Search Results

Search found 19878 results on 796 pages for 'multiple dispatch'.

Page 664/796 | < Previous Page | 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671  | Next Page >

  • How can I access master page text box from jquery file?

    - by stackuser1
    In my master page i've a textbox. <asp:TextBox ID="SearchTextBox" runat="server" class="searchtxtbox" onfocus="HideSearchWaterMark();" Text="Search" onblur="ShowSearchWaterMark(this);" /> I added jquery references in code behind. TextBox SearchTextBox = this.FindControl("SearchTextBox") as TextBox; StringBuilder objStringBuilder = new StringBuilder(); objStringBuilder.Append("<script type=\"text/javascript\" language=\"javascript\">\n"); objStringBuilder.AppendFormat("var searchTextBox = '{0}';\n", SearchTextBox.ClientID); objStringBuilder.Append("</script>\n"); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(GetType(), "RegisterVariables", objStringBuilder.ToString()); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/Search.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/Scripts/jquery-1.4.2.js")); this.Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(this.GetType(), "Global", this.ResolveClientUrl("~/Resources/TagsScripts/jquery.autocomplete.js")); in Search.js i've the following methods to access the text box of master page: $(document).ready(function () { $("#" + searchTextBox).autocomplete("Handlers/GenericHandler.ashx?tgt=12", { multiple: true, multipleSeparator: ";", mustMatch: false, autoFill: true }); }); function HideSearchWaterMark() { var control = $("#" + searchTextBox); if (control[0].className == "searchtxtbox ac_input") control[0].value = ""; control[0].className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } function ShowSearchWaterMark(tagsTextBox) { if (searchTextBox.value.length == 0) { searchTextBox.value = "Search"; searchTextBox.className = "searchtxtbox ac_input"; } When i run my application i'm getting object reference not set error. Please tell me where i need to change my code.

    Read the article

  • Storing PLSQL stored-procedure values in Oracle memory caches for extended periods

    - by Ira Baxter
    I am collecting runtime profiling data from PLSQL stored procedures. The data is collected as certain stored procedures execute, but it needs to accumululate across multiple executions of those procedures. To minimize overhead, I'd like to store that profiling data in some PLSQL-accessable Oracle memory-resident storage somewhere for the duration of the data collection interval, and then dump out the accumulated values. The data collection interval might be seconds or hours; its ok not to store this data across system boots. Something like session state in web servers would do. What are my choices for storing such data? The only method I know about are contexts in dbms_sessions: procedure set_ctx (value in varchar8) as begin dbms_session.set_context ( 'Test_Ctx', 'AccumulatedValue', value, NULL, 'ProfilerSessionId' ); end set_ctx; This works, but takes some 50 milliseconds(!) per update to the accumulated value. What I'm hoping for is a way to access/store an array of values in some Oracle memory using vanilla PLSQL statements, with access times typical of array accesses made to package-local arrays.

    Read the article

  • a floating toolbar in WTL

    - by freefallr
    I've created a multimedia app that uses DirectShow to display multiple media streams simultaneously. The app is a WTL MDI application. For video windows, I use a CWindowImpl derived class - one per CChildFrame. I'd like to add controls to the video windows (volume ctrls etc). I'd initially thought about adding a slider (volume) control and a couple of buttons to a context menu - but later thought that this might not be the best approach. I was looking at MS Word 2007 - which has a floating toolbar that allows you to change options on highlighted text. I'd like to implement a similar floating toolbar for the video controls. I googled around a bit and found an old post about floating toolbars in WTL. The response was - for a floating toolbar, create a popup window and make it's parent the main window. I think that this sounds like a reasonable approach. my questions: Is this a good approach, or is there a more standard approach for a floating toolbar now in WTL? Should I make the toolbar a child of the video window or the CChildFrame that contains the video window, in order to ensure that it always remains on top of the video? How can I implement transparency in the floating toolbar, as in the floating toolbar in MS word?

