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• Extensionless URLs in IIS 6

  - by Jason Marsell

  My client has asked me to build a personalized URL system so that they can send out really short URLs in postcards to customers like this: www.client.com/JasonSmith03 www.client.com/TonyAdams With these URLs, I need IIS 6 to trap the incoming request and pass that “JasonSmith03” token to my database to determine which landing page to redirect them to. I’d love to use an HttpHandler or HttpModule but they both look like they require an file extension (.aspx) in the URL. Wildcard mapping will chew up every incoming request and that’s ridiculous. ISAPI filters are just text routing files, so I can’t employ logic to call the database. According to Scott Guthrie, this would be cake if I had IIS 7, but I don’t. Can this be done using MVC? I’ve been working with MVP for the last few years, so I haven’t done any MVC and routing. I thought I remembered that MVC has the ability to use REST-style extensionless URLs. I’d be more than happy to have these personalized URLs land on a site that’s built in MVC, if it will work. Thank you!

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• Saving multiple objects in a single call in rails

  - by CaptnCraig

  I have a method in rails that is doing something like this: a = Foo.new("bar") a.save b = Foo.new("baz") b.save ... x = Foo.new("123", :parent_id => a.id) x.save ... z = Foo.new("zxy", :parent_id => b.id) z.save The problem is this takes longer and longer the more entities I add. I suspect this is because it has to hit the database for every record. Since they are nested, I know I can't save the children before the parents are saved, but I would like to save all of the parents at once, and then all of the children. It would be nice to do something like: a = Foo.new("bar") b = Foo.new("baz") ... saveall(a,b,...) x = Foo.new("123", :parent_id => a.id) ... z = Foo.new("zxy", :parent_id => b.id) saveall(x,...,z) That would do it all in only two database hits. Is there an easy way to do this in rails, or am I stuck doing it one at a time?

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• Search book by title, and author

  - by Swoosh

  I got a table with columns: author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle Multiple users are inserting in the database, through an import, and I'd like to avoid duplicates. So I'm trying to do something like this: I have a record in the db: First Name: "Isaac" Last Name: "Assimov" Title: "I, Robot" If the user tries to add it again, it would be basically a non-split-text (would not be split up into author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle) So it would basically look like this: "Isaac Asimov - I Robot" or "Asimov, Isaac - I Robot" or "I Robot by Isaac Asimov" You see where I am getting at? (I cannot force the user to split up all the books into into author firstname, author lastname, and booktitle, and I don't even like the idea to force the user, because it's not too user-friendly) What is the best way (in SQL) to compare all this possible bookdata scenarios to what I have in the database, not to add the same book twice. I was thinking about a possibility of suggesting the user: "is THIS the book you are trying to add?" (imagine a list instead of the THIS word, just like on stackoverflow - ask question - Related Questions. I was thinking about soundex and maybe even the like operators, but so far i didn't get the results i was hoping.

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• Problems by inserting values from textboxes

  - by simon

  I'm trying to insert the current date to the database and i allways get the message(when i press the button on the form to save to my access database), that the data type is incorect in the conditional expression. the code: string conString = "Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;" + "Data Source=C:\\Users\\Simon\\Desktop\\save.mdb"; OleDbConnection empConnection = new OleDbConnection(conString); string insertStatement = "INSERT INTO obroki_save " + "([ID_uporabnika],[ID_zivila],[skupaj_kalorij]) " + "VALUES (@ID_uporabnika,@ID_zivila,@skupaj_kalorij)"; OleDbCommand insertCommand = new OleDbCommand(insertStatement, empConnection); insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@ID_uporabnika", OleDbType.Char).Value = users.iDTextBox.Text; insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@ID_zivila", OleDbType.Char).Value = iDTextBox.Text; insertCommand.Parameters.Add("@skupaj_kalorij", OleDbType.Char).Value = textBox1.Text; empConnection.Open(); try { int count = insertCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (OleDbException ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); } finally { empConnection.Close(); textBox1.Clear(); textBox2.Clear(); textBox3.Clear(); textBox4.Clear(); textBox5.Clear(); } I have now cut out the date,( i made access paste the date ), still there is the same problem. Is the first line ok? users.idtextbox.text? Please help !

