Search Results

Search found 18728 results on 750 pages for 'setup deployment'.

Page 664/750 | < Previous Page | 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671  | Next Page >

  • Why do I get a Illegal Access Error when running my Android tests?

    - by Janusz
    I get the following stack trace when running my Android tests on the Emulator: java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: client.HttpHelper at client.Helper.<init>(Helper.java:14) at test.Tests.setUp(Tests.java:15) at android.test.AndroidTestRunner.runTest(AndroidTestRunner.java:164) at android.test.AndroidTestRunner.runTest(AndroidTestRunner.java:151) at android.test.InstrumentationTestRunner.onStart(InstrumentationTestRunner.java:425) at android.app.Instrumentation$InstrumentationThread.run(Instrumentation.java:1520) Caused by: java.lang.IllegalAccessError: cross-loader access from pre-verified class at dalvik.system.DexFile.defineClass(Native Method) at dalvik.system.DexFile.loadClass(DexFile.java:193) at dalvik.system.PathClassLoader.findClass(PathClassLoader.java:203) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:573) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:532) ... 11 more I run my tests from an extra project. And it seems there are some problems with loading the classes from the other project. I have run the tests before but now they are failing. The project under tests runs without problems. Line 14 of the Helper Class is: this.httpHelper = new HttpHelper(userProfile); I start a HttpHelper class that is responsible for executing httpqueries. I think somehow this helper class is not available anymore, but I have no clue why.

    Read the article

  • Address family not supported by protocol exception

    - by srg
    I'm trying to send a couple of values from an android application to a web service which I've setup. I'm using Http Post to send them but when I run the application I get the error- request time failed java.net.SocketException: Address family not supported by protocol. I get this while debugging with both the emulator as well as a device connected by wifi. I've already added the internet permission using: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET" /> This is the code i'm using to send the values void insertData(String name, String number) throws Exception { String url = "http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/"; HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); try { List<NameValuePair> params = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(2); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("a", name)); params.add(new BasicNameValuePair("b", number)); post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(params)); HttpResponse response = client.execute(post); }catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); } Also I know that my web service work fine because when I send the values from an html page it works fine - <form name="form1" action="http://192.168.0.12:8000/testapp/default/call/run/insertdbdata/" method="post"> <input type="text" name="a"/> <input type="text" name="b"/> <input type="submit"/> I've seen questions of similar problems but haven't really found a solution. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Can't get jQuery to wokr with Prototype - tried everything....

    - by thinkfuture
    Ok so here is the situation. Been pulling my hair out on this one. I'm a noob at this. Only been using rails for about 6 weeks. I'm using the standard setup package, and my code leverages prototype helpers heavily. Like I said, noob ;) So I'm trying to put in some jQuery effects, like PrettyPhoto. But what happens is that when the page is first loaded, PrettyPhoto works great. However, once someone uses a Prototype helper, like a link created with link_to_remote, Prettyphoto stops working. I've tried jRails, all of the fixes proposed on the JQuery site to stop conflicts... http://docs.jquery.com/Using_jQuery_with_Other_Libraries ...even done some crazy things likes renaming all of the $ in prototype.js to $$$ to no avail. Either the prototype helpers break, or jQuery breaks. Seems nothing I do can get these to work together. Any ideas? Here is part of my application.html.erb <%= javascript_include_tag 'application' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'tooltip' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'jquery-ui' %> <%= javascript_include_tag "jquery.prettyPhoto" %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'prototype' %> <%= javascript_include_tag 'scriptalicious' %> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> jQuery(document).ready( function() { jQuery("a[rel^='prettyPhoto']").prettyPhoto(); }); </script> If I put prototype before jquery, the prototype helpers don't work If I put the noconflict clause in, neither works. Thanks in advance! Chris

    Read the article

  • .NET MissingMethodException occuring on one of thousands of end-user machines -- any insight?