    Read the article

  • Get id when inserting new row using TableAdapter.Update on a file based database

    - by phq
    I have a database table with one field, called ID, being an auto increment integer. Using a TableAdapter I can read and modify existing rows as well as create new ones. However if I try to modify a newly inserted row I get an DBConcurrencyException: OleDbConnection conn = new OleDbConnection(@"Provider=Microsoft.Jet.OLEDB.4.0;Data Source=Shift.mdb;Persist Security Info=True"); ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter shiftTA = new ShiftDataSetTableAdapters.ShiftTableAdapter(); shiftTA.Connection = conn; ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable table = new ShiftDataSet.ShiftDataTable(); ShiftDataSet.ShiftRow row = table.NewShiftRow(); row.Name = "life"; table.Rows.Add(row); shiftTA.Update(row); // row.ID == -1 row.Name = "answer"; // <-- all fine up to here shiftTA.Update(row); // DBConcurrencyException: 0 rows affected Separate question, is there any static type of the NewShiftRow() method I can use so that I don't have to create table everytime I want to insert a new row. I guess the problem in the code comes from row.ID that is still -1 after the first Update() call. The Insert is successful and in the database the row has a valid value of ID. How can I get that ID so that I can continue with the second Update call? Update: IT looks like this could have been done automatically using this setting. However according to the answer on msdn social, OLEDB drivers do not support this feature. Not sure where to go from here, use something else than oledb? Update: Tried SQLCompact but discovered that it had the same limitation, it does not support multiple statements. Final question: is there any simple(single file based) database that would allow you to get the values of a inserted row.

    Read the article

  • Maintaining session information between 2 asp.net calls programmatically?

    - by Santhosh
    Hi, I'm not sure if I'll be clear enough in my explaination to make you guys understand, but I'll try. Here's my problem: We have an external site which the users in our company connect to by giving their corresponding username and password. The external site is an ASP.NET website. We want to integrate this website into our intranet portal so that the users don't have to enter their UN/Pwd to login to the website. Since the target website has no provision for SSO, we are simulating the POST request to login. So far so good. We are now required to perform an action after the initial login is done, on an another page. We can simulate the corresponding POST request as well. But the problem is since we are not maintaining any session information in our initial POST request, it always redirects to the login screen! Is there any way to maintain ASP.NET session information between multiple calls done programmatically? Can we create an ASP.NET session id cookie programmatically and then pass it along with our initial request? Or this is not possible at all? Any comments are appreciated. Thanks for your help. Regards.

    Read the article

  • Character Encoding: â??

    - by akaphenom
    I am trying to piece together the mysterious string of characters â?? I am seeing quite a bit of in our database - I am fairly sure this is a result of conversion between character encodings, but I am not completely positive. The users are able to enter text (or cut and paste) into a Ext-Js rich text editor. The data is posted to a severlet which persists it to the database, and when I view it in the database i see those strange characters... is there any way to decode these back to their original meaning, if I was able to discover the correct encoding - or is there a loss of bits or bytes that has occured through the conversion process? Users are cutting and pasting from multiple versions of MS Word and PDF. Does the encoding follow where the user copied from? Thank you website is UTF-8 We are using ms sql server 2005; SELECT serverproperty('Collation') -- Server default collation. Latin1_General_CI_AS SELECT databasepropertyex('xxxx', 'Collation') -- Database default SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS and the column: Column_name Type Computed Length Prec Scale Nullable TrimTrailingBlanks FixedLenNullInSource Collation text varchar no -1 yes no yes SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS The non-Unicode equivalents of the nchar, nvarchar, and ntext data types in SQL Server 2000 are listed below. When Unicode data is inserted into one of these non-Unicode data type columns through a command string (otherwise known as a "language event"), SQL Server converts the data to the data type using the code page associated with the collation of the column. When a character cannot be represented on a code page, it is replaced by a question mark (?), indicating the data has been lost. Appearance of unexpected characters or question marks in your data indicates your data has been converted from Unicode to non-Unicode at some layer, and this conversion resulted in lost characters. So this may be the root cause of the problem... and not an easy one to solve on our end.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Ajax.BeginForm eats params of submit button clicked. Looks like bug.