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• Why isn't this simple PHP/MySQL code working?

  - by Sammy

  I am very new to php/mysql and this is causing me to loose hairs, I am trying to build a multi level site navigation. In this part of my script I am readying the sub and parent categories coming from a form for insertion into the database: // get child categories $catFields = $_POST['categories']; if (is_array($catFields)) { $categories = $categories; for ($i=0; $i<count($catFields); $i++) { $categories = $categories . $catFields[$i]"; } } // get parent category $select = mysql_query ("SELECT parent FROM categories WHERE id = $categories"); while ($return = mysql_fetch_assoc($select)) { $parentId = $return['parent']; } The first part of my script works fine, it grabs all the categories that the user has chosen to assign a post by checking the checkboxes in a form and readies it for insertion into the database. But the second part does not work and I can't understand why. I am trying to match a category with a parent that is stored in it's own table, but it returns nothing even though the categories all have parents. Can anyone tell me why this is? p.s. The $categories variable contains the sub category id.

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• Updating a local sqlite db that is used for local metadata & caching from an service?

  - by Pharaun

  I've searched through the site and haven't found a question/answer that quite answer my question, the closest one I found was: Syncing objects between two disparate systems best approach. Anyway to begun, because there is no RSS feeds available, I'm screen scrapping a webpage, hence it does a fetch then it goes through the webpage to scrap out all of the information that I'm interested in and dumps that information into a sqlite database so that I can query the information at my leisure without doing repeat fetching from the website. However I'm also storing various metadata on the data itself that is stored in the sqlite db, such as: have I looked at the data, is the data new/old, bookmark to a chunk of data (Think of it as a collection of unrelated data, and the bookmark is just a pointer to where I am in processing/reading of the said data). So right now my current problem is trying to figure out how to update the local sqlite database with new data and/or changed data from the website in a manner that is effective and straightforward. Here's my current idea: Download the page itself Create a temporary table for the parsed data to go into Do a comparison between the official and the temporary table and copy updates and/or new information to the official table This process seems kind of complicated because I would have to figure out how to determine if the data in the temporary table is new, updated, or unchanged. So I am wondering if there isn't a better approach or if anyone has any suggestion on how to architecture/structure such system?

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• What do these C# auto-generated table adapter commands do? e.g. UPDATE/INSERT followed by a SELECT

  - by RickL

  I'm working with a legacy application which I'm trying to change so that it can work with SQL CE, whilst it was originally written against SQL Server. The problem I am getting now is that when I try to do dataAdapter.Update, SQL CE complains that it is not expecting the SELECT keyword in the command text. I believe this is because SQL CE does not support batch SELECT statements. The auto-generated table adapter command looks like this... this._adapter.InsertCommand.CommandText = @"INSERT INTO [Table] ([Field1], [Field2]) VALUES (@Value1, @Value2); SELECT Field1, Field2 FROM Table WHERE (Field1 = @Value1)"; What is it doing? It looks like it is inserting new records from the datatable into the database, and then reading that record back from the database into the datatable? What's the point of that? Can I just go through the code and remove all these SELECT statements? Or is there an easier way to solve my problem of wanting to use these data adapters with SQL CE? I cannot regenerate these table adapters, as the people who knew how to have long since left.

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• Multiple threads modifying a collection in Java??

  - by posdef

  Hi, The project I am working on requires a whole bunch of queries towards a database. In principle there are two types of queries I am using: read from excel file, check for a couple of parameters and do a query for hits in the database. These hits are then registered as a series of custom classes. Any hit may (and most likely will) occur more than once so this part of the code checks and updates the occurrence in a custom list implementation that extends ArrayList. for each hit found, do a detail query and parse the output, so that the classes created in (I) get detailed info. I figured I would use multiple threads to optimize time-wise. However I can't really come up with a good way to solve the problem that occurs with the collection these items are stored in. To elaborate a little bit; throughout the execution objects are supposed to be modified by both (I) and (II). I deliberately didn't c/p any code, as it would be big chunks of code to make any sense.. I hope it make some sense with the description above. Thanks,