    - by Yoooder
    This issue has me baffled, it's affecting a single user (to my knowledge) and hasn't been reproduced by us... The user is receiving a MissingMethodException, our trace file indicates it's occuring after we create a new instance of a component, when we're calling an Initialize/Setup method in preparation to have it do work (InitializeWorkerByArgument in the example) The Method specified by the error is an interface method, which a base class implements and classes derived from the base class can override as-needed The user has the latest release of our application All the provided code is shipped within a single assembly Here's a very distilled version of the component: class Widget : UserControl { public void DoSomething(string argument) { InitializeWorkerByArgument(argument); this.Worker.DoWork(); } private void InitializeWorkerByArgument(string argument) { switch (argument) { case "SomeArgument": this.Worker = new SomeWidgetWorker(); break; } // The issue I'm tracking down would have occured during "new SomeWidgetWorker()" // and would have resulted in a missing method exception stating that // method "DoWork" could not be found. this.Worker.DoWorkComplete += new EventHandler(Worker_DoWorkComplete); } private IWidgetWorker Worker { get; set; } void Worker_DoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { MessageBox.Show("All done"); } } interface IWidgetWorker { void DoWork(); event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } abstract class BaseWorker : IWidgetWorker { virtual public void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(1000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } internal void RaiseDoWorkComplete(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (DoWorkComplete != null) { DoWorkComplete(this, null); } } public event EventHandler DoWorkComplete; } class SomeWidgetWorker : BaseWorker { public override void DoWork() { System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(2000); RaiseDoWorkComplete(this, null); } }

    Read the article

  • Filp route value in asp.net mvc routes

    - by Herman
    Hi all, I am new to asp.net mvc, so please bear with me. We have the following route dictionary setup. routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{language}/{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { language = "en", controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults ); for any given page in our app, we to render a link to the a french version of the same page. For example, the page: http://www.example.com/en/home should have link on that page that points to http://www.example.com/fr/home Now I have the following UrlHelper extension method public static string FilpLanguage(this UrlHelper urlHelper) { var data = urlHelper.RequestContext.RouteData; if (System.Threading.Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentCulture == CultureInfo.GetCultureInfoByIetfLanguageTag("en-CA")) data.Values["language"] = "fr"; else data.Values["language"] = "en"; return urlHelper.RouteUrl(data.Values.Where(item => item.Value != null)); } However, calling FilpLanguage on www.example.com/en/home will return the following URL: www.example.com/en/home?current=[,] Am I missing something here? where did the current parameter come from? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Why should I care about RVM's Gemset feature when I use Bundler?

    - by t6d
    I just don't get it. I thought, Bundler was developed to resolve version conflicts between gems. So that I just have to require "bundler/setup" and everything is fine, knowing that Bundler will load the correct versions of all my gems and their dependencies. Now, RVM is great for managing multiple Rubies, I know, but why should I care about the Gemset feature? Do I miss something here? Can it make my development even easier? Maybe, some of you can give me some hints on the perfect RVM + Bundler workflow for both, development and production. I also don't know when RVM starts switching to another Ruby. I know that I can have an .rvmrc file in my project, but do I have to cd to this directory so that the switch happens? Furthermore, I usually use Passenger for development since, thanks to the Passenger.prefpane, integration in Mac OS is great. Can I still do that with RVM or is there a better way to do it? Does Passenger recognize .rvmrc files and switch to the correct Gemset?

    Read the article

  • Why doesn't JSF 2.0 RI (Mojarra) scan my class' annotations?