    - by RonnBlack
    If you are using Ajax.BeginForm() with multiple submit buttons similar to this: // View.aspx <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Action", "Controller", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "MyControl", })) { %> <span id="MyControl"> <% Html.RenderPartial("MyControl"); %> </span> <% } %> //MyControl.ascx <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <input name="prev" type="submit" value="prev" /> <input name="next" type="submit" value="next" /> //... Everything is submitted to the controller fine but the params for the submit button that was clicked are absent from the Request. In otherwords Request["next"] and Request["prev"] are always null. I looked in to the JavaScript in Microsoft.MvcAjax.js and it looks like the function Sys_Mvc_MvcHelpers$_serializeForm completely skips over the inputs that are of type 'submit'. This doesn't seem logical at all. How else can you find out what button has been clicked? It looks like a bug to me. Is there any logical reason to skip these form parameters?

    Read the article

  • Grails: How to include an html link inside a <g:message> default attribute?

    - by Christoph
    Hi, I am starting with Grails and want to have one page with multilanguage content. I started using the tag which works fine. But here is what I want to do: I want to include the default text of the default language right in the text, to avoid switching back and forth in between files. <g:message code="homepage.feature.headline1" default="This is an english text" /> The above works. But now I a have a message which should include a link like this: <g:message code="homepage.feature.headline1" default="This is an english text with <a href='somefile.html'>a link</a>" /> This gives me an exception: org.codehaus.groovy.grails.web.pages.exceptions.GroovyPagesException: Error processing GroovyPageView: Grails tags were not closed! [[<g:message>]] in GSP How can I achieve that I can include a link there? I have tried escaping the < brackets but still no luck. I really would like to avoid splitting up this one sentence into multiple smaller sentences. Thanks Christoph

    Read the article

  • Weird error running com-exposed assembly

    - by Bernabé Panarello
    I am facing the following issue when deploying a com-exposed assembly to my client's. The COM component should be consummed by a vb6 application. Here's how it's done 1) I have one c# project which has a class with a couple of methods exposed to COM 2) The project has references to multiple assemblies 3) I compile the project, generating a folder (named dllcom) that contains the assembly plus all the referenced dlls 4) I include in the folder a .bat which does the following: regasm /u c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll del LibInsertador.tlb regasm c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.dll /tlb:c:\dllcom\LibInsertador.tlb /codebase c:\dllcom\ pause 5) After running the bat locally in many workstations of my laboratory, i'm able to consume the generated tlb from my vb6 application without any problems. I'm even able to update the dll by only means of running this bat, without having to recompile the vb6 application. I mean that im not having issues of vb6 fiding and invoking the exposed com object. The problem 6) I send the SAME FOLDER to my client 7) They execute the .bat locally, without any errors 8) They execute the vb6 application, vb6 finds the main assembly, the .net code seems to run correctly (it's even able to generate a log file) until it has to intantiate it's first referenced assembly. Then, they get the following exception: "Could not load type 'GYF.Common.TypeBuilder' from assembly 'GYF_Common, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null'." Where "GYF.Common" is an assembly referenced by LibInsertador and TypeBuilder is a class contained in GYF.Common. GYF.Common is not a signed assembly and it's not in the GAC, just in the same folder with Libinsertador. According to .net reflector, the version is correct. ¿Any ideas about what could be happening?