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• Android - Lifecycle and saving an Instance State questions

  - by The Salt

  So within my application is a form for creating a new user, with relevant details and information about the user. There's no problems there, it's just what happens when the user leaves the activity without pressing the confirm button. Here's what I want to do: If the user presses the back button, attempt to save all the data to the database and inform the user. If the activity is interrupted (ie by a phone call), save all the data into a temporary location so when the activity is at the top of the stack again, nothing appears to have changed (but the data still hasn't yet been saved to the database). If the activity gets killed for more resources when in the background, do the same as point 2 above (ie when the activity is started again, it appears that nothing has changed). If the whole application is started again (by clicking on the icon again) and there is temporary data stored from either points 2 or 3 above, navigate to the "create user" activity and display data as if nothings changed. Here's how I'm currently trying to do it: Use onDestroy() and isFinishing() functions to find when the activity is being killed, to cover point 1 above (to then try and save all data). Save all data with onSaveInstanceState into a bundle (to cover point 2 above) Does the bundle created with onSaveInstanceState survive the activity being killed for more resources, so when its recreated the previous state can be retrieved (as in point 3 above)? No idea how to implement point 4. Any help would be massively appreciated. Cheers!

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• Copy SQL Server data from one server to another on a schedule

  - by rwmnau

  I have a pair of SQL Servers at different webhosts, and I'm looking for a way to periodically update the one server using the other. Here's what I'm looking for: As automated as possible - ideally, without any involvement on my part once it's set up. Pushes a number of databases, in their entirely (including any schema changes) from one server to the other Freely allows changes on the source server without breaking my process. For this reason, I don't want to use replication, as I'd have to break it every time there's an update on the source, and then recreate the publication and subscription One database is about 4GB in size and contains binary data. I'm not sure if there's a way to export this to a script, but it would be a mammoth file if I did. Originally, I was thinking of writing something that takes a scheduled full backup of each database, FTPs the backups from one server to the other once they're done, and then the new server picks it up and restores it. The only downside I can see to this is that there's no way to know that the backups are done before starting to transfer them - can these backups be done synchronously? Also, the server being refreshes is our test server, so if there's some downtime involved in moving the data, that's fine. Does anybody out there have a better idea, or is what I'm currently considering the best non-replication way to go? Thanks for your help, everybody. UPDATE: I ended up designing a custom solution to get this done using BAT files, 7Zip,command line FTP, and OSQL, so it runs in a completely automatic way and aggregates the data from a dozen servers across the country. I've detailed the steps in a blog entry. Thanks for all your input!

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• PHP Serialize Function - Adding serialized data to mysql and then fetch and display

  - by Abhilash Shukla

  I want to know whether the PHP serialize function is 100% secure, also if we store serialized data into a database and want to do something after fetching it, will it be a nice way. For example:- I have a website with different user privileges, now i want to store the permissions settings for a particular privilege to my database (This data i want to store is to be done through php serialize function), now when a user logs in i want to fetch this data and set the privilege for the customer. Now i am ok to do this thing, what i want to know is, whether it is the best way to do or something more efficient can be done. Also, i was going through php manual and found this code, can anybody explain me a bit what's happening in this code:- [Specially why base64_encode is used?] <?php mySerialize( $obj ) { return base64_encode(gzcompress(serialize($obj))); } myUnserialize( $txt ) { return unserialize(gzuncompress(base64_decode($txt))); } ?> Also if somebody can provide me their own code to show me to do this thing in the most efficient manner. Thanks.

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• Is there a way to programmatically tell if particular block of memory was not freed by FastMM?

