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  • Remove never-run call to templated function, get allocation error on run-time

    - by Narfanator
    First off, I'm a bit at a loss as to how to ask this question. So I'm going to try throwing lots of information at the problem. Ok, so, I went to completely redesign my test project for my experimental core library thingy. I use a lot of template shenanigans in the library. When I removed the "user" code, the tests gave me a memory allocation error. After quite a bit of experimenting, I narrowed it down to this bit of code (out of a couple hundred lines): void VOODOO(components::switchBoard &board){ board.addComponent<using_allegro::keyInputs<'w'> >(); } Fundementally, what's weirding me out is that it appears that the act of compiling this function (and the template function it then uses, and the template functions those then use...), makes this bug not appear. This code is not being run. Similar code (the same, but for different key vals) occurs elsewhere, but is within Boost TDD code. I realize I certainly haven't given enough information for you to solve it for me; I tried, but it more-or-less spirals into most of the code base. I think I'm most looking for "here's what the problem could be", "here's where to look", etc. There's something that's happening during compile because of this line, but I don't know enough about that step to begin looking. Sooo, how can a (presumably) compilied, but never actually run, bit of templated code, when removed, cause another part of code to fail? Error: Unhandled exceptionat 0x6fe731ea (msvcr90d.dll) in Switchboard.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xcdcdcdc1. Callstack: operator delete(void * pUser Data) allocator< class name related to key inputs callbacks ::deallocate vector< same class ::_Insert_n(...) vector< " " ::insert(...) vector<" "::push_back(...) It looks like maybe the vector isn't valid, because _MyFirst and similar data members are showing values of 0xcdcdcdcd in the debugger. But the vector is a member variable...

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  • MooTools event listener disappears after element.innerHTML is changed

    - by acoder
    Hi everyone, I am trying to achieve this task using MooTools. Description: I attached an event listener to "myButton" link. A click on this link initiates an AJAX request and updates "myDiv" content based on the response text. During this request a POST variable is being sent to "button.php", but it's not used at the moment.. (i wish to use it later) OK, as a result, "myDiv" gets exactly the same link with the same ID (myButton) + a random number, so that we could see that each click generates a new number. The problem: After the first click on "myButton", "myDiv" updates correctly, showing a random number. When I click "myButton" for the second time (this time in newly updated div), the div does not refresh anymore. Please note that I need "myButton" to be inside "myDiv", and "myDiv" must be updated (refreshed) after each click without having to refresh the entire page. Can somebody show me how to achieve this task based on this simplified code example? index.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="mootools-1.2.4-core-nc.js"></script> <script> window.addEvent('domready', function() { $('myButton').addEvent('click', function(e) { e.stop(); var myRequest = new Request({ method: 'post', url: 'button.php', data: { action : 'test' }, onRequest: function() { $('myDiv').innerHTML = '<img src="images/loading.gif" />'; }, onComplete: function(response) { $('myDiv').innerHTML = response; } }); myRequest.send(); $('myButton').removeEvent('click'); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="myDiv"> <a id="myButton" href="#">Button</a> </div> </body> </html> button.php <a id="myButton" href="#">Button</a> clicked <?php echo rand(1,100); ?>

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  • In what circumstances are instance variables declared as '_var' in 'use fields' readonly?

    - by Pedro Silva
    I'm trying to understand the behavior of the fields pragma, which I find poorly documented, regarding fields prefixed with underscores. This is what the documentation has to say about it: Field names that start with an underscore character are made private to the class and are not visible to subclasses. Inherited fields can be overridden but will generate a warning if used together with the -w switch. This is not consistent with its actual behavior, according to my test, below. Not only are _-prefixed fields visible within a subclass, they are visible within foreign classes as well (unless I don't get what 'visible' means). Also, directly accessing the restricted hash works fine. Where can I find more about the behavior of the fields pragma, short of going at the source code? { package Foo; use strict; use warnings; use fields qw/a _b __c/; sub new { my ( $class ) = @_; my Foo $self = fields::new($class); $self->a = 1; $self->b = 2; $self->c = 3; return $self; } sub a : lvalue { shift->{a} } sub b : lvalue { shift->{_b} } sub c : lvalue { shift->{__c} } } { package Bar; use base 'Foo'; use strict; use warnings; use Data::Dumper; my $o = Bar->new; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 2, '__c' => 3, 'a' => 1}, 'Foo'); $o->a = 4; $o->b = 5; $o->c = 6; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 5, '__c' => 6, 'a' => 4}, 'Foo'); $o->{a} = 7; $o->{_b} = 8; $o->{__c} = 9; print Dumper $o; ##$VAR1 = bless({'_b' => 8, '__c' => 9, 'a' => 7}, 'Foo'); }

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  • How do you select form elements in JQuery based upon an html table?

