Search Results

Search found 19953 results on 799 pages for 'post get'.

Page 664/799 | < Previous Page | 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671  | Next Page >

  • DOM manipulation

    - by bluedaniel
    Hello everyone, Im trying to use the DOM in PHP to do a pretty specific job and Ive got no luck so far, the objective is to take a string of HTML from a Wordpress blog post (from the DB, this is a wordpress plugin). And then out of that HTML replace <div id="do_not_edit">old content</div>" with <div id="do_not_edit">new content</div>" in its place. Saving anything above and below that div in its structure. Then save the HTML back into the DB, should be simple really, I have read that a regex wouldnt be the right way to go here so Ive turned to the DOM instead. The problem is I just cant get it to work, cant extract the div or anything. Help me!! UPDATE The HTML coming out of the wordpress table looks like: Congratulations on finding us here on the world wide web, we are on a mission to create a website that will show off your culinary skills better than any other website does. <div id="do_not_edit">blah blah</div> We want this website to be fun and easy to use, we strive for simple elegance and incredible functionality.We aim to provide a 'complete package'. By this we want to create a website where people can meet, share ideas and help each other out. After several different (incorrect) workings all Ive got below is: $content = ($wpdb->get_var( "SELECT `post_content` FROM $wpdb->posts WHERE ID = {$article[post_id]}" )); $doc = new DOMDocument(); $doc->validateOnParse = true; $doc->loadHTMLFile($content); $element = $doc->getElementById('do_not_edit'); echo $element;

    Read the article

  • C++ ambiguous template instantiation

    - by aaa
    the following gives me ambiguous template instantiation with nvcc (combination of EDG front-end and g++). Is it really ambiguous, or is compiler wrong? I also post workaround à la boost::enable_if template<typename T> struct disable_if_serial { typedef void type; }; template<> struct disable_if_serial<serial_tag> { }; template<int M, int N, typename T> __device__ //static typename disable_if_serial<T>::type void add_evaluate_polynomial1(double *R, const double (&C)[M][N], double x, const T &thread) { // ... } template<size_t M, size_t N> __device__ static void add_evaluate_polynomial1(double *R, const double (&C)[M][N], double x, const serial_tag&) { for (size_t i = 0; i < M; ++i) add_evaluate_polynomial1(R, C, x, i); } // ambiguous template instantiation here. add_evaluate_polynomial1(R, C, x, serial_tag());

    Read the article

  • Problem with making a simple JS XmlHttpRequest call

    - by recipriversexclusion
    I have to create a very simple client that makes GET and POST calls to our server and parses the returned XML. I am writing this in JavaScript, problem is I don't know how to program in JS (started to look into this just this morning)! As n initial test, I am trying to ping to the Twitter API, here's the function that gets called when user enters the URL http://api.twitter.com/1/users/lookup.xml and hits the submit button: function doRequest() { var req_url, req_type, body; req_url = document.getElementById('server_url').value; req_type = document.getElementById('request_type').value; alert("Connecting to url: " + req_url + " with HTTP method: " + req_type); req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.open(req_type, req_url, false, "username", "passwd");// synchronous conn req.onreadystatechange=function() { if (req.readyState == 4) { alert(req.status); } } req.send(null); } When I run this on FF, I get a Access to restricted URI denied" code: "1012 error on Firebug. Stuff I googled suggested that this was a FF-specific problem so I switched to Chrome. Over there, the second alert comes up, but displays 0 as HTTP status code, which I found weird. Can anyone spot what the problem is? People say this stuff is easier to use with JQuery but learning that on top of JS syntax is a bit too much now.