    Read the article

  • Eclipse / Aptana File Sync Solutions

    - by Brad
    Our development team uses Eclipse + Aptana to do their web development work. Currently, most of them are mapping their Eclipse projects directly to the web server. I'd rather them create a local project and use that to sync to the web server project directory they are working on. The issue is that there aren't any good solutions which is just appalling given the popularity of the two. The FileSync plugin for Eclipse is only one-way. Meaning if another developer makes a change to the file on the server, another dev isn't even notified and could overwrite the change. The File Transfer option in Aptana 2.0 doesn't support any sort of Sync, just manually uploading/downloading files. The Sync option in Aptana 1.5.1 doesn't allow you to merge files when they are different. You can only update one or the other. It does however allow you to view a diff (but only if you right click and select) and in that diff you can't make any changes. I did find a way to allow files to be uploaded to their Sync repositories in Aptana using Eclipse Monkey. However it doesn't work if a user saves multiple files at once, 'Save All', again it doesn't work. And additionally, there is no notification if a user opens a local file that has an updated copy on the server. I tried to add one using Eclipse Monkey but I couldn't find any sort of listener in the Eclipse API to do it and any Eclipse Monkey documentation is far and few between. My only solution at this point is just to let them continue to map directly to the server or ask them to do a manual download before they do any work (but again what if someone uploads a change right after they do that). Anyone have any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Using Git with shared (symbolic link) directories

    - by chmike
    I'm working on a big Qt application with multiple widgets which are quite complex. One of this widget is a webcam stream viewer. The application is organized so that each program module (i.e. widgets) is stored in its own directory with a .pri file. All these are stored in one main directory grouping all the widget directories. Next to this main project directory I also have application directories. Let say one for each widget. In these directory I have a symbolic link (alias on windows) to the module directory in the main project folder. This application has then the necessary code to build a standalone application showing only the widget. So for instance I have a webcam viewer application, another to control some devices, etc. This source code organization works well and allows me to develop and test the widgets in independent applications while sharing the code with the main application. Currently only the main project directory is under version control using subversion. Now I would like to start using git and would like to know if this shared directory model would work with it or if there is a better way to do it.

    Read the article

  • Having Uploadify e-mail a link to download the file

    - by kwek-kwek
    Uploadify is a jQuery plugin that allows the easy integration of a multiple (or single) file uploads on your website. It requires Flash and any backend development language. An array of options allow for full customization for advanced users, but basic implementation is so easy that even coding novices can do it. I wanted to ask if It is possible to sends out a link of a file that has just been uploaded wioth the e-mail notification of Uploadify. Here is the code for uploadify.php : <?php if (!empty($_FILES)) { $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $_REQUEST['folder'] . '/'; $targetFile = str_replace('//','/',$targetPath) . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; // $fileTypes = str_replace('*.','',$_REQUEST['fileext']); // $fileTypes = str_replace(';','|',$fileTypes); // $typesArray = split('\|',$fileTypes); // $fileParts = pathinfo($_FILES['Filedata']['name']); // if (in_array($fileParts['extension'],$typesArray)) { // Uncomment the following line if you want to make the directory if it doesn't exist // mkdir(str_replace('//','/',$targetPath), 0755, true); move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); echo "1"; // } else { // echo 'Invalid file type.'; // } } //define the receiver of the email $to = '[email protected]'; //define the subject of the email $subject = 'Test email'; //define the message to be sent. Each line should be separated with \n $message = "Hello World!\n\nThis is my first mail."; //define the headers we want passed. Note that they are separated with \r\n $headers = "From: [email protected]\r\nReply-To: [email protected]"; //send the email $mail_sent = @mail( $to, $subject, $message, $headers ); //if the message is sent successfully print "Mail sent". Otherwise print "Mail failed" echo $mail_sent ? "Mail sent" : "Mail failed"; ?>