    - by DWoldrich
    I have a War and Jar project in my Eclipse-based JSF project. I have decided to use annotations to declare my FacesConverter, (among a myriad other things), rather than declare it using my faces-config.xml. @FacesConverter(value="passwordFieldStringConverter") public class PasswordFieldStringConverter implements Converter { public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { try { return arg2.getBytes("UTF-16BE"); } catch(UnsupportedEncodingException uee) { Assert.impossibleException(uee); } return(null); } public String getAsString(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, Object arg2) throws ConverterException { try { return new String((byte[]) arg2, "UTF-16BE"); } catch(UnsupportedEncodingException uee) { Assert.impossibleException(uee); } return(null); } } And then I use passwordFieldStringConverter directly in my .xhtml: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" xmlns:f="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" xmlns:ui="http://java.sun.com/jsf/facelets" xmlns:sec="http://www.springframework.org/security/facelets/tags"> <ui:composition> <f:view> <f:loadBundle basename="landingPage.bundle" var="bundle" /> <ui:decorate template="/WEB-INF/jsf_helpers/htmlShell.xhtml"> <ui:param name="PageTitleParam" value="#{bundle.pageTitle}" /> <h:form> <h:dataTable var="rowVar" value="#{userListContainer.users}"> <f:facet name="header"><h:outputText value="Users you are currently managing:" /></f:facet> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="Screen Name" /> </f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{rowVar.screenName}" /> </h:column> <h:column> <f:facet name="header"> <h:outputText value="Password" /> </f:facet> <h:outputText value="#{rowVar.password}"> <f:converter converterId="passwordFieldStringConverter" /> </h:outputText> </h:column> </h:dataTable> </h:form> </ui:decorate> </f:view> </ui:composition> </html> JSF is supposed to scan the jars in my War at deployment-time and detect which classes have annotations on them (and auto-configure the application accordingly). My problem is that JSF is apparently not detecting the classes I have which sport annotations. The War project has all of my .xhtml files as well as the project's faces-config.xml, my Jar project has all of my faces related Java code (action beans, managed beans, custom converters, etc.)

    Read the article

  • Where do objects merge/join data in a 3-tier model?

    - by BerggreenDK
    Its probarbly a simple 3-tier problem. I just want to make sure we use the best practice for this and I am not that familiary with the structures yet. We have the 3 tiers: GUI: ASP.NET for Presentation-layer (first platform) BAL: Business-layer will be handling the logic on a webserver in C#, so we both can use it for webforms/MVC + webservices DAL: LINQ to SQL in the Data-layer, returning BusinessObjects not LINQ. DB: The SQL will be Microsoft SQL-server/Express (havent decided yet). Lets think of setup where we have a database of [Persons]. They can all have multiple [Address]es and we have a complete list of all [PostalCode] and corresponding citynames etc. The deal is that we have joined a lot of details from other tables. {Relations}/[tables] [Person]:1 --- N:{PersonAddress}:M --- 1:[Address] [Address]:N --- 1:[PostalCode] Now we want to build the DAL for Person. How should the PersonBO look and when does the joins occure? Is it a business-layer problem to fetch all citynames and possible addressses pr. Person? or should the DAL complete all this before returning the PersonBO to the BAL ? Class PersonBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} public List<AddressBO> {get;set;} // Question #1 } // Q1: do we retrieve the objects before returning the PersonBO and should it be an Array instead? or is this totally wrong for n-tier/3-tier?? Class AddressBO { public int ID {get;set;} public string StreetName {get;set;} public int PostalCode {get;set;} // Question #2 } // Q2: do we make the lookup or just leave the PostalCode for later lookup? Can anyone explain in what order to pull which objects? Constructive criticism is very welcome. :o)

    Read the article

  • How do I create a simple Windows form to access a SQL Server database?

    - by NoCatharsis
    I believe this is a very novice question, and if I'm using the wrong forum to ask, please advise. I have a basic understanding of databasing with MS SQL Server, and programming with C++ and C#. I'm trying to teach myself more by setting up my own database with MS SQL Server Express 2008 R2 and accessing it via Windows forms created in C# Express 2010. At this point, I just want to keep it to free or Express dev tools (not necessarily Microsoft though). Anyway, I created a database using the instructions provided here and I set the data types appropriately for each column (no errors in setup at least). Now I'm designing the GUI in C# Express but I've kind of hit a wall as far as the database connection. Is there a simple way to access the database I created locally using C# Express? Can anyone suggest a guide that has all this spelled out already? I am a self-learner so I look forward to teaching myself how to use these applications, but any pointers to start me off in the right direction would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • Having trouble hiding keyboard using invisible button which sits on top of uiscrollview