    Read the article

  • Django Many-to-Many Question

    - by DZ
    My questions seems like a common problem that when I have seen any questions on it is never really asked right or not answered. So Im going to try to get the question right, and maybe someone knows how to resolve the issue, or correct my understanding. The problem: When you have a many-to-many relation ship (related_name not through) and you are trying to use the admin interface you are required to input one of the rleationships even though it does not have to exsist for you to create the first entry. Meaning you have to assign a group to an event to create the group. Wow that sounds complicated. So I can see why the question is not getting answered. Lets try the non code explanation example... First and important versions: Django 1.1.1 Phython 2.6 So I have a model where I created a many-to-many realtionship and Im using the related_name Im creating an app that is an event organizer, for simplicty lets say events although they could be anytype). For this first post Im going to stay away from the code and just try to explain. A few keys: (explaining comment) ** - many-to-many So in the model we have 1) The Main Event (this is main model) 2) Groups (link to events and their can be many events for a group) a) Events** I have simplified this example a little becuase I recognize that what does it matter. Just create the event first... But there are specific varations where that will not work. What the many-to-many related_name does it created another table with the indecies of the two other tables. Nothing says that this extra table HAS to be populated. Becuase if I look in the database and work within myPHPadmin I can create a group with out registering an event, since the connection between the two is a seperate table the DB does not care. How do I make the admin interface this realize it? Ok I know thats a lot so I hope I have explained it clearly. Thank you anyone for your comments/thoughts/advice

    Read the article

  • Passing models between controllers in MVC4

    - by wtfsven
    I'm in the middle of my first foray into web development with MVC4, and I've run into a problem that I just know is one of the core issues in web development in general, but can't seem to wrap my mind around it. So I have two models: Employee and Company. Employee has a Company, therefore /Employee/Create contains a field that is either a dropdown list for selecting an existing Company, or an ActionLink to /Company/Create if none exists. But here's the issue: If a user has to create a Company, I need to preserve the existing Employee model across both Views--over to /Company/Create, then back to /Employee/Create. So my first approach was to pass the Employee model to /Company/Create with a @Html.ActionLink("Add...", "Create", "Organization", Model , null), but then when I get to Company's Create(Employee emp), all of emp's values are null. The second problem is that if I try to come back to /Employee/Create, I'd be passing back an Employee, which would resolve to the POST Action. Basically, the whole idea is to save the state of the /Employee/Create page, jump over to /Company/Create to create a Company record, then back to /Employee/Create to finish creating the Employee. I know there is a well understood solution to this because , but I can't seem to phase it well enough to get a good Google result out of it. I've though about using Session, but it seems like doing so would be a bit of a kludge. I'd really like an elegant solution to this.

    Read the article

  • PHP Header redirection problem within page called by cURL

    - by Das123
    I have a site that uses cURL to access some pages, stores the returned results in variables, and then uses these variables within its own page. The script works well except where the target cURL page has a header('Location: ...') command inside it. It seems to just ignore this header command. The cURL command is as follows... //Load result page into variable so portions can be allocated to correct variables $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); # URL to post to curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1 ); # return into a variable curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HEADER, 0); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POST, true); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, $postfields); $loaded_result = curl_exec( $ch ); # run! curl_close($ch); I've tried changing the CURLOPT_HEADER to 1 but it doesn't do anything. So how can I allow script redirection within the target urls using cURL to grab the results? By the way, the pages work fine if accessed other than via cURL but iFrames are not an option in this instance.

    Read the article

  • Recaptcha with Ajax error

    - by Brandon
    I'm having trouble validating a recaptcha input. Heres my code: // Validate Recaptcha Input var challenge = $("#recaptcha_challenge_field").val(); var response = $("#recaptcha_response_field").val(); var dataString = 'recaptcha_challenge_field=' + challenge + '&recaptcha_response_field=' + response; var html = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "PHP/recaptchaverify.php", data: dataString, async: true }).responseText; console.log(html); if(html == 'accept') { alert("CORRECT"); } else { alert("The reCAPTCHA wasn't entered correctly. Go back and try it again."); $("#recaptcha_response_field").focus(); Recaptcha.reload(); return false; } Now I passed my variables to recpatchaverify.php require_once('../scripts/recaptcha-php/recaptchalib.php'); $privatekey = "MYKEY"; $resp = recaptcha_check_answer ($privatekey, $_SERVER["REMOTE_ADDR"], $_POST["recaptcha_challenge_field"], $_POST["recaptcha_response_field"]); if (!$resp->is_valid) { // What happens when the CAPTCHA was entered incorrectly echo "error"; } else { // Your code here to handle a successful verification echo "accept"; } Now my problem is the html variable is displaying "accept" whenever I enter the Recaptcha correctly, but it won't work in the IF statement?