    - by Swoop
    I am working on some ASP.NET web forms which involves some dynamic generation, and I need to add some onClick helpers on the client side. I have a basic outline of something working, except for one huge problem. There are multiple HTML tables, each generated by a different ASP.NET web control. Each table can contain overlapping field names, which is causing a problem with my JQuery click event handlers. The click event handler is linking to unintended form fields in addition to the intended form field. I have provided a simplified sample version of the code below. This code is trying to set the value of textbox box1 when a particular radiobutton is selected in the table with id=thing1. Obviously, the jquery code will be triggered for the form fields in both tables. The tables are dynamically added to the webpage based upon different conditions. It is possible that no tables will be loaded, only 1 table, or both tables might load. In the future, other tables could be added. Each table comes from a different .net web control. Other than renaming the form fields to make sure they are unique across all user controls, is there a way to have JQuery act only on the intended form fields? In other words, could the table ID be incorporated into the JQuery code in a manner that does not become a nightmare to maintain later? <script> $(document).ready(function() { $("[id$=radio1_0]").click(function() { $("[id$=box1]").attr("value", ""); }); $("[id$=radio1_1]").click(function() { $("[id$=box1]").attr("value", "N/A"); }); </script> <table id="thing1"> <tr><td> <radiobuttonlist id="radio1"/> <listitem>yes</listitem> <listitem>no</listitem> </td></tr> <tr><td> <textbox id="box1"/> </td></tr> </table> <table id="thing2"> <tr><td> <radiobuttonlist id="radio1"/> <listitem>yes</listitem> <listitem>no</listitem> </td></tr> <tr><td> <textbox id="box1"/> </tr></td> </table>

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  • CSS Graph- Bars not showing correctly

    - by Olivia
    I'm trying to create a CSS/HTML based graph using this tutorial here. However instead of putting the data directly into the html code I'm importing it from a CSV file using PHP with the following code. <?PHP /* Open CSV file */ $handle = fopen("defects.csv", "r"); $c = 0; /* gets data from csv file */ while (($data = fgetcsv($handle, 1000, ",")) !== FALSE) { /* stores dates as variable $date */ $date[$c] = $data[0]; $c++; /* inserts defect data into html code */ echo "<dd class=\"p" . $data[2] . "\"><span><b>" . $data[2] . "</b></span></dd>"; echo "<dd class=\"sub p" . $data[3] . "\" ><span><b>" . $data[3] . "</b></span></dd>"; } echo "</dl>"; echo "<ul class=\"xAxis\">"; /* X AXIS */ /* inserts date data into html code for x axis */ for ($d=0; $d < $c; $d++) { echo "<li>" . $date[$d] . "</li>"; } ?> The values are being placed correctly on the chart, but the bars aren't appearing. The CSS code I have for the bars is: /* default column styling */ dl#csschart span{ height:50%; background:url(../images/barx.png) repeat-y; } dl#csschart .sub{ margin-left:-33px; } dl#csschart .sub span{ background:url(../images/subBarx.png) repeat-y; } Just in case it helps, I've print screened how the graph should look. You can see it at: http://allured.info/graph/failgraph.png

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  • Upgrading Entity Framework 1.0 to 4.0 to include foreign keys

    - by duthiega
    Currently I've been working with Entity Framework 1.0 which is located under a service façade. Below is one of the save methods I've created to either update or insert the device in question. This currently works but, I can't help feel that its a bit of a hack having to set the referenced properties to null then re-attach them just to get an insert to work. The changedDevice already holds these values, so why do I need to assign them again. So, I thought I'll update the model to EF4. That way I can just directly access the foreign keys. However, on doing this I've found that there doesn't seem to be an easy way to add the foreign keys except by removing the entity from the diagram and re-adding it. I don't want to do this as I've already been through all the entity properties renaming them from the DB column names. Can anyone help? /// <summary> /// Saves the non network device. /// </summary> /// <param name="nonNetworkDeviceDto">The non network device dto.</param> public void SaveNonNetworkDevice(NonNetworkDeviceDto nonNetworkDeviceDto) { using (var context = new AssetNetworkEntities2()) { var changedDevice = TransformationHelper.ConvertNonNetworkDeviceDtoToEntity(nonNetworkDeviceDto); if (!nonNetworkDeviceDto.DeviceId.Equals(-1)) { var originalDevice = context.NonNetworkDevices.Include("Status").Include("NonNetworkType").FirstOrDefault( d => d.DeviceId.Equals(nonNetworkDeviceDto.DeviceId)); context.ApplyAllReferencedPropertyChanges(originalDevice, changedDevice); context.ApplyCurrentValues(originalDevice.EntityKey.EntitySetName, changedDevice); } else { var maxNetworkDevice = context.NonNetworkDevices.OrderBy("it.DeviceId DESC").First(); changedDevice.DeviceId = maxNetworkDevice.DeviceId + 1; var status = changedDevice.Status; var nonNetworkType = changedDevice.NonNetworkType; changedDevice.Status = null; changedDevice.NonNetworkType = null; context.AttachTo("DeviceStatuses", status); if (nonNetworkType != null) { context.AttachTo("NonNetworkTypes", nonNetworkType); } changedDevice.Status = status; changedDevice.NonNetworkType = nonNetworkType; context.AddToNonNetworkDevices(changedDevice); } context.SaveChanges(); } }

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  • Urgent help needed on How to update NSMutableDictionary. My code doesn't work.