    - by phil
    I have 3 items in play... 1) UIView sits at the base of the hierarchy and contains the UIScrollview. 2) UIScrollview that is presenting a lengthy user form. 3) An invisible button on the UIScrollview that I'm using to provide "hide the keyboard" features. Notice in the code below that I'm registering to be notified when the keyboard is going to appear and again when it's going to disappear. These are working great. My problem is seemingly one of "layers". See below where I insert the button into the view atIndex:0. This causes the button to be activated and "stuffed" behind the scrollview so that when you click on it, the scrollview grabs the touch and the button is unaware. There is no way to "reach" the button and suppress the keyboard. However, if I insert atIndex:1, the button gets super imposed on top of the text entry fields and so any touch at all is acted upon by the button, which immediately suppresses the keyboard and then disappears. How do I insert the button on top of the UIScrollview but behind the UITextfields that sit there? other logistics: I have a -(void) hidekeyboard function that I have setup with the UIButtion as an IBAction(). And I have the UIButton connected to "files owner" via a ctrl-drag/drop. (Do I need both of those conventions?) This code in ViewDidLoad()... [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserverForName:UIKeyboardWillShowNotification object:nil queue:nil usingBlock:^(NSNotification *notification){ [self.view insertSubview:self.keyboardDismissalButton atIndex:0]; }];

    Read the article

  • Rails ActionCaching with Memcached fragment hit but action gets called anyway

    - by baldtrol
    Hi stackoverflow. I'm running into something strange. I'm using memcached with a caches_action setup. I'm doing this in 4 different controllers. In two of them, it works flawlessly (so far), though admittedly those two controllers are less complicated than the two in which it doesn't seem to work. I'm doing something like this: caches_action :index, :expires_in => 6.hours, :cache_path => Proc.new {|controller| controller.send(:generate_cache_path) }, :layout => false, :if => Proc.new { |c| c.request.format.js? } The intention behind the above is to cache some results that are dependent on the params. my :generate_cache_path method just takes into account some params and session vars and creates a unique key for memcached. I can see in memcached -vv that this is working. What's weird is that I get my request from the rails app for a given key, and I see memcached (with -vv) get the request and send back the response. But then my action runs anyway, and a new value is then set for the same key, even when all the same params are given. I can watch it happen. In the controllers where everything is working, the request is made for the fragment, it gets it, and the action in the controller is halted, and the fragment is passed back. These lines come from the exact same request: Cached fragment hit: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js And then: Cached fragment miss: views/items/?page=1&rp=10&srtn=created_at&srto=DESC.js I don't know what to make of it, or if I'm doing something stupid. Any help or ideas where I could start looking for trouble would be greatly appreciated.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET web form Routing issue via UNC Path

    - by Slash
    I create a IIS 7.0 website via UNC path to load .aspx to dynamic compile files and runs. however, it's running perfect. I always use IIS URL Rewrite module 2 to rewrite my site URL n' its perfect, too. Today, I wanna use System.Web.Routing to implement url rewrite but I encountered difficulties... When I wrote code in Global.asax: System.Web.Routing.RouteTable.Routes.MapPageRoute("TEST", "AAA/{prop}", "~/BBB/CCC.aspx"); And it just CANNOT reDirect to /BBB/CCC.aspx When I type the URL(like: xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx) in browser directly, it runs normally that I want. (so it proof CCC.aspx is in right path.) thus, I copy all of the code and open VS2010 running with IIS 7.5 Express locally, it works perfect! e.g: in browser URL I type xx.xx.xx.xx/AAA/1234, it will turn to page xx.xx.xx.xx/BBB/CCC.aspx (Works perfect!) Why??? help me plz. thanks. Update: I think I should consider not UNC path to make it error! when I move all code to physical disk and setup IIS 7.0 to monitor this Folder, it still not works! But the same code run in VS2010 + IIS 7.5 Express it works!? so strange!

    Read the article

  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

    Read the article

  • facebook authentication / login trouble

    - by salmane
    I have setup facebook authentication using php and it goes something like this first getting the authorization here : https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id=<?= $facebook_app_id ?>&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&scope=user_about_me,publish_stream then getting the access Token here : $url = "https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=".$facebook_app_id."&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&client_secret=".$facebook_secret."&code=".$code;" function get_string_between($string, $start, $end){ $string = " ".$string; $ini = strpos($string,$start); if ($ini == 0) return ""; $ini += strlen($start); $len = strpos($string,$end,$ini) - $ini; return substr($string,$ini,$len); } $access_token = get_string_between(file_get_contents($url), "access_token=", "&expires="); then getting user info : $facebook_user = file_get_contents('https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token='.$access_token); $facebook_id = json_decode($facebook_user)->id; $first_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->first_name; $last_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->last_name; this is pretty ugly ( in my opinion ) but it works....how ever....the user is still not logged in...because i did not create or retrieve any session variables to confirm that the user is logged in to facebook... which means that after getting the authentication done the use still has to login .... first: is there a better way using php to do what i did above ? second: how do i set/ get session variable / cookies that ensure that the user doesnt have to click login thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • How to make use of Grails Dependencies in your IDE