    Read the article

  • AJAX help needed

    - by tharindu
    Hi guys.. i have problem in ajax.. im new comer for ajax...:) <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#bcode").focus(); //prevents autocomplete in some browsers $("#bcode").attr('autocomplete', 'off').keyup(function(event) { var name = $("#bcode").val(); $("#status").empty(); if(name.length > 17 ) { selectAll(); $("#status").html('<img align="absmiddle" src="loading.gif" /> Checking availability...').show(); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "namecheck.php", data: "bcode="+ name, success: function(msg) { $("#status").html(msg).show(); } }); } else { $("#status").html('').addClass('err').show(); } }); }); //--> </script> i got text box value 'bcode' using '$_POST['bcode']' <input name="bcode" type="text" class="bcode" id="bcode" maxlength="18"; /> also i have menu/list in that form <select name="pallete" class="list_box" id="select"> <option value="P0" selected> </option> <option value="P1">P1</option> <option value="P2">P2</option> <option value="P3">P3</option> <option value="P4">P4</option> <option value="P5">P5</option> </select> How i can access selected item from php file by using '$_POST['pallete']' please help me. Thanks in advance..

    Read the article

  • How to resize a UISwitch?

    - by mshsayem
    I have made a custom UISwitch (from this post). But the problem is, my custom texts are a bit long. Is there any way to resize the switch? [I tried setBounds, did not work] Edit: Here is the code I used: @interface CustomUISwitch : UISwitch - (void) setLeftLabelText: (NSString *) labelText; - (void) setRightLabelText: (NSString *) labelText; @end @implementation CustomUISwitch - (UIView *) slider { return [[self subviews] lastObject]; } - (UIView *) textHolder { return [[[self slider] subviews] objectAtIndex:2]; } - (UILabel *) leftLabel { return [[[self textHolder] subviews] objectAtIndex:0]; } - (UILabel *) rightLabel { return [[[self textHolder] subviews] objectAtIndex:1]; } - (void) setLeftLabelText: (NSString *) labelText { [[self leftLabel] setText:labelText]; } - (void) setRightLabelText: (NSString *) labelText { [[self rightLabel] setText:labelText]; } @end mySwitch = [[CustomUISwitch alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; //Tried these, but did not work //CGRect aFrame = mySwitch.frame; //aFrame.size.width = 200; //aFrame.size.height = 100; //mySwitch.frame = aFrame; [mySwitch setLeftLabelText: @"longValue1"]; [mySwitch setRightLabelText: @"longValue2"];

    Read the article

  • Trying to edit an entity with data from dropdowns in MVC...

    - by user598352
    Hello! I'm having trouble getting my head around sending multiple models to a view in mvc. My problem is the following. Using EF4 I have a table with attributes organised by category. Couldn't post an image :-( [Have a table called attributes (AttributeTitle, AttributeName, CategoryID) connected to a table called Category (CategoryTitle).] What I want to do is be able to edit an attribute entity and have a dropdown of categories to choose from. I tried to make a custom viewmodel public class AttributeViewModel { public AttributeViewModel() { } public Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public IQueryable<Category> AllCategories { get; set; } } But it just ended up being a mess. <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("Category", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.AllCategories, "CategoryID", "CategoryName")) %> </div> I was getting it back to the controller... [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int AttributeID, FormCollection formcollection) { var _attribute = ProfileDB.GetAttribute(AttributeID); int _selcategory = Convert.ToInt32(formcollection["Category"]); _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory; try { UpdateModel(_attribute); (<---Error here) ProfileDB.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch (Exception e) { return View(_attribute); } } I've debugged the code and my _attribute looks correct and _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory updates the model, but then I get the error. Somewhere here I thought that there should be a cleaner way to do this, and that if I could only send two models to the view instead of having to make a custom viewmodel. To sum it up: I want to edit my attribute and have a dropdown of all of the available categories. Any help much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • SQL Database Schema Design For Large 3 Billion Relationship Database.