  - by Wodzu

  I am trying to detect if a block of memory was not freed. Of course, the manager tells me that by dialog box or log file, but what if I would like to store results in a database? For example I would like to have in a database table a names of routines which allocated given blocks. After reading a documentation of FastMM I know that since version 4.98 we have a possibility to be notified by manager about memory allocations, frees and reallocations as they occur. For example OnDebugFreeMemFinish event is passing to us a PFullDebugBlockHeader which contains useful informations. There is one thing that PFullDebugBlockHeader is missing - the information if the given block was freed by the application. Unless OnDebugFreeMemFinish is called only for not freed blocks? This is which I do not know and would like to find out. The problem is that even hooking into OnDebugFreeMemFinish event I was unable to find out if the block was freed or not. Here is an example: program MemLeakTest; {$APPTYPE CONSOLE} uses FastMM4, ExceptionLog, SysUtils; procedure MemFreeEvent(APHeaderFreedBlock: PFullDebugBlockHeader; AResult: Integer); begin //This is executed at the end, but how should I know that this block should be freed //by application? Unless this is executed ONLY for not freed blocks. end; procedure Leak; var MyObject: TObject; begin MyObject := TObject.Create; end; begin OnDebugFreeMemFinish := MemFreeEvent; Leak; end. What I am missing is the callback like: procedure OnMemoryLeak(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader); After browsing the source of FastMM I saw that there is a procedure: procedure LogMemoryLeakOrAllocatedBlock(APointer: PFullDebugBlockHeader; IsALeak: Boolean); which could be overriden, but maybe there is an easier way?

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• How do I view the full content of a text or varchar(MAX) column in SQL Server 2008 Management Studio

  - by adamjford

  In this live SQL Server 2008 (build 10.0.1600) database, there's an Events table, which contains a text column named Details. (Yes, I realize this should actually be a varchar(MAX) column, but whoever set this database up did not do it that way.) This column contains very large logs of exceptions and associated JSON data that I'm trying to access through SQL Server Management Studio, but whenever I copy the results from the grid to a text editor, it truncates it at 43679 characters. I've read on various locations on the Internet that you can set your Maximum Characters Retrieved for XML Data in Tools > Options > Query Results > SQL Server > Results To Grid to Unlimited, and then perform a query such as this: select Convert(xml, Details) from Events where EventID = 13920 (Note that the data is column is not XML at all. CONVERTing the column to XML is merely a workaround I found from Googling that someone else has used to get around the limit SSMS has from retrieving data from a text or varchar(MAX) column.) However, after setting the option above, running the query, and clicking on the link in the result, I still get the following error: Unable to show XML. The following error happened: Unexpected end of file has occurred. Line 5, position 220160. One solution is to increase the number of characters retrieved from the server for XML data. To change this setting, on the Tools menu, click Options. So, any idea on how to access this data? Would converting the column to varchar(MAX) fix my woes?

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• MySQL multidimensional arrays...

  - by jay

  What is the best way to store data that is dynamic in nature using MySQL? Let's say I have a table in which one item is "dynamic". For some entries I need to store one value, but for others it could be one hundred values. For example let's say I have the following simple table: CREATE TABLE manager ( name char(50), worker_1_name(50), worker_2_name(50), ... worker_N_name(50) ); Clearly, this is not an ideal way to set up a database. Because I have to accommodate the largest group that a manager could potentially have, I am wasting a lot of space in the database. What I would prefer is to have a table that I can use as a member of another table (like I would do in C++ through inheritance) that can be used by the "manager" table to handle the variable number of employees. It might look something like this. CREATE TABLE manager ( name char(50), underlings WORKERS ); CREATE TABLE WORKERS ( name char(50), ); I would like to be able to add a variable number of workers to each manager. Is this possible or am I constrained to enumerating all the possible number of employees even though I will use the full complement only rarely?

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• Using Rails, problem testing has_many relationship

  - by east

  The summary is that I've code that works when manually testing, but isn't doing what I would think it should when trying to build an automated test. Here are the details: I've two models: Payment and PaymentTranscation. class Payment ... has_many :transactions, :class_name => 'PaymentTransaction' class PaymentTranscation ... belongs_to payment The PaymentTransaction is only created in a Payment model method, like so: def pay_up ... transactions.create!(params...) ... end I've manually tested this code, inspected the database, and everything works well. The failing automated test looks like this: def test_pay_up purchase = Payment.new(...) assert purchase.save assert_equal purchase.state, :initialized.to_s assert purchase.pay_up # this should create a new PaymentTransaction... assert_equal purchase.state, :succeeded.to_s assert_equal purchase.transactions.count, 1 # FAILS HERE; transactions is an empty array end If I step through the code, it's clear that the PaymentTransaction is getting created correctly (though I can't see it in the database because everything is in a testing transaction). What I can't figure out is why transactions is returning an empty array in the test when I know a valid PaymentTransaction is getting created. Anybody have some suggestions? Thanks in advance, east