    - by dawatson833
    I've populated an array using. arrSettings = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:[self settingsPath]]; The file is a plist with the root as an array and then a dictionary with three three keys defined as number. I've also tried setting the keys to string. I display the values in the plist file on a view using. diaper = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; oil = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Oil Used"]; tree = [[arrSettings objectAtIndex:0] objectForKey:@"Wood Used"]; This code works fine, the values in the dictionary are assigned to the variables and they are displayed. The user can make changes and then press a save button. I use this code to extract the dictionary part of the array so I can update it. The assignment to editDictionary works. I've double checked the key names including case and that is correct. editDictionary = [[NSMutableDictionary alloc] init]; editDictionary = [arrSettings objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:diaperAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Diaper Expenses"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:oilAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Oil Used"]; myNumber = [NSNumber numberWithFloat:treeAmount]; [editDictionary setValue:myNumber forKey:@"Wood Used"]; In this example I've used a nsnumber. But I've also tried the xxxAmount field as part of SetValue instead of creating a NSNumber. Neither implementation works. Several strange things happen. Sometimes the first two setvalue statements work, but the last setvalue fails with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS failure. Other times the first setValue fails with the same error. I have no idea why the first two sometimes work. I'm at a loss of what to do next. I've tried several implentations and none of them work. Also, in the debugger how can I display the editDictionary elements. I can see editDictionary, but I don't know how to display the individual elements.

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  • Displaying xaml resources dynamically?

    - by Robert
    I used Mike Swanson's illustrator to xaml converter to convert some of my images to xaml. The convert creates a viewbox that contains the image. These viewboxes I made resource files in my program. The code below shows what I'm trying to do: I have a viewmodel that has an enum variable called PrimaryWinding of type Windings. The values PrimD and PrimY of the enum select the respective PrimD and PrimY xaml files in the resources. <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="PrimTrafo" DataType="{x:Type l:Windings}"> <Frame Source="{Binding}" x:Name="PART_Image" NavigationUIVisibility="Hidden"> <Frame.LayoutTransform> <ScaleTransform ScaleX="0.5" ScaleY="0.5"/> </Frame.LayoutTransform> </Frame> <DataTemplate.Triggers> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding}" Value="PrimD"> <Setter TargetName="PART_Image" Property="Source" Value="Resources\PrimD.xaml" /> </DataTrigger> <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding}" Value="PrimY"> <Setter TargetName="PART_Image" Property="Source" Value="Resources\PrimY.xaml" /> </DataTrigger> </DataTemplate.Triggers> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> <!--The contentcontrol that holds the datatemplate defined above--> <Grid > <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="2*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="2*"></ColumnDefinition> <ColumnDefinition Width="1*"></ColumnDefinition> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ContentControl Grid.Column="0" Content="{Binding PrimaryWinding}" ContentTemplate="{StaticResource PrimTrafo}"/> </Grid> This code works. Only I can't resize the drawings to the size of the grid cell. I added the ScaleTransform class to resize the image. Is a Frame the wrong class to hold the drawings? Should I use the ScaleTransform class to resize the drawing to the size of the cell? And how can I do that dynamically?

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  • Parsing XML file using a for loop

    - by Johnny Spintel
    I have been working on this program which inserts an XML file into a MYSQL database. I'm new to the whole .jar idea by inserting packages. Im having an issue with parse(), select(), and children(). Can someone inform me how I could fix this issue? Here is my stack trace and my program below: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.Error: Unresolved compilation problems: The method select(String) is undefined for the type Document The method children() is undefined for the type Element The method children() is undefined for the type Element The method children() is undefined for the type Element The method children() is undefined for the type Element at jdbc.parseXML.main(parseXML.java:28) import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; import org.jsoup.Jsoup; import org.w3c.dom.*; import javax.xml.parsers.*; public class parseXML{ public static void main(String xml) { try{ BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(new File("C:\\staff.xml"))); String line; StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); while((line=br.readLine())!= null){ sb.append(line.trim()); } Document doc = Jsoup.parse(line); StringBuilder queryBuilder; StringBuilder columnNames; StringBuilder values; for (Element row : doc.select("row")) { // Start the query queryBuilder = new StringBuilder("insert into customer("); columnNames = new StringBuilder(); values = new StringBuilder(); for (int x = 0; x < row.children().size(); x++) { // Append the column name and it's value columnNames.append(row.children().get(x).tagName()); values.append(row.children().get(x).text()); if (x != row.children().size() - 1) { // If this is not the last item, append a comma columnNames.append(","); values.append(","); } else { // Otherwise, add the closing paranthesis columnNames.append(")"); values.append(")"); } } // Add the column names and values to the query queryBuilder.append(columnNames); queryBuilder.append(" values("); queryBuilder.append(values); // Print the query System.out.println(queryBuilder); } }catch (Exception err) { System.out.println(" " + err.getMessage ()); } } }