    - by K-Bell
    Get your geek on. Can you solve this? I am designing a products database for SQL Server 2008 R2 Ed. (not Enterprise Ed.) that will be used to store custom product configurations for over 30,000 distinct products. The database will have up to 500 users at a time. Here is the design problem… Each Product has a collection of Parts (up to 50 parts per product). So if I have 30,000 Products and each of them can have up to 50 Parts, that’s 1.5 million distinct Product-to-Part relationships …or as an equation… 30,000 (Products) X 50 (Parts) = 1.5 million Product-to-Parts records. …and If… Each Part can have up to 2000 finish options (A finish is a paint color). NOTE: Only one finish will be selected by a user at run-time. The 2000 finish options I need to store are the allowed options for a specific part on a specific product. So if I have 1.5 million distinct product-to-part relationships/records and each of those parts can have up to 2,000 finishes that is 3 billion allowable product-to-part-to finish relationships/records …or as an equation… 1.5 million (Parts) x 2,000 (Finishes) = 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finishes records. How can I design this database so that I can execute fast and efficient queries for a specific product and return its list of Parts and all the allowable Finishes for each part without 3 Billion Product-to-Part-to-Finish records? Read time is more important then write time. Please post your thoughts/suggestions if you have experience with large databases. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Ruby On Rails - Contact form not sending email via localhost

    - by anonymousxxx
    similar problem Rails contact form not working guides: https://github.com/thomasklemm/email_form_rails rails 3.2.x app\models\message.rb class Message include ActiveAttr::Model include ActiveModel::Validations attribute :name attribute :email attribute :subject attribute :body attr_accessible :name, :email, :subject, :body validates_presence_of :name validates_presence_of :email validates :email, email_format: { message: "is not looking like a valid email address"} validates_presence_of :subject validates_length_of :body, maximum: 500 end app\mailers\contact_form.rb class ContactForm < ActionMailer::Base default from: "[email protected]" default to: "[email protected]" def email_form(message) @message = message mail subject: "#{message.subject} #{message.name}" mail body: "#{message.body}" end end development.rb config.action_mailer.delivery_method = :smtp config.action_mailer.perform_deliveries = true config.action_mailer.smtp_settings = { :address => "smtp.gmail.com", :port => 587, :domain => "mydomain.com", :user_name => "[email protected]", :password => "mypassword", :authentication => :plain, :enable_starttls_auto => true } config.action_mailer.default_url_options = { :host => "localhost:3000" } output in command Started POST "/email" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-09-04 22:10:40 +0700 Processing by HomeController#send_email_form as HTML Parameters: {"utf8"="v", "authenticity_token"="w39BLqCrjTMm4RRi/Sm5hZoEpcw46 npyRy/RS0h48x0=", "message"={"name"="anonymousxxx", "email"="[email protected]", "subject"="Test", "body"="send email"}, "commit"="Create Message"} Redirected to localhost:3000/home/contact Completed 302 Found in 1ms (ActiveRecord: 0.0ms) but email (message) no receive my email,..

    Read the article

  • CodeIgniter - Image Validation & Thumbnailing

    - by Sebhael
    I'm currently trying to create a function that validates and creates thumbnails for images on upload - but I'm quite lost on what I'm doing. I'm assuming I'm off on my terminology so I'm not really getting any search results to help point me in the right direction. My playground is a form with 6 upload fields that are required. One of these fields is for a simple 32x32 icon image, another a portrait orientation (most likely) photo, and then 4 standard desktop screenshots -- and I'm using CodeIgniter as my framework. I would like to create a function that validates/thumbnails images, and only have to call it on the validation if at all possible. I know I can achieve this per-image, since the documentation for CI is quite through on this - but to reduce redundancy I'm looking for the better option. Outside of that, I don't even actually understand in full how to manipulate images unless it's just $this-input-post('field') - then calling all functions onto this? I don't know, I'm confused and posting on the actual CI forums has yielded me nothing - so all I'm really looking for is a point in the right direction to understanding what I'm trying to achieve here. This also all might not make any sense, I know it doesn't to me - but I can explain more if needed. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • How can I measure the time it takes a file to upload to a PHP script?

    - by Gustav Bertram
    I am trying to measure the time a script takes to upload a file to a PHP script, inside the receiving script. Here's a short example: <form action="#" enctype="multipart/form-data" method="post"> Upload: <input type="file" name="datafile" size="40"> <input type="submit" value="Send"> </form> <?php $upload_time = time() - $_SERVER['REQUEST_TIME']; echo $upload_time . " seconds."; I've submitted 4MB, 25MB, 100MB and 1.4GB files. They took anything from a fraction of a second, to almost a minute, yet the script above always yielded 0 seconds. NOTE: I know that this is a duplicate question, but the accepted answer on the other question did not work for me (at least, initially): Detect how long it takes for a file to upload (PHP) I've tried it using PHP 5.3.3 with Apache 2.2.16 on Ubuntu 10.4. UPDATE: I've discovered that both the Apache header and Ajax solutions work. In fact, the solution on the duplicate question also works. The critical element to making these solutions work is to ensure that the following values in the php.ini are sufficiently high: memory_limit = 1000M upload_max_filesize = 1000M post_max_size = 1000M I am accepting the Apache header solution, since it only uses PHP.