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• server caching problem on ASP.NET MVC page

  - by Rita

  Hi I have server caching error on ASP.NET MVC Pages. The scenario is like this. I have two applications (1).External Website and (2).Internal Adminsite, both pointing to the same Database. There is one page called EditProfile Page on the External Website that registered customer can update his profile information like Firstname, Lastname and Address…etc. Similarly there is similar functionality on the Internal Adminsite on the page called CustomerProfile Page where the Site Admin can update all these fields. When the user updates the profile information from the Adminsite, those updates are not reflecting back to the Website. Now I tried restarting the Website on IIS and that din’t help. Again I tried both restarting the Website on IIS and opening a new browser, then those updates are reflecting back. I am wondering how I can come out of this caching problem without restarting the site and open a new browser window everytime? Are there any IIS settings that could help? This caching is happening only on couple of tables only and all the updates are showing up in the database. Appreciate your responses. Thanks

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• SQL Server becomes slow after restart

  - by Tobi DM

  We use SQL Server 2005 on an Windwos Server 2008. Ther Server has 48 GB RAM. SQL Server is configured to use 40 GB RAM. There is only one database hosted (About 70 GB). The only app beside SQL Server is our App-Server which connects the clients to the database. Now we encounter the following problem: After a restart of the server our the performance is great. The server grabs the 40 GB RAM wich it is allowed to and then runs fast as hell. But after about 4 weeks the system becomes slower and slower. The execution of statements (seen in the profiler) is raising slowly. But I cannot see that there is something going wrong on the server. CPU usage is at about 20% I/O also seems to be no Problem The process monitor does also not show that there are strange apps or something like that. Eventlog does also have no interessting messages No open transactions or blockings to see We tried already the following things without effect: Droped the cache by using the statements DBCC FreeProcCache DBCC FREESYSTEMCACHE('ALL') DBCC DropCleanbuffers Restarted the Appserver we are using. Restart the sql server service But nothing did help exept restarting the whole server. Any ideas?

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• Using Client Application Services in windows forms not working

  - by Nickson

  i am trying to implement asp.net membership, profile and role based security in a windows application by configuring client Application Services for my windows forms application. I have followed both these articles http://www.dotnetbips.com/articles/e863aa3c-0dd6-468d-bd35-120a334c5030.aspx and http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb546195.aspx step-by-step but for some reason i can't get the authentication working. I have a deployed intranet asp.net website which is already using an asp.net membership database for authentication and want to use that same database for authenitcation in my windows forms application. The site URL is http://myServer_Name:My_Port and i am specifying that URL as the both the Authentication service location and Roles service location in the windows application services property tab. But in the windows application login form, when i say Dim msg As String = "Welcome " If Not Membership.ValidateUser(UsernameTextBox.Text), PasswordTextBox.Text)) Then MessageBox.Show("Invalid User ID or Password!") Else msg = msg + UsernameTextBox.Text End If i get my "Invalid User ID or Password!" message even when i supply a valid user name with the corresponding password. i am able to login with the same credentials from the asp.net site. How can i test if the Authentication service location is being reached from the windows application?? Or what other information can i provide here such that one is able to help me get this working??