    - by raoulsson
    Hi All, So I finally got my dependencies working with Grails. Now, how can my IDE, eg IntelliJ or Eclipse, take advantage of it? Or do I really have to manually manage what classes my IDE knows about at "development time"? If the BuildConfig.groovy script is setup right (see here), you will be able to code away with vi or your favorite editor without any troubles, then run grails compile which will resolve and download the dependencies into the Ivy cache and off you go... If, however, you are using an IDE like Eclipse or IntelliJ, you will need the dependencies at hand while coding. Obviously - as these animals will need them for the "real time" error detection/compilation process. Now, while it is certainly possible to code with all the classes shining up in bright red all over the place that are unknown to your IDE, it is certainly not much fun... The Maven support or whatever it is officially called lives happily with the pom file, no extra "jar directory" pointers needed, at least in IntelliJ. I would like to be able to do the same with Grails dependencies. Currently I am defining them in the BuildConfig.groovy and additionally I copy/paste the current jars around on my local disk and let the IDE point to it. Not very satisfactory, as I am working in a highly volatile project module environment with respect to code change. And this situation ports me directly into "jar hell", as my "develop- and build-dependencies" easily get out of sync and I have to manage manually, that is, with my brain... And my brain should be busy with other stuff... Thanks! Raoul P.S: I'm currently using Grails 1.2M4 and IntelliJ 92.105. But feel free to add answers on future versions of Grails and different, future IDEs, as the come in...

    Read the article

  • query structure - ignoring entries for the same event from multiple users?

    - by Andrew Heath
    One table in my MySQL database tracks game plays. It has the following structure: SCENARIO_VICTORIES [ID] [scenario_id] [game] [timestamp] [user_id] [winning_side] [play_date] ID is the autoincremented primary key. timestamp records the moment of submission for the record. winning_side has one of three possible values: 1, 2, or 0 (meaning a draw) One of the queries done on this table calculates the victory percentage for each scenario, when that scenario's page is viewed. The output is expressed as: Side 1 win % Side 2 win % Draw % and queried with: SELECT winning_side, COUNT(scenario_id) FROM scenario_victories WHERE scenario_id='$scenID' GROUP BY winning_side ORDER BY winning_side ASC and then processed into the percentages and such. Sorry for the long setup. My problem is this: several of my users play each other, and record their mutual results. So these battles are being doubly represented in the victory percentages and result counts. Though this happens infrequently, the userbase isn't large and the double entries do have a noticeable effect on the data. Given the table and query above - does anyone have any suggestions for how I can "collapse" records that have the same play_date & game & scenario_id & winning_side so that they're only counted once?

    Read the article

  • Multi-reader IPC solution?

    - by gct
    I'm working on a framework in C++ (just for fun for now), that lets the user write plugins that use a standard API to stream data between each other. There's going to be three basic transport mechanisms for the data: files, sockets, and some kind of IPC piping system. The system is set up so that for the non-file transport, each stream can have multiple readers. IE once a server socket it setup, multiple computers can connect and stream the data. I'm a little stuck at the multi-reader IPC system though. All my plugins run in threads so they live in the same address space, so some kind of shared memory system would work fine, I was thinking I'd write my own circular buffer with a write pointer and read pointers chassing it around the buffer, but I have my doubts that I can achieve the same performance as something like linux pipes. I'm curious what people would suggest for a multi-reader solution to something like this? Is the overhead for pipes or domain sockets low enough that I could just open a connection to each reader and issue separate writes to each reader? This is intended to be significant volumes of data (tens of mega-samples/sec), so performance is a must.