    Read the article

  • Can't display image with Imageview on Android

    - by user1029167
    In my \drawable-mdpi folder, I have an image named: test.jpg In my main.xml file, in my LinearLayout section, I have: <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/test" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> In my src folder, I have only 1 file, HelloAndroidActivity.java with only the following method: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ImageView image = new ImageView(this); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.test_image); setContentView(image); } This seems to be correct, yet whenever I try to run it, I get The application HelloAndroid (process xxxxx) has stopped unexpectedly. Please try again. The strange part is it previously did display the image, but now it won't and I don't know why. Also, when I comment out the ImageDisplay code, and replace it with TextDisplay code. i.e. TextView tv = new TextView(this); tv.setText("Does this work?"); setContentView(tv); It does display the text. Edit: was asked to post logcat. Link to pastebin.

    Read the article

  • What is better: Developing a Web project in MVC or N -Tier Architecture?

    - by Starx
    I have asked a similar question before and got an convincing answer as well? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2843311/what-is-difference-of-developing-a-website-in-mvc-and-3-tier-or-n-tier-architectu Due to the conclusion of this question I started developing projects in N-tier Architecture. Just about an hour ago, I asked another question, about what is the best design pattern to create interface? There the most voted answer is suggesting me to use MVC architecture. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2930300/what-is-the-best-desing-pattern-to-design-the-interface-of-an-webpage Now I am confused, First post suggested me that both are similar, just a difference that in N-tier, the tier are physically and logically separated and one layer has access to the one above and below it but not all the layers. I think ASP.net used 3 Tier architecture while developing applications or Web applications. Where as frameworks like Zend, Symphony they use MVC. I just want to stick to a pattern that is best suitable for WebProject Development? May be this is a very silly confusion? But if someone could clear this confusion, that would be very greatful?

    Read the article

  • Delay android PlusClient login request

    - by jamesakadamingo
    I am trying to implement the new PlayServices API within my android application to use a +1 button. I have it working nicely, all the expected functionality is there. However it has one rather annoying feature (seriously google!). When you instance the plusclient: mPlusClient = new PlusClient(this, this, this, Scopes.PLUS_PROFILE); Your user is presented with a "Pick your account" dialog (if they have more than one account) followed by a "grant access" dialog. I understand the need for these steps, however they really get in the way of the user experience! My initial activity (post splash screen) now has the +1 button, which means that you have to instance the PlusClient. Doing so in the onCreate() method (as google suggests) means that my user is given the "authorisation" screen before they even know what is going on! What I want to do it delay that untill they actually click the +1 button. That way they will know why they are being asked to authorise access to their account! Any ideas? I have tried using an onClick listener on the +1 button to instance but it didn't work.

    Read the article

  • multiple form submission with one submit

    - by skylab
    I've been trying to think this through and figure out if it is possible or not. I'm using zen-cart as shopping cart software, but what I'd like to do, is hard code a page that is basically a list of 7-9 products, next to each product is a checkbox, so I'd like to figure out a way, via html,javascript or jquery to submit whichever forms(products) are checked to the cart. The typical form submission for a product looks something like this(sometimes there may be one or two additional hidden fields): <form name="cart_quantity" action="index.php?action=add_product" method="post" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <input type="hidden" name="cart_quantity" value="1"> <input type="hidden" name="products_id" value="7"> <input type="hidden" name="id[6]" value="9" id="attrib-6-9"> <input type="image" src="buy_button.png" alt="Add to Cart" title="Instructional Video Part 1: Add to Cart"> </form> There would be 7-9 of these on the page, each with a checkbox, so I'm assuming a script would need to figure out which ones where checked and submit them via the form action? Maybe there is a better way of going about this that I'm not thinking of because a)it's over my head or b)just haven't figured it out yet. Anyway is something like this possible?