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  • Ruby/Rails - Add records to an object with each loop iteration / Object vs Arrays

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    I'm trying to figure out how to add records to an existing object for each iteration of a loop. I'm having a hard time discovering the difference between an object and an array. I have this @events = Event.find(1) @loops = Choices.find(:all, :limit => 5) #so loop for 5 instances of choice model for loop in @loops @events = Event.find(:all,:conditions => ["event.id = ?", loop.event_id ]) end I'm trying to add a new events to the existing @events object based on the id of whatever the loop variable is. But the ( = ) operator just creates a new instance of the @events object. I tried ( += ) and ( << ) as operators but got the error "You have a nil object when you didn't expect it! You might have expected an instance of Array. The error occurred while evaluating nil" I tried created an array events = [] events << Event.find(1) @loops = Choices.find(:all, :limit => 5) #so loop for 5 instances of choice model for loop in @loops events << Event.find(:all,:conditions => ["event.id = ?", loop.event_id ]) end But I dont know how to call that arrays attributes within the view With objects I was able do create a loop within the view and call all the attributes of that object as well... <table> <% for event in @events %> <tr> <td><%= link_to event.title, event %></td> <td><%= event.start_date %></td> <td><%= event.price %></td> </tr> <% end %> </table> How could i do this with an array set? So the questions are 1) Whats the difference between arrays and objects? 2) Is there a way to add into the existing object for each iteration? 3) If I use an array, is there a way to call the attributes for each array record within the view?

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  • What's Wrong With My VB.NET Code Of Windows Forms Application?

    - by Krishanu Dey
    I've to forms frmPrint & frmEmail and a dataset(MyDataset) with some DataTable and DataTable Adapters. In frmPrint I've the following Sub Public Sub StartPrinting() try adapterLettersInSchedules.Fill(ds.LettersInSchedules) adapterLetters.Fill(ds.Letters) adapterClients.Fill(ds.Clients) adapterPrintJobs.GetPrintJobsDueToday(ds.PrintJobs, False, DateTime.Today) For Each prow As MyDataSet.PrintJobsRow In ds.PrintJobs Dim lisrow As MyDataSet.LettersInSchedulesRow = ds.LettersInSchedules.FindByID(prow.LetterInScheduleID) If lisrow.Isemail = False Then Dim clientrow As MyDataSet.ClientsRow = ds.Clients.FindByClientID(prow.ClientID) Dim letterrow As MyDataSet.LettersRow = ds.Letters.FindByID(lisrow.LetterID) 'prow. 'lisrow.is Label1.SuspendLayout() Label1.Refresh() Label1.Text = "Printing letter" txt.Rtf = letterrow.LetterContents txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%Firstname%>", clientrow.FirstName) txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%Lastname%>", clientrow.LastName) txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%Title%>", clientrow.Title) txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%Street%>", clientrow.Street) txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%City%>", clientrow.City) txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%State%>", clientrow.State) txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%Zip%>", clientrow.Zip) txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%PhoneH%>", clientrow.PhoneH) txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%PhoneW%>", clientrow.PhoneW) txt.Rtf = txt.Rtf.Replace("<%Date%>", DateTime.Today.ToShortDateString) Try PDoc.PrinterSettings = printDlg.PrinterSettings PDoc.Print() prow.Printed = True adapterPrintJobs.Update(prow) Catch ex As Exception End Try End If Next prow ds.PrintJobs.Clear() Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message, "Print", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error) End Try End Sub And in frmEmail i've the Following Sub Public Sub SendEmails() try adapterLettersInSchedules.Fill(ds.LettersInSchedules) adapterLetters.Fill(ds.Letters) adapterClients.Fill(ds.Clients) adapterEmailJobs.GetEmailJobsDueToday(ds.EmailJobs, False, Today) Dim ls_string As String For Each prow As MyDataSet.EmailJobsRow In ds.EmailJobs Dim lisrow As MyDataSet.LettersInSchedulesRow = ds.LettersInSchedules.FindByID(prow.LetterInScheduleID) If lisrow.Isemail = True Then Dim clientrow As MyDataSet.ClientsRow = ds.Clients.FindByClientID(prow.ClientID) Dim letterrow As MyDataSet.LettersRow = ds.Letters.FindByID(lisrow.LetterID) txt.Rtf = letterrow.LetterContents ls_string = RTF2HTML(txt.Rtf) ls_string = Mid(ls_string, 1, Len(ls_string) - 176) If ls_string = "" Then Throw New Exception("Rtf To HTML Conversion Failed") Label1.SuspendLayout() Label1.Refresh() Label1.Text = "Sending Email" If SendEmail(clientrow.Email, ls_string, letterrow.EmailSubject) Then Try prow.Emailed = True adapterEmailJobs.Update(prow) Catch ex As Exception End Try Else prow.Emailed = False adapterEmailJobs.Update(prow) End If End If Next prow Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message, "Email", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error) End Try End Sub I'm running this two subs using two different Threads. Public th As New Thread(New ThreadStart(AddressOf StartFirstPrint)) Public th4 As New Thread(New ThreadStart(AddressOf sendFirstEmail)) Here is the code of StartFirstPrint and sendFirstEmail Public Sub StartFirstPrint() Do While thCont Try Dim frm As New frmPrint() 'frm.MdiParent = Me frm.StartPrinting() Catch ex As Exception End Try Loop End Sub Public Sub sendFirstEmail() Do While thCont Try Dim frmSNDEmail As New frmEmail frmSNDEmail.SendEmails() Catch ex As Exception End Try Loop End Sub the thCont is a public boolean variable that specifies when to shop those threads. Most Of the time this works very well. But some times it gives errors Like the following image I don't know why is this occurring. Please help me.