    Read the article

  • MVC 2.0 - JqGrid Sorting with Mulitple Tables

    - by Billy Logan
    I am in the process of implementing the jqGrid and would like to be able to use the sorting functionality. I have run into some issues with sorting columns that are related to the base table. Here is the script to load the grid: public JsonResult GetData(GridSettings grid) { try { using (IWE dataContext = new IWE()) { var query = dataContext.LKTYPE.Include("VWEPICORCATEGORY").AsQueryable(); ////sorting query = query.OrderBy<LKTYPE>(grid.SortColumn, grid.SortOrder); //count var count = query.Count(); //paging var data = query.Skip((grid.PageIndex - 1) * grid.PageSize).Take(grid.PageSize).ToArray(); //converting in grid format var result = new { total = (int)Math.Ceiling((double)count / grid.PageSize), page = grid.PageIndex, records = count, rows = (from host in data select new { TYPE_ID = host.TYPE_ID, TYPE = host.TYPE, CR_ACTIVE = host.CR_ACTIVE, description = host.VWEPICORCATEGORY.description }).ToArray() }; return Json(result, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet); } } catch (Exception ex) { //send the error email ExceptionPolicy.HandleException(ex, "Exception Policy"); } //have to return something if there is an issue return Json(""); } As you can see the description field is a part of the related table("VWEPICORCATEGORY") and the order by is targeted at LKTYPE. I am trying to figure out how exactly one goes about sorting that particular field or maybe even a better way to implement this grid using multiple tables and it's sorting functionality. Thanks in advance, Billy

    Read the article

  • How to manage a One-To-One and a One-To-Many of same type as unidirectional mapping?

    - by user1652438
    I'm trying to implement a model for private messages between two or more users. That means I've got two Entities: User PrivateMessage The User model shouldn't be edited, so I'm trying to set up an unidirectional relationship: @Entity (name = "User") @Table (name = "user") public class User implements Serializable { @Id String username; String password; // something like this ... } The PrivateMessage Model addresses multiple receivers and has exactly one sender. So I need something like this: @Entity (name = "PrivateMessage") @Table (name = "privateMessage") @XmlRootElement @XmlType (propOrder = {"id", "sender", "receivers", "title", "text", "date", "read"}) public class PrivateMessage implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = -9126766942868177246L; @Id @GeneratedValue private Long id; @NotNull private String title; @NotNull private String text; @NotNull @Temporal(TemporalType.TIMESTAMP) private Date date; @NotNull private boolean read; @NotNull @ElementCollection(fetch = FetchType.EAGER, targetClass = User.class) private Set<User> receivers; @NotNull @OneToOne private User sender; // and so on } The according 'privateMessage' table won't be generated and just the relationship between the PM and the many receivers is satisfied. I'm confused about this. Everytime I try to set a 'mappedBy' attribute, my IDE marks it as an error. It seems to be a problem that the User-entity isn't aware of the private message which maps it. What am I doing wrong here? I've solved some situation similar to this one, but none of those solutions will work here. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Cleanest RESTful design for purely "action" calls?

    - by Josh Handel
    Hello all, I am sticking my toe in the RESTful waters and I just can't find a "satisfactory" solution to how to handle truely "action" oriented calls on a RESTful service? My quandry can be broken down into two parts. 1) Transactional calls: I understand the idea of having an ActionTransactor that you get a resource too with a post, update the parameters and then commit with a PUT (as described all over the place and in the Orilly RESTful Web services book).. But I struggle with the idea of keeping URLs with states present for ever.. If we really honestly don't need to keep a transaction for ever can we kill the resource URI? do URIs need to be perminate or can they be transiant URIs that expire 2) Non transactional calls: these might be calls to perform some workflow that spans multiple resources but having a resource just doesn't make since.. An example might be to re-generating some calculated ans cached value like a large aggreget or re-indexing blog or some such "purely" action. Anyways, I'm curious about the communities thoughts on this... Thus far, I've read that Overloading Post is the cleanest way to handle part 2.. But there is an equal amount of argument against that approach as well. And (to me) its not self documenting which I though was one of the key design goals of RESTful APIs.

    Read the article

  • How can I write reusable Javascript?