    Read the article

  • Django: Serving a Download in a Generic View

    - by TheLizardKing
    So I want to serve a couple of mp3s from a folder in /home/username/music. I didn't think this would be such a big deal but I am a bit confused on how to do it using generic views and my own url. urls.py url(r'^song/(?P<song_id>\d+)/download/$', song_download, name='song_download'), The example I am following is found in the generic view section of the Django documentations: http://docs.djangoproject.com/en/dev/topics/generic-views/ (It's all the way at the bottom) I am not 100% sure on how to tailor this to my needs. Here is my views.py def song_download(request, song_id): song = Song.objects.get(id=song_id) response = object_detail( request, object_id = song_id, mimetype = "audio/mpeg", ) response['Content-Disposition'= "attachment; filename=%s - %s.mp3" % (song.artist, song.title) return response I am actually at a loss of how to convey that I want it to spit out my mp3 instead of what it does now which is to output a .mp3 with all of the current pages html contained. Should my template be my mp3? Do I need to setup apache to serve the files or is Django able to retrieve the mp3 from the filesystem(proper permissions of course) and serve that? If it do need to configure Apache how do I tell Django that? Thanks in advanced. These files are all on the HD so I don't need to "generate" anything on the spot and I'd like to prevent revealing the location of these files if at all possible. A simple /song/1234/download would be fantastic.

    Read the article

  • FragmentActivity cannot be resolve to a type

    - by Pratik
    I am starting learning for android tablet programming and I am able to updated my Eclipse as well as all new sdk for android. I have start testing application from this blog while at extending the FragmentActivity getting this error I have google it but not getting any solution. My project was created with 3.0 version having 11 level, all other packages are successfully used in the code but only this FragmentActivity was not able to resolve. Am I missing any library or any thing? My code public class Testing_newActivity extends FragmentActivity { // here the FragmentActivity getting error package not found for import /** Called when the activity is first created. */ @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); //setContentView(R.layout.main); if (getResources().getConfiguration().orientation == Configuration.ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE) { // If the screen is now in landscape mode, we can show the // dialog in-line so we don't need this activity. finish(); return; } if (savedInstanceState == null) { // During initial setup, plug in the details fragment. DetailsFragment details = new DetailsFragment(); details.setArguments(getIntent().getExtras()); getSupportFragmentManager().beginTransaction().add( android.R.id.content, details).commit(); } } } android manifest file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <manifest xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" package="com.searce.testingnew" android:versionCode="1" android:versionName="1.0" > <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="11" /> <application android:icon="@drawable/ic_launcher" android:label="@string/app_name" > <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name=".Testing_newActivity" > <intent-filter > <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN" /> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER" /> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> </manifest>

    Read the article

  • delegate method throws runtime "unrecognized selector" error when switching back from one UIViewCont

    - by chimgrrl
    Ok, I've spend like half day on this and it's killing me. So I've got 3 view controllers transitioning from one another, something like this: I call the UploadDecisionViewController after destroying the previous View Controller: [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; [self performSelector:@selector(showUDModalView) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5]; In my showUDModalView method: - (void)showUDModalView { UploadDecisionViewController *udcontroller = [[UploadDecisionViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"UploadDecisionViewController" bundle:nil]; udcontroller.delegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:udcontroller animated:YES]; [udcontroller release]; } The UploadDecisionViewController shows up no problem. The UploadDecisionViewController has a button, which when clicked I want it to transition to the FileUploadViewController. I setup a UploadDecisionDelegate, threw a method in there to handle the button clicking: Inside UploadDecisionDelegate protocol (UploadDecisionViewController.h): @protocol UploadDecisionDelegate //let UOnliveViewController know that a button was selected - (void)UploadDecisionViewController:(UploadDecisionViewController *)controller madeChoice:(NSString *)whichDirection; @end Then inside my IBAction method when the button is clicked, I have this: - (IBAction)decisionSelected:(id)sender { [delegate UploadDecisionViewController:self madeChoice:@"upload"];//crashing at this line } When I run this, at this line above it is throwing a runtime exception: 2010-06-09 12:48:59.561 UOnlive[4735:207] *** -[UIView UploadDecisionViewController:madeChoice:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b65420 2010-06-09 12:48:59.562 UOnlive[4735:207] *** Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInvalidArgumentException', reason: '*** -[UIView UploadDecisionViewController:madeChoice:]: unrecognized selector sent to instance 0x3b65420' 2010-06-09 12:48:59.563 UOnlive[4735:207] Stack: ( 33502299, 2495698185, 33884219, 33453686, 33306306, 20618, 2982917, 3390286, 3399023, 3394235, 3087839, 2996168, 3022945, 40156505, 33287040, 33283144, 40150549, 40150746, 3026863, 11700, 11554 ) Let me throw in the delegate method implemented also: - (void)UploadDecisionViewController:(UploadDecisionViewController *)controller madeChoice:(NSString *)whichDirection { NSLog(@"it got to here 245"); [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; if (yesOrNo) { //open up the FileUploadViewController and proceed to upload [self performSelector:@selector(showFUModalView) withObject:nil afterDelay:0.5]; } } Can someone tell me what the heck is going on? Thanks a bunch for the help...