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  • Having problems creating an array from XML data in Acrobat Javascript, please help if you can

    - by Kevin Minke
    I have a manually created array that already works example below: var PartsData = { 179: { ref:"", partNum: "201-2007-C00-00", descript: "System Monitor Card (Tracewell Only)", cage: "39764", qty: "1", SMR: "XBOZZ", UOC: "A" }}; Now this array above is is just one value in the array and it works fine. Here is the XML that I am trying to use to dynamically change the values. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <partsTables> <partsList> <part sheetNum="ta1"> <breakDownIndexNo>-1 </breakDownIndexNo> <referenceDesg/> <indent>20534220P01 </indent> <description/> <cage>TAC RI, GRADE-A SHOCK (TEC RACK), ALT P/N 72304-1</cage> <qtyPerAssy>23991 </qtyPerAssy> <smr>1 </smr> <uoc>ADODD </uoc> <blank/> </part> </partsList> </partsTables> I have this parsing just fine in Acrobat. Now I want to make the array work for me in using these values. if I have the following below it will work. Where part.item(i).indent.value equals the value of the indent node, etc. newArr = { 179: { ref: part.item(i).referenceDesg.value, partNum: part.item(i).indent.value, descript: part.item(i).cage.value, cage: part.item(i).qtyPerAssy.value, qty: part.item(i).smr.value, SMR: part.item(i).uoc.value, UOC: part.item(i).blank.value}}; As soon as I try to make the 179 value, which is in the breakDownIndexNo node, dynamic by using the direct part.item(i).breakDownIndexNo.value it will not compile. Acrobat is using javascript so I'm not sure why I can not get this to parse. I have tried to create a variable out of the breakDownIndexNo node and typed it to both a String and an Integer. this will let it create the array but it will not let me output from the array. newArr[indexNum].partNum gives me "no properties" where newArr[179].partNum if I were to manually set the index number to 179 will print out the value of part.item(i).indent.value. If any of you have an idea or an answer please let me know.

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  • Parsing string logic issue c#

    - by N0xus
    This is a follow on from this question My program is taking in a string that is comprised of two parts: a distance value and an id number respectively. I've split these up and stored them in local variables inside my program. All of the id numbers are stored in a dictionary and are used check the incoming distance value. Though I should note that each string that gets sent into my program from the device is passed along on a single string. The next time my program receives that a signal from a device, it overrides the previous data that was there before. Should the id key coming into my program match one inside my dictionary, then a variable held next to my dictionaries key, should be updated. However, when I run my program, I don't get 6 different values, I only get the same value and they all update at the same time. This is all the code I have written trying to do this: Dictionary<string, string> myDictonary = new Dictionary<string, string>(); string Value1 = ""; string Value2 = ""; string Value3 = ""; string Value4 = ""; string Value5 = ""; string Value6 = ""; void Start() { myDictonary.Add("11111111", Value1); myDictonary.Add("22222222", Value2); myDictonary.Add("33333333", Value3); myDictonary.Add("44444444", Value4); myDictonary.Add("55555555", Value5); myDictonary.Add("66666666", Value6); } private void AppendString(string message) { testMessage = message; string[] messages = message.Split(','); foreach(string w in messages) { if(!message.StartsWith(" ")) outputContent.text += w + "\n"; } messageCount = "RSSI number " + messages[0]; uuidString = "UUID number " + messages[1]; if(myDictonary.ContainsKey(messages[1])) { Value1 = messageCount; Value2 = messageCount; Value3 = messageCount; Value4 = messageCount; Value5 = messageCount; Value6 = messageCount; } } How can I get it so that when programs recives the first key, for example 1111111, it only updates Value1? The information that comes through can be dynamic, so I'd like to avoid harding as much information as I possibly can.