    - by RenderIn
    I've started to wrap my functions inside of Objects, e.g.: var Search = { carSearch: function(color) { }, peopleSearch: function(name) { }, ... } This helps a lot with readability, but I continue to have issues with reusabilty. To be more specific, the difficulty is in two areas: Receiving parameters. A lot of times I will have a search screen with multiple input fields and a button that calls the javascript search function. I have to either put a bunch of code in the onclick of the button to retrieve and then martial the values from the input fields into the function call, or I have to hardcode the HTML input field names/IDs so that I can subsequently retrieve them with Javascript. The solution I've settled on for this is to pass the field names/IDs into the function, which it then uses to retrieve the values from the input fields. This is simple but really seems improper. Returning values. The effect of most Javascript calls tends to be one in which some visual on the screen changes directly, or as a result of another action performed in the call. Reusability is toast when I put these screen-altering effects at the end of a function. For example, after a search is completed I need to display the results on the screen. How do others handle these issues? Putting my thinking cap on leads me to believe that I need to have an page-specific layer of Javascript between each use in my application and the generic methods I create which are to be used application-wide. Using the previous example, I would have a search button whose onclick calls a myPageSpecificSearchFunction, in which the search field IDs/names are hardcoded, which marshals the parameters and calls the generic search function. The generic function would return data/objects/variables only, and would not directly read from or make any changes to the DOM. The page-specific search function would then receive this data back and alter the DOM appropriately. Am I on the right path or is there a better pattern to handle the reuse of Javascript objects/methods?

    Read the article

  • Jquery star rating plugin and cancel rating button

    - by Roger
    Using this plugin: http://www.fyneworks.com/jquery/star-rating/#tab-Testing I have a simple callback function that picks up the id from the radio buttons: <input type="radio" class="auto-submit-star {split:2}" id="myid" value="1" /> $('.auto-submit-star').rating({ callback: function(value, link){ alert($(this).attr('id')); } }); This works fine, but if the user clicks on the cancel button, then it can't read the id of it. In the js, I think the cancel button is added dynamically with: control.cancel = $('<div class="rating-cancel"><a title="' + control.cancel + '">' + control.cancelValue + '</a></div>') If I add an id to it like this: control.cancel = $('<div class="rating-cancel"><a id="someid" title="' + control.cancel + '">' + control.cancelValue + '</a></div>') How could I read the id? This would be undefined. I can set a class and use $('.myclass').attr('id') but I will have multiple ratings on one page so I'll need something similar to "this". Or is it possible for the cancel button to pick up the id of the corresponding radio buttons?

    Read the article

  • Using jQuery delay() with separate elements

    - by boomturn
    I want to fake a simple animation on page load by sequentially revealing several pngs, each appearing instantly but with unique, precisely timed delay before the next one. Using the latest version of jQuery (1.4.2 at writing), which provides a delay method. My first (braindead) impulse was: $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800); $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200); $('#image3').show('fast'); Of course all come up simultaneously. jQuery doc examples refer to a single item being chained, not handling multiple items. OK... try again using nested callbacks from show(): $('#image1').show('fast', function() { $('#image2').show('fast', function() { $('#image3').show('fast', function() { }); }); }); Looks ugly (imagine doing 10, also wonder what processor hit would be) but hey, it works sequentially! Without delay though. So... chain delay() after show() using a callback function from it (not even sure if it supports one): $('#image1').show('fast').delay(800, function() { $('#image2').show('fast').delay(1200, function() { $('#image3').show('fast'); }); }); Hm. Opposite result of what I thought might happen: the callback works, but still no delay. So... should I be using some combination of queue and delay instead of nested callbacks? jQuery doc examples for queue again only use one element for example. Guessing this would involve using a custom queue, but am uncertain how to implement this. Or maybe I'm missing a simple way? (For a simple problem!)

    Read the article

  • iPhone SQLite Password Field Encryption

    - by Louis Russell
    Good Afternoon Guys and Girls, Hopefully this will be a quick and easy question. I am building an App that requires the user to input their login details for an online service that it links to. Multiple login details can be added and saved as the user may have several accounts that they would like to switch between. These details will be stored in an SQLite database and will contain their passwords. Now the questions are: 1: Should these passwords be encrypted in the database? My instinct would say yes but then I do not know how secure the device and system is and if this is necessary. 2: If they should be encrypted what should I use? I think encrypting the whole database file sounds a bit over-kill so should I just encrypt the password before saving it to the database? If this is case what could I use to achieve this? I have found reference to a "crypt(3)" but am having trouble finding much about it or how to implement it. I eagerly await your replies!