    Read the article

  • How to wait for ajax validation to complete before submitting a form?

    - by Jung
    Having a problem where the form submits before the validateUsername function has a chance to complete the username check on the server-side. How do I submit the form only after the validateUsername function completes? Hope this is clear... form.submit(function(){ if (validateUsername() & validateEmail() & validatePassword()) { return true; } else { return false; } }); function validateUsername(){ usernameInfo.addClass("sign_up_drill"); usernameInfo.text("checking..."); var b = username.val(); var filter = /^[a-zA-Z0-9_]+$/; $.post("../username_check.php",{su_username:username.val()},function(data) { if (data=='yes') { username.addClass("error"); usernameInfo.text("sorry, that one's taken"); usernameInfo.addClass("error"); return false; } else if (!filter.test(b)) { username.addClass("error"); usernameInfo.text("no funny characters please"); usernameInfo.addClass("error"); return false; } else { username.removeClass("error"); usernameInfo.text("ok"); usernameInfo.removeClass("error"); return true; } }); }

    Read the article

  • linux bash script: set date/time variable to auto-update (for inclusion in file names)

    - by user1859492
    Essentially, I have a standard format for file naming conventions. It breaks down to this: target_dateUTC_timeUTC_tool So, for instance, if I run tcpdump on a target of 'foo', then the file would be foo_dateUTC_timeUTC_tcpdump. Simple enough, but a pain for everyone to constantly (and consistently) enter... so I've tried to create a bash script which sets system variables like so: FILENAME=$TARGET\_$UTCTIME\_$TOOL Then, I can just call the variable at runtime, like so: tcpdump -w $FILENAME.lpc All of this works like a champ. I've got a menu-driven .sh which gives the user the options of viewing the current variables as well as setting them... file generation is a breeze. Unfortunately, by setting the date/time variable, it is locked to the value at the time of creation (naturally). I set the variable like so: UTCTIME=$(/bin/date --utc +"%Y%m%d_%H%M%Z") What I really need is either a way to create a variable which updates at runtime, or (more likely) another way to skin this cat. While scouring for solutions, I came across a similar issues... like this. But, to be honest, I'm stumped on how to marry the two approaches and create a simple, distributable solution. I can post the entire .sh if anyone cares to review (about 120 lines)

    Read the article

  • Servlet that starts a thread only once for every visitor

    - by user858749
    Hey I want to implement a Java Servlet that starts a thread only once for every single user. Even on refresh it should not start again. My last approach brought me some trouble so no code^^. Any Suggestions for the layout of the servlet? public class LoaderServlet extends HttpServlet { // The thread to load the needed information private LoaderThread loader; // The last.fm account private String lfmaccount; public LoaderServlet() { super(); lfmaccount = ""; } @Override protected void doPost(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if (loader != null) { response.setContentType("text/plain"); response.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-cache"); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.write(loader.getStatus()); out.flush(); out.close(); } else { loader = new LoaderThread(lfmaccount); loader.start(); request.getRequestDispatcher("WEB-INF/pages/loader.jsp").forward( request, response); } } @Override protected void doGet(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) throws ServletException, IOException { if (lfmaccount.isEmpty()) { lfmaccount = request.getSession().getAttribute("lfmUser") .toString(); } request.getRequestDispatcher("WEB-INF/pages/loader.jsp").forward( request, response); } } The jsp uses ajax to regularly post to the servlet and get the status. The thread just runs like 3 minutes, crawling some last.fm data.

    Read the article

  • Obfuscating ids in Rails app

    - by fphilipe
    I'm trying to obfuscate all the ids that leave the server, i.e., ids appearing in URLs and in the HTML output. I've written a simple Base62 lib that has the methods encode and decode. Defining—or better—overwriting the id method of an ActiveRecord to return the encoded version of the id and adjusting the controller to load the resource with the decoded params[:id] gives me the desired result. The ids now are base62 encoded in the urls and the response displays the correct resource. Now I started to notice that subresources defined through has_many relationships aren't loading. e.g. I have a record called User that has_many Posts. Now User.find(1).posts is empty although there are posts with user_id = 1. My explanation is that ActiveRecord must be comparing the user_id of Post with the method id of User—which I've overwritten—instead of comparing with self[:id]. So basically this renders my approach useless. What I would like to have is something like defining obfuscates_id in the model and that the rest would be taken care of, i.e., doing all the encoding/decoding at the appropriate locations and preventing ids to be returned by the server. Is there any gem available or does somebody have a hint how to accomplish this? I bet I'm not the first trying this.