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• multithreading issue

  - by vbNewbie

  I have written a multithreaded crawler and the process is simply creating threads and having them access a list of urls to crawl. They then access the urls and parse the html content. All this seems to work fine. Now when I need to write to tables in a database is when I experience issues. I have 2 declared arraylists that will contain the content each thread parse. The first arraylist is simply the rss feed links and the other arraylist contains the different posts. I then use a for each loop to iterate one while sequentially incrementing the other and writing to the database. My problem is that each time a new thread accesses one of the lists the content is changed and this affects the iteration. I tried using nested loops but it did not work before and this works fine using a single thread.I hope this makes sense. Here is my code: SyncLock dlock For Each l As String In links finallinks.Add(l) Next End SyncLock SyncLock dlock For Each p As String In posts finalposts.Add(p) Next End SyncLock ... Dim i As Integer = 0 SyncLock dlock For Each rsslink As String In finallinks postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 finallinks and finalposts are the two arraylists. I did not include the rest of the code which shows the threads working but this is the essential part where my error occurs which is basically here postlink = finalposts.Item(i) i = i + 1 ERROR: index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection Is there an alternative?

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• Why does Hibernate ignore the JPA2 standardized properties in my persistence.xml?

  - by Ophidian

  I have an extremely simple web application running in Tomcat using Spring 3.0.1, Hibernate 3.5.1, JPA 2, and Derby. I am defining all of my database connectivity in persistence.xml and merely using Spring for dependency injection. I am using embedded Derby as my database. Everything works correctly when I define the driver and url properties in persistence.xml in the classic Hibernate manner as thus: <property name="hibernate.connection.driver_class" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="hibernate.connection.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> The problems occur when I switch my configuration to the JPA2 standardized properties as thus: <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.driver" value="org.apache.derby.jdbc.EmbeddedDriver"/> <property name="javax.persistence.jdbc.url" value="jdbc:derby:webdb;create=true"/> When using the JPA2 property keys, the application bails hard with the following exception: java.lang.UnsupportedOperationException: The user must supply a JDBC connection Does anyone know why this is failing? NOTE: I have copied the javax... property strings straight from the Hibernate reference documentation, so a typo is extremely unlikely.

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• Can I use a specific model from within a behavior in CakePHP?

  - by Paul Willy

  I'm trying to write a behavior that will give my models access to a simple workflow engine I've devised. The workflow engine itself works as a CakePHP model, with workflow data stored in the database just as any other model data is stored. Basically what I want to do is have the behavior use the workflow model whenever an action is called on the base model. For example, if the edit() action is executed for Posts, then the Post (with the behavior attached) will trigger the workflow behavior with its own model name, action, and id as arguments (e.g. [Post, edit, 1]). Then the behavior will invoke the functionality of the Workflow model, which has a record for what to do when edit is run on Posts (e.g. send e-mail to users who are subscribed to that post) and will carry that out. My question is, what is the proper way to invoke model/controller methods from within the behavior? The model to be used from within the behavior will always be Workflow, but the behavior should be usable from basically any model (aside from Workflow itself). I know I could run SQL queries directly from the behavior, but of course this is not the Cake way :-) Or, am I going about this in the wrong way? I want to store a certain amount of logic in the database so that it is easily configurable by different users, and not have endless configuration checks within the model/controller logic itself so that workflow steps can be easily added/changed/removed in the future.

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• Multi-level shop, xml or sql. best practice?

  - by danrichardson

  Hello, i have a general "best practice" question regarding building a multi-level shop, which i hope doesn't get marked down/deleted as i personally think it's quite a good "subjective" question. I am a developer in charge (in most part) of maintaining and evolving a cms system and associated front-end functionality. Over the past half year i have developed a multiple level shop system so that an infinite level of categories may exist down into a product level and all works fine. However over the last week or so i have questioned by own methods in front-end development and the best way to show the multi-level data structure. I currently use a sql server database (2000) and pull out all the shop levels and then process them into an enumerable typed list with child enumerable typed lists, so that all levels are sorted. This in my head seems quite process heavy, but we're not talking about thousands of rows, generally only 1-500 rows maybe. I have been toying with the idea recently of storing the structure in an XML document (as well as the database) and then sending last modified headers when serving/requesting the document for, which would then be processed as/when nessecary with an xsl(t) document - which would be processed server side. This is quite a handy, reusable method of storing the data but does it have more overheads in the fact im opening and closing files? And also the xml will require a bit of processing to pull out blocks of xml if for instance i wanted to show two level mid way through the tree for a side menu. I use the above method for sitemap purposes so there is currently already code i have built which does what i require, but unsure what the best process is to go about. Maybe a hybrid method which pulls out the data, sorts it and then makes an xml document/stream (XDocument/XmlDocument) for xsl processing is a good way? - This is the way i currently make the cms work for the shop. So really (and thanks for sticking with me on this), i am just wandering which methods other people use or recommend as being the best/most logical way of doing things. Thanks Dan

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• Why does a change of Session State provider lead to an ASPx page yielding garbage?