    Read the article

  • batch file to merge .js files from subfolders into one combined file

    - by Andrew Johns
    I'm struggling to get this to work. Plenty of examples on the web, but they all do something just slightly different to what I'm aiming to do, and every time I think I can solve it, I get hit by an error that means nothing to me. After giving up on the JSLint.VS plugin, I'm attempting to create a batch file that I can call from a Visual Studio build event, or perhaps from cruise control, which will generate JSLint warnings for a project. The final goal is to get a combined js file that I can pass to jslint, using: cscript jslint.js < tmp.js which would validate that my scripts are ready to be combined into one file for use in a js minifier, or output a bunch of errors using standard output. but the js files that would make up tmp.js are likely to be in multiple subfolders in the project, e.g: D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\somefile.debug.js D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\jquery\plugins\jquery.plugin.js The ideal solution would be to be able to call a batch file along the lines of: jslint.bat %ProjectPath% and this would then combine all the js files within the project into one temp js file. This way I would have flexibility in which project was being passed to the batch file. I've been trying to make this work with copy, xcopy, type, and echo, and using a for do loop, with dir /s etc, to make it do what I want, but whatever I try I get an error.

    Read the article

  • uncompressing .zip file in linux [closed]

    - by Suren
    hi, I have a .zip file (It contains multiple files, ex: file1.txt file2.txt file3.txt.. n so on) in a directory. And my query is: How to extract the files from .zip archive to the very same directory and how to create the list of all the files extracted from .zip archive.** The extracted file name should be printed like this in the file named: file_list: file1.txt file2.txt file3.txt filen.txt I have tried the following command assuming that my .zip file name is "data.zip". unzip -qoj data.zip | unzip -ql data.zip > file_list I have used unzip -qoj data.zip to extract all the files in the same directory(quietly,overwrite,junk_path). When I try to insert -l with the first unzip command then the command doesn't extract the file in the current and only files are listed thats why I have to used unzip again after the first pipe(If I am making a mistake here let me know please). I get the following output Length Date Time Name -------- ---- ---- ---- 0 12-21-09 14:25 data/ 6148 12-21-09 14:25 data/.DS_Store 0 12-21-09 14:25 __MACOSX/ 0 12-21-09 14:25 __MACOSX/data/ 82 12-21-09 14:25 __MACOSX/data/._.DS_Store 82 12-11-09 13:59 data/file1.txt 120 12-11-09 13:59 data/file2.txt 166 12-11-09 13:59 data/file3.txt -------- ------- 6598 8 files How do I extract only file1.txt file2.txt file3.txt from this stdout? Is it possible to do this with linux command or I have to write a perl script for this? Thank you.

    Read the article

  • JSF in jetty-equinox, Cannot find Bean classes in other bundles!

    - by Arnold
    Hi I have problems running JSF in an OSGi environment. I am using jetty web container and equinox to provide the OSGi functionality. The structure of my application is as follows: The first bundle has all the JSF libs, web.xml and a config.xml. It looks as the following: bundle1 ----src/main/java -------de/package ----------Activator.java ----------JSFResolver.java ----src/main/resource ------ WebContent ----------META-INF -------------face-config.xml --------------web.xhtml ----------start.xhtml -----------include.xhtml ----libs (containing all JSF required Jars) The structure of the second bundle is as follows: bundle2 ---src/main/java ------de/package ----------Bean.java ---src/main/resource ------META-INF ---------face-config.xml ------WebContent ---------index.xhtml When running the application of equinox, the bundle1 is the main bundle where all the browser requests are sent to. In the second bundle, the 'index.xhtml' file can be retrieved the by first bundle upon request. The 'index.xhtml' in bundle 2 gets its values and properties from the 'Bean.java' in bundle 2. The problem comes when i request the 'index.xhtml', the Bean.java class is not found. I think this is because the class loader of bundle1 cannot find it, it has no knowledge of it. So i would like to ask if anyone knows how to solve this problem. If so please do assist me, i have tried all the possibilities i had.. Is it infact possible to have JSF run on multiple bundles using the same FaceletsContex? Can i be able to have seperate faces-config.xml files in each bundle, which can all be connected other faces-config.xml in other bundles? Can anyone please provide me a solution. Sample code would help. thanks workspace_current.rar Arnold