    Read the article

  • what use does the javascript for each method have (that map can't do)?

    - by JohnMerlino
    Hey all, The only difference I see in map and foreach is that map is returning an array and foreach is not. However, I don't even understand the last line of the foreach method "func.call(scope, this[i], i, this);". For example, isn't "this" and "scope" referring to same object and isn't this[i] and i referring to the current value in the loop? I noticed on another post someone said "Use forEach when you want to do something on the basis of each element of the list. You might be adding things to the page, for example. Essentially, it's great for when you want "side effects". I don't know what is meant by side effects. Array.prototype.map = function(fnc) { var a = new Array(this.length); for (var i = 0; i < this.length; i++) { a[i] = fnc(this[i]); } return a; } Array.prototype.forEach = function(func, scope) { scope = scope || this; for (var i = 0, l = this.length; i < l; i++) func.call(scope, this[i], i, this); } Finally, are there any real uses for these methods in javascript (since we aren't updating a database) other than to manipulate numbers like this: alert([1,2,3,4].map(function(x){ return x + 1})); //this is the only example I ever see of map in javascript. Thanks for any reply.

    Read the article

  • JSON is not being recognised

    - by richzilla
    Hi All, Im having a bit of trouble getting my JSON to be recognised by my web page. I have validated JSON that im getting returned from server, so i know that is correct, however my javascript function is not doing anything with it. My succes function is as follows: success: function(data) { $('input[name=customer_name]').val(data.name); $('textarea[name=customer_address]').text(data.address); $('input[name=customer_email]').val(data.email); $('input[name=customer_tel]').val(data.tel); $('input[name=user_id]').val(item.id); } Yet the fields are not being repopulated with the data that is returned, if it helps, a sample of my JSON data: { "name": "Terry O'Toole", "address": "Terrys House\nTerry Street\nTerrysville\nTerrytown\nTT1 6TT", "email": "[email protected]", "tel": "05110000000" } Any help would be appreciated. [EDIT] Expanded ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "<?php echo site_url('user/users/ajax'); ?>", type: 'POST', data: {"userid": item.id}, success: function(data) { $('input[name=customer_name]').val(data.name); $('textarea[name=customer_address]').text(data.address); $('input[name=customer_email]').val(data.email); $('input[name=customer_tel]').val(data.tel); $('input[name=user_id]').val(item.id); } }) });

    Read the article

  • When is it safe to use a broken hash function?

    - by The Rook
    It is trivial to use a secure hash function like SHA256 and continuing to use md5 is reckless behavior. However, there are some complexities to hash function vulnerabilities that I would like to better understand. Collisions have been generated for md4 and md5. According to NIST md5() is not a secure hash function. It only takes 2^39th operations to generate a collision and should never be used for passwords. However SHA1 is vulnerable to a similar collision attack in which a collision can be found in 2^69 operations, where as brute force is 2^80th. No one has generated a sha1 collision and NIST still lists sha1 as a secure message digest function. So when is it safe to use a broken hash function? Even though a function is broken it can still be "big enough". According to Schneier a hash function vulnerable to a collsion attack can still be used as an HMAC. I believe this is because the security of an HMAC is Dependant on its secret key and a collision cannot be found until this key is obtained. Once you have the key used in a HMAC its already broken, so its a moot point. What hash function vulnerabilities would undermine the security of an HMAC? Lets take this property a bit further. Does it then become safe to use a very weak message digest like md4 for passwords if a salt is perpended to the password? Keep in mind the md4 and md5 attacks are prefixing attacks, and if a salt is perpended then an attacker cannot control the prefix of the message. If the salt is truly a secret, and isn't known to the attacker, then does it matter if its a appended to the end of the password? Is it safe to assume that an attacker cannot generate a collision until the entire message has been obtained? Do you know of other cases where a broken hash function can be used in a security context without introducing a vulnerability? (Please post supporting evidence because it is awesome!)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671  | Next Page >