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  • Can I write a test that succeeds if and only if a statement does not compile?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I'd like to prevent clients of my class from doing something stupid. To that end, I have used the type system, and made my class only accept specific types as input. Consider the following example (Not real code, I've left off things like virtual destructors for the sake of example): class MyDataChunk { //Look Ma! Implementation! }; class Sink; class Source { virtual void Run() = 0; Sink *next_; void SetNext(Sink *next) { next_ = next; } }; class Sink { virtual void GiveMeAChunk(const MyDataChunk& data) { //Impl }; }; class In { virtual void Run { //Impl } }; class Out { }; //Note how filter and sorter have the same declaration. Concrete classes //will inherit from them. The seperate names are there to ensure only //that some idiot doesn't go in and put in a filter where someone expects //a sorter, etc. class Filter : public Source, public Sink { //Drop objects from the chain-of-command pattern that don't match a particular //criterion. }; class Sorter : public Source, public Sink { //Sorts inputs to outputs. There are different sorters because someone might //want to sort by filename, size, date, etc... }; class MyClass { In i; Out o; Filter f; Sorter s; public: //Functions to set i, o, f, and s void Execute() { i.SetNext(f); f.SetNext(s); s.SetNext(o); i.Run(); } }; What I don't want is for somebody to come back later and go, "Hey, look! Sorter and Filter have the same signature. I can make a common one that does both!", thus breaking the semantic difference MyClass requires. Is this a common kind of requirement, and if so, how might I implement a test for it?

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  • Are Objective-C initializers allowed to share the same name?

    - by NattKatt
    I'm running into an odd issue in Objective-C when I have two classes using initializers of the same name, but differently-typed arguments. For example, let's say I create classes A and B: A.h: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface A : NSObject { } - (id)initWithNum:(float)theNum; @end A.m: #import "A.h" @implementation A - (id)initWithNum:(float)theNum { self = [super init]; if (self != nil) { NSLog(@"A: %f", theNum); } return self; } @end B.h: #import <Cocoa/Cocoa.h> @interface B : NSObject { } - (id)initWithNum:(int)theNum; @end B.m: #import "B.h" @implementation B - (id)initWithNum:(int)theNum { self = [super init]; if (self != nil) { NSLog(@"B: %d", theNum); } return self; } @end main.m: #import <Foundation/Foundation.h> #import "A.h" #import "B.h" int main (int argc, const char * argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; A *a = [[A alloc] initWithNum:20.0f]; B *b = [[B alloc] initWithNum:10]; [a release]; [b release]; [pool drain]; return 0; } When I run this, I get the following output: 2010-04-26 20:44:06.820 FnTest[14617:a0f] A: 20.000000 2010-04-26 20:44:06.823 FnTest[14617:a0f] B: 1 If I reverse the order of the imports so it imports B.h first, I get: 2010-04-26 20:45:03.034 FnTest[14635:a0f] A: 0.000000 2010-04-26 20:45:03.038 FnTest[14635:a0f] B: 10 For some reason, it seems like it's using the data type defined in whichever @interface gets included first for both classes. I did some stepping through the debugger and found that the isa pointer for both a and b objects ends up the same. I also found out that if I no longer make the alloc and init calls inline, both initializations seem to work properly, e.g.: A *a = [A alloc]; [a initWithNum:20.0f]; If I use this convention when I create both a and b, I get the right output and the isa pointers seem to be different for each object. Am I doing something wrong? I would have thought multiple classes could have the same initializer names, but perhaps that is not the case.

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  • Using Selenium-IDE with a rich Javascript application?