    Read the article

  • log4j rootLogger seems to inherit log level of other logger. Why?

    - by AndrewR
    I've got a log4J setup in which the root logger is supposed to log ERROR level messages and above to the console and another logger logs everything to syslog. log4j.properties is: # Root logger option log4j.rootLogger=ERROR,R log4j.appender.R=org.apache.log4j.ConsoleAppender log4j.appender.R.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.R.layout.ConversionPattern=%d %p %t %c - %m%n log4j.logger.SGSearch=DEBUG,SGSearch log4j.appender.SGSearch=org.apache.log4j.net.SyslogAppender log4j.appender.SGSearch.SyslogHost=localhost log4j.appender.SGSearch.Facility=LOCAL6 log4j.appender.SGSearch.layout=org.apache.log4j.PatternLayout log4j.appender.SGSearch.layout.ConversionPattern=[%-5p] %m%n In code I do private static final Logger logger = Logger.getLogger("SGSearch"); . . . logger.info("Commencing snapshot index [" + args[1] + " -> " + args[2] + "]"); What is happening is that I get the console logging for all logging levels. What seems to be happening is that the level for SGSearch overrides the level set for the root logger somehow. I can't figure it out. I have confirmed that Log4J is reading then properties file I think it is, and no other (via the -Dlog4j.debug option)

    Read the article

  • Bluetooth to arduino

    - by user1833709
    My current project includes an Arduino Uno attached via USB to a laptop. The laptop is there is receive messages via bluetooth (I realize I could connect a bluetooth modem directly to the arduino but this project has to come in under budget). What I'd ideally like to do is write a program that continually checks whether the laptop has been paired to a bluetooth transmitter (my phone) and sends this to the arduino. Do you think should write a program that checks the bluetooth state and writes a 0 or 1 to a text document, and then use something like Gobetwino to read from the text document? I could probably figure out how to continually read from the file, but I don't know enough about bluetooth to know how to check whether it's paired or not, computer-side. Something that writes directly to the arduino instead of a text document would be my preference, but I don't know where to start. I'm using an Android phone and Windows 7. If you need more info about the setup, just ask. Does anyone have any experience with this?

    Read the article

  • NullPointerException in generated JSP code calling setJspId()

