authCookie.Domain = myTicketModule.GetTopLevelDomain(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_HOST")) FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(authTicket.Name, False) Response.SetCookie(authCookie) The user gets processed a little bit to check for a first time login, security questions, etc, and is then redirected with the following tidbit: Session.Add("ForceRedirect", "/FirstTimeLogin.aspx") Response.Redirect("~/FirstTimeLogin.aspx", True) With a debug break, I can verify that the cookie collection holds both a cookie not related to authentication that I set for a different purpose and the formsauthentication cookie. Then the next step in the process occurs at the ApplicationAuthenticateRequest in the global.asax: Sub Application_AuthenticateRequest(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Dim formsCookieName As String = myConfigurationManager.AppSettings("FormsCookieName") Dim authCookie As HttpCookie = Request.Cookies(formsCookieName) At this point, for this ONE user authCookie is nothing. I have 15,000 other users who are not impacted in this manner. However, for one user the cookie just vanishes without a trace. I've seen this before with w3wp.exe exceptions, state server exceptions and other IIS process related exceptions, but I'm getting no exceptions in the event log. w3wp.exe is not crashing, the state server has some timeouts but they appear unrelated (as verified by timestamps) and it only happens to this one user on this one domain (this code is used across 2 different TLDs with approximately 10 other subdomains). One avenue I'm investigating is that the cookie might just be too large. I would think that there would be a check for the size of the cookie going into the response, and I wouldn't think it would impact it this way. Any ideas why the request might dumping the cookie? NOTE: The secondary cookie I mentioned that I set also gets dumped (and it's very tiny). EDIT-NOTE: The session token is NOT lost when this happens. However, since the authentication cookie is lost, it is ignored and replaced on a subsequent login.

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  • JQuery Validate: only takes the last addMethod?

    - by Neuquino
    Hi, I need to add multiple custom validations to one form. I have 2 definitions of addMethod. But it only takes the last one... here is the code. $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("badSelectionB",function(){ var comboValues = []; for(var i=0;i<6;i++){ var id="comision_B_"+(i+1); var comboValue=document.getElementById(id).value; if($.inArray(comboValue,comboValues) == -1){ comboValues.push(comboValue); }else{ return false; } } return true; },"Seleccione una única prioridad por comisión."); $.validator.addMethod("badSelectionA",function(){ var comboValues = []; for(var i=0;i<6;i++){ var id="comision_A_"+(i+1); var comboValue=document.getElementById(id).value; if($.inArray(comboValue,comboValues) == -1){ comboValues.push(comboValue); }else{ return false; } } return true; },"Seleccione una única prioridad por comisión."); $("#inscripcionForm").validate( { rules : { nombre : "required", apellido : "required", dni : { required: true, digits: true, }, mail : { required : true, email : true, }, comision_A_6: { badSelectionA:true, }, comision_B_6: { badSelectionB: true, } }, messages : { nombre : "Ingrese su nombre.", apellido : "Ingrese su apellido.", dni : { required: "Ingrese su dni.", digits: "Ingrese solo números.", }, mail : { required : "Ingrese su correo electrónico.", email: "El correo electrónico ingresado no es válido." } }, }); }); Do you have any clue of what is happening? Thanks in advance,

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