    - by Darien
    Problem At my workplace, we're trying to find the best way to create automated-tests for an almost wholly javascript-driven intranet application. Right now we're stuck trying to find a good tradeoff between: Application code in reusable and nest-able GUI components. Tests which are easily created by the testing team Tests which can be recorded once and then automated Tests which do not break after small cosmetic changes to the site XPath expressions (or other possible expressions, like jQuery selectors) naively generated from Selenium-IDE are often non-repeatable and very fragile. Conversely, having the JS code generate special unique ID values for every important DOM-element on the page... well, that is its own headache, complicated by re-usable GUI components and IDs needing to be consistent when the test is re-run. What successes have other people had with this kind of thing? How do you do automated application-level testing of a rich JS interface? Limitations We are using JavascriptMVC 2.0, hopefully 3.0 soon so that we can upgrade to jQuery 1.4.x. The test-making folks are mostly trained to use Selenium IDE to directly record things. The test leads would prefer a page-unique HTML ID on each clickable element on the page... Training the testers to write or alter special expressions (such as telling them which HTML class-names are important branching points) is a no-go. We try to make re-usable javascript components, but this means very few GUI components can treat themselves (or what they contain) as unique. Some of our components already use HTML ID values in their operation. I'd like to avoid doing this anyway, but it complicates the idea of ID-based testing. It may be possible to add custom facilities (like a locator-builder or new locator method) to the Selenium-IDE installation testers use. Almost everything that goes on occurs within a single "page load" from a conventional browser perspective, even when items are saved Current thoughts I'm considering a system where a custom locator-builder (javascript code) for Selenium-IDE will talk with our application code as the tester is recording. In this way, our application becomes partially responsible for generating a mostly-flexible expression (XPath or jQuery) for any given DOM element. While this can avoid requiring more training for testers, I worry it may be over-thinking things.

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  • Memory leaks getting sub-images from video (cvGetSubRect)

    - by dnul
    Hi, i'm trying to do video windowing that is: show all frames from a video and also some sub-image from each frame. This sub-image can change size and be taken from a different position of the original frame. So , the code i've written does basically this: cvQueryFrame to get a new image from the video Create a new IplImage (img) with sub-image dimensions ( window.height,window.width) Create a new Cvmat (mat) with sub-image dimensions ( window.height,window.width) CvGetSubRect(originalImage,mat,window) seizes the sub-image transform Mat (cvMat) to img (IplImage) using cvGetImage my problem is that for each frame i create new IplImage and cvMat which take a lot of memory and when i try to free the allocated memory I get a segmentation fault or in the case of the CvMat the allocated space does not get free (valgrind keeps telling me its definetly lost space). the following code does it: int main(void){ CvCapture* capture; CvRect window; CvMat * tmp; //window size window.x=0;window.y=0;window.height=100;window.width=100; IplImage * src=NULL,*bk=NULL,* sub=NULL; capture=cvCreateFileCapture( "somevideo.wmv"); while((src=cvQueryFrame(capture))!=NULL){ cvShowImage("common",src); //get sub-image sub=cvCreateImage(cvSize(window.height,window.width),8,3); tmp =cvCreateMat(window.height, window.width,CV_8UC1); cvGetSubRect(src, tmp , window); sub=cvGetImage(tmp, sub); cvShowImage("Window",sub); //free space if(bk!=NULL) cvReleaseImage(&bk); bk=sub; cvReleaseMat(&tmp); cvWaitKey(20); //window dimensions changes window.width++; window.height++; } } cvReleaseMat(&tmp); does not seem to have any effect on the total amount of lost memory, valgrind reports the same amount of "definetly lost" memory if i comment or uncomment this line. cvReleaseImage(&bk); produces a segmentation fault. notice i'm trying to free the previous sub-frame which i'm backing up in the bk variable. If i comment this line the program runs smoothly but with lots of memory leaks I really need to get rid of memory leaks, can anyone explain me how to correct this or even better how to correctly perform image windowing? Thank you

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  • Safely escaping and reading back a file path in ruby

    - by user336851
    I need to save a few informations about some files. Nothing too fancy so I thought I would go with a simple one line per item text file. Something like this : # write io.print "%i %s %s\n" % [File.mtime(fname), fname, Digest::SHA1.file(fname).hexdigest] # read io.each do |line| mtime, name, hash = line.scanf "%i %s %s" end Of course this doesn't work because a file name can contain spaces (breaking scanf) and line breaks (breaking IO#each). The line break problem can be avoided by dropping the use of each and going with a bunch of gets(' ') while not io.eof? mtime = Time.at(io.gets(" ").to_i) name = io.gets " " hash = io.gets "\n" end Dealing with spaces in the names is another matter. Now we need to do some escaping. note : I like space as a record delimiter but I'd have no issue changing it for one easier to use. In the case of filenames though, the only one that could help is ascii nul "\0" but a nul delimited file isn't really a text file anymore... I initially had a wall of text detailing the iterations of my struggle to make a correct escaping function and its reciprocal but it was just boring and not really useful. I'll just give you the final result: def write_name(io, val) io << val.gsub(/([\\ ])/, "\\\\\\1") # yes that' 6 backslashes ! end def read_name(io) name, continued = "", true while continued continued = false name += io.gets(' ').gsub(/\\(.)/) do |c| if c=="\\\\" "\\" elsif c=="\\ " continued=true " " else raise "unexpected backslash escape : %p (%s %i)" % [c, io.path, io.pos] end end end return name.chomp(' ') end I'm not happy at all with read_name. Way too long and akward, I feel it shouldn't be that hard. While trying to make this work I tried to come up with other ways : the bittorrent encoded / php serialize way : prefix the file name with the length of the name then just io.read(name_len.to_i). It works but it's a real pita to edit the file by hand. At this point we're halfway to a binary format. String#inspect : This one looks expressly made for that purpose ! Except it seems like the only way to get the value back is through eval. I hate the idea of eval-ing a string I didn't generate from trusted data. So. Opinions ? Isn't there some lib which can do all this ? Am I missing something obvious ? How would you do that ?