    Read the article

  • What sorting algorithm is this?

    - by Mike
    Hi, I have a sorting algorithm as follows. My question is, which sorting algorithm is this? I thought it was bubble sort, but it does not do multiple runs. Any idea? Thanks! //sorting in descending order struct node { int value; node* NEXT; } //Assume HEAD pointer denotes the first element in the //linked list // only change the values…don’t have to change the //pointers Sort( Node *Head) { node* first,second,temp; first= Head; while(first!=null) { second=first->NEXT; while(second!=null) { if(first->value < second->value) { temp = new node(); temp->value=first->value; first->value=second->value; second->value=temp->value; delete temp; } second=second->NEXT; } first=first->NEXT; } }

    Read the article

  • How to select form input based on label inner HTML?

    - by Shane
    I have multiple forms that are dynamically created with different input names and id's. The only thing unique they will have is the inner HTML of the label. Is it possible to select the input via the label inner HTML with jQuery? Here is an example of one of my patient date of birth blocks, there are many and all unique except for innerHTML. <div class="iphorm-element-spacer iphorm-element-spacer-text iphorm_1_8-element-spacer"> <label for="iphorm_081a9e2e6b9c83d70496906bb4671904150cf4b43c0cb1_8">events=Object { mouseover=[1], mouseout=[1]}handle=function()data=Object { InFieldLabels={...}} Patient DOB <span class="iphorm-required">*</span> </label> <div class="iphorm-input-wrap iphorm-input-wrap-text iphorm_1_8-input-wrap"> <input id="iphorm_081a9e2e6b9c83d70496906bb4671904150cf4b43c0cb1_8" class="iphorm-element-text iphorm_1_8" type="text" value="" name="iphorm_1_8">events=Object { focus=[1], blur=[1], keydown=[1], more...}handle=function() </div> <div class="iphorm-errors-wrap iphorm-hidden"> </div> This is in a Wordpress Plugin and because we are building to allow employees to edit their sites (this is actually a Wordpress Network), we do not want to alter the plugin if possible. Note that the label "for" and the input "id" share the same dynamic key, so this might be a way to maybe get the id, but wanted to see if there is a shorter way of doing this.

    Read the article

  • Setting UIImage dimensions on UITableViewCell image

    - by bbrown
    I've got a standard UITableViewCell where I'm using the text and image properties to display a favicon.ico and a label. For the most part, this works really well since UIImage supports the ICO format. However, some sites (like Amazon.com say) have favicon.icos that make use of the ICO format's ability to store multiple sizes in the same file. Amazon stores four different sizes, all the way up to 48x48. This results in most images being 16x16 except for a few that come in at 32x32 or 48x48 and make everything look terrible. I have searched here, the official forum, the documentation, and elsewhere without success. I have tried everything that I could think of to constrain the image size. The only thing that worked was an undocumented method, which I'm not about to use. This is my first app and my first experience with Cocoa (came from C#). In case I wasn't clear in what I'm looking for, ideally the advice would center around setting the dimensions of the UIImage so that the 48x48 version would scale down to 16x16 or a method to tell UIImage to use the 16x16 version present in the ICO file. I don't necessarily need code: just a suggestion of an approach would do me fine. Does anyone have any suggestions? (I asked in the official forum as well because I've sunk more than a day into this already. If a solution is posted there, I'll put it here as well.)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671  | Next Page >