    - by Dobbo
    I am trying to deploy the Duke's Bank example form the J2EE 5 tutorial on JBoss 7.1.1. I have only used (unaltered) the source, and the standard XML configuration files for deployment, part of the exercise here is to see how I might structure a JSP based project of my own. The exception I get is as follows: ERROR [[jsp]] Servlet.service() for servlet jsp threw exception: java.lang.NullPointerException at javax.faces.webapp.UIComponentClassicTagBase.setJspId(UIComponentClassicTagBase.java:1858) [jboss-jsf-api_2.1_spec-2.0.1.Final.jar:2.0.1.Final] at org.apache.jsp.main_jsp._jspx_meth_f_005fview_005f0(main_jsp.java:99) at org.apache.jsp.main_jsp._jspService(main_jsp.java:76) at org.apache.jasper.runtime.HttpJspBase.service(HttpJspBase.java:70) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:847) [jboss-servlet-api_3.0_spec-1.0.0.Final.jar:1.0.0.Final] at org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServletWrapper.service(JspServletWrapper.java:369) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.serviceJspFile(JspServlet.java:326) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.jasper.servlet.JspServlet.service(JspServlet.java:253) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:847) [jboss-servlet-api_3.0_spec-1.0.0.Final.jar:1.0.0.Final] at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:329) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:248) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:275) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:161) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.catalina.authenticator.AuthenticatorBase.invoke(AuthenticatorBase.java:397) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.jboss.as.jpa.interceptor.WebNonTxEmCloserValve.invoke(WebNonTxEmCloserValve.java:50) [jboss-as-jpa-7.1.1.Final.jar:7.1.1.Final] at org.jboss.as.web.security.SecurityContextAssociationValve.invoke(SecurityContextAssociationValve.java:153) [jboss-as-web-7.1.1.Final.jar:7.1.1.Final] at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:155) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:368) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:877) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:671) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:930) [jbossweb-7.0.13.Final.jar:] at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:636) [rt.jar:1.6.0_18] I have not given any JBoss configuration files, the WAR's WEB-INF part looks like this: $ jar tvf build/lib/dukebank-web.war 0 Sat Dec 15 22:00:12 GMT 2012 META-INF/ 123 Sat Dec 15 22:00:10 GMT 2012 META-INF/MANIFEST.MF 0 Sat Dec 15 22:00:12 GMT 2012 WEB-INF/ 2514 Fri Dec 14 14:29:20 GMT 2012 WEB-INF/web.xml 1348 Sat Dec 15 08:19:46 GMT 2012 WEB-INF/dukesBank.tld 7245 Sat Dec 15 08:19:46 GMT 2012 WEB-INF/faces-config.xml 2153 Sat Dec 15 08:19:46 GMT 2012 WEB-INF/tutorial-template.tld 0 Sat Dec 15 22:00:12 GMT 2012 WEB-INF/classes/... The JSP file (main.jsp) that causes this problem is: <f:view> <h:form> <jsp:include page="/template/template.jsp"/> <center> <h3><h:outputText value="#{bundle.Welcome}"/></h3> </center> </h:form> </f:view> The template file it includes: <%@ taglib uri="/WEB-INF/tutorial-template.tld" prefix="tt" %> <%@ page errorPage="/template/errorpage.jsp" %> <%@ include file="/template/screendefinitions.jspf" %> <html> <head> <title> <tt:insert definition="bank" parameter="title"/> </title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="stylesheet.css"> </head> <body bgcolor="#ffffff"> <tt:insert definition="bank" parameter="banner"/> <tt:insert definition="bank" parameter="links"/> </body> </html> I will refrain from coping any more files because, as I said at the start I haven't altered any of the files I have used. Many thanks for your help, Steve

    Read the article

  • Global javascript variable not accessible in jquery change event

    - by Dan
    I have to be missing something simple, but I'm really not sure what. I'm not a JS veteran, so this may be an easy answer - sure hope so :). I have a button that, when clicked, gets JSON data. When a drop-down is changed, I check to see if there is data, if there is, I want to clear it out as the drop-down indicates what data to retrieve when the button is clicked The Code: var selected, $locDialog; var locations = []; $(function() { // Save the selected Name selected = $("#selected option:selected").val(); // Setup Dialog for Locations $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false }); // If user changes the selected // 1. Prompt for confirmation // 2. If users confirms, clear data $('#selected').change(function() { if (locations) { var confirmed = confirm("Oh Rly?"); if (confirmed) { // Clear data var locations; } } }); // When user clicks "Location" Button.. $('.loc-select button').click(function() { if (!locations) { $.getJSON("/Controller/JSONAction", { selectedId: selected, pageNum: 1, pageSize: 100 }, function(data) { locations = data; $.each(locations, function(index, loc) { var $tr = $('<tr/>') .append($('<td/>') .append('<input type="checkbox" name="TEST-'+index+'" value="'+loc.Id+'"/>')) .append('<td>' + loc.Name + '</td>'); $("#location-dialog table tbody").append($tr); }); }); } $locDialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); }); Here's the thing, Inside the .click(...) callback, I can see locations is []. Now, when I am in the .change(...) callback, I see locations is undefined. Any help/insight, as always, is appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 660 661 662 663 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671  | Next Page >