  - by Rory Becker

  I have an aspnet webapp which has worked very well up until now. I was recently asked to explore ways of making it scale better. I found that seperation of database and Webapp would help. Further I was told that if I changed my session providing mechanism to SQLServer, I would be able to duplicate the Web Stack to several machines which could each call back to the state server allowing the load to be distirbuted better. This sounds logical. So I created an ASPState database using ASPNet_RegSQL.exe as detailed in many locations across the web and changed the web.config on my app from: <sessionState mode="InProc" cookieless="false" timeout="20" /> To: <sessionState mode="SQLServer" sqlConnectionString="Server=SomeSQLServer;user=SomeUser;password=SomePassword" cookieless="false" timeout="20" /> Then I addressed my app, which presented me with its logon screen and I duly logged in. Once in I was presented, not with the page I was expecting, but with: I can change the sessionstate back and forth. This problem goes away and then comes back based on which set of configuration I use. Why is this happening?

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• Exec problem in SQL Server 2005

  - by IordanTanev

  Hi, I have the situation where i have two databases with same structure. The first have some data in its data tables. I need to create a script that will transfer the data from the first database to the second. I have created this script. DECLARE @table_name nvarchar(MAX), @query nvarchar(MAX) DECLARE @table_cursor CURSOR SET @table_cursor = CURSOR FAST_FORWARD FOR SELECT TABLE_NAME FROM INFORMATION_SCHEMA.TABLES OPEN @table_cursor FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name WHILE @@FETCH_STATUS = 0 BEGIN SET @query = 'INSERT INTO ' + @table_name + ' SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.' + @table_name print @query exec @query FETCH NEXT FROM @table_cursor INTO @table_name END CLOSE @table_cursor DEALLOCATE @table_cursor The problem is that when I run the script the "print @query" statement prints statement like this INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MyDataBase.dbo.table When I copy this and run it from Management studio it works fine. But when the script tries to run it with exec I get this error Msg 911, Level 16, State 1, Line 21 Could not locate entry in sysdatabases for database 'INSERT INTO table SELECT * FROM MPDEV090314'. No entry found with that name. Make sure that the name is entered correctly. Hope someone can tell me whot is wront with this. Best Regards, Iordan Tanev

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• Find out which row caused the error

  - by Felipe Fiali

  I have a big fat query that's written dynamically to integrate some data. Basically what it does is query some tables, join some other ones, treat some data, and then insert it into a final table. The problem is that there's too much data, and we can't really trust the sources, because there could be some errored or inconsistent data. For example, I've spent almost an hour looking for an error while developing using a customer's database because somewhere in the middle of my big fat query there was an error converting some varchar to datetime. It turned out to be that they had some sales dating '2009-02-29', an out-of-range date. And yes, I know. Why was that stored as varchar? Well, the source database has 3 columns for dates, 'Month', 'Day' and 'Year'. I have no idea why it's like that, but still, it is. But how the hell would I treat that, if the source is not trustable? I can't HANDLE exceptions, I really need that it comes up to another level with the original message, but I wanted to provide some more info, so that the user could at least try to solve it before calling us. So I thought about displaying to the user the row number, or some ID that would at least give him some idea of what record he'd have to correct. That's also a hard job because there will be times when the integration will run up to 80000 records. And in an 80000 records integration, a single dummy error message: 'The conversion of a varchar data type to a datetime data type resulted in an out-of-range datetime value' means nothing at all. So any idea would be appreciated. Oh I'm using SQL Server 2005 with Service Pack 3.

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