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  • How do I call a function name that is stored in a hash in Perl?

    - by Ether
    I'm sure this is covered in the documentation somewhere but I have been unable to find it... I'm looking for the syntactic sugar that will make it possible to call a method on a class whose name is stored in a hash (as opposed to a simple scalar): use strict; use warnings; package Foo; sub foo { print "in foo()\n" } package main; my %hash = (func => 'foo'); Foo->$hash{func}; If I copy $hash{func} into a scalar variable first, then I can call Foo->$func just fine... but what is missing to enable Foo->$hash{func} to work? (EDIT: I don't mean to do anything special by calling a method on class Foo -- this could just as easily be a blessed object (and in my actual code it is); it was just easier to write up a self-contained example using a class method.) EDIT 2: Just for completeness re the comments below, this is what I'm actually doing (this is in a library of Moose attribute sugar, created with Moose::Exporter): # adds an accessor to a sibling module sub foreignTable { my ($meta, $table, %args) = @_; my $class = 'MyApp::Dir1::Dir2::' . $table; my $dbAccessor = lcfirst $table; eval "require $class" or do { die "Can't load $class: $@" }; $meta->add_attribute( $table, is => 'ro', isa => $class, init_arg => undef, # don't allow in constructor lazy => 1, predicate => 'has_' . $table, default => sub { my $this = shift; $this->debug("in builder for $class"); ### here's the line that uses a hash value as the method name my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->${\$args{primaryKey}}); push @args, ( _dbObject => $this->_dbObject->$dbAccessor ) if $args{fkRelationshipExists}; $this->debug("passing these values to $class -> new: @args"); $class->new(@args); }, ); } I've replaced the marked line above with this: my $pk_accessor = $this->meta->find_attribute_by_name($args{primaryKey})->get_read_method_ref; my @args = ($args{primaryKey} => $this->$pk_accessor); PS. I've just noticed that this same technique (using the Moose meta class to look up the coderef rather than assuming its naming convention) cannot also be used for predicates, as Class::MOP::Attribute does not have a similar get_predicate_method_ref accessor. :(

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  • Database schema for simple stats project

    - by Bubnoff
    Backdrop: I have a file hierarchy of cvs files for multiple locations named by dates they cover ...by month specifically. Each cvs file in the folder is named after the location. eg', folder name: 2010-feb contains: location1.csv location2.csv Each CSV file holds records like this: 2010-06-28, 20:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 08:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 09:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 10:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 11:30:00 , 0 meaning of record columns ( column names ): Date, time, # of sessions I have a perl script that pulls the data from this mess and originally I was going to store it as json files, but am thinking a database might be more appropriate long term ...comparing year to year trends ...fun stuff like that. Pt 2 - My question/problem: So I now have a REST service that coughs up json with a test database. My question is [ I suck at db design ], how best to design a database backend for this? I am thinking the following tables would suffice and keep it simple: Location: (PK)location_code, name session: (PK)id, (FK)location_code, month, hour, num_sessions I need to be able to average sessions (plus min and max) for each hour across days of week in addition to days of week in a given month or months. I've been using perl hashes to do this and am trying to decide how best to implement this with a database. Do you think stored procedures should be used? As to the database, depending on info gathered here, it will be postgresql or sqlite. If there is no compelling reason for postgresql I'll stick with sqlite. How and where should I compare the data to hours of operation. I am storing the hours of operation in a yaml file. I currently 'match' the hour in the data to a hash from the yaml to do this. Would a database open simpler methods? I am thinking I would do this comparison as I do now then insert the data. Can be recalled with: SELECT hour, num_sessions FROM session WHERE location_code=LOC1 Since only hours of operation are present, I do not need to worry about it. Should I calculate all results as I do now then store as a stats table for different 'reports'? This, rather than processing on demand? How would this look? Anyway ...I ramble. Thanks for reading! Bubnoff

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  • go programming POST FormValue can't be printed

    - by poor_programmer
    Before I being a bit of background, I am very new to go programming language. I am running go on Win 7, latest go package installer for windows. I'm not good at coding but I do like some challenge of learning a new language. I wanted to start learn Erlang but found go very interesting based on the GO I/O videos in youtube. I'm having problem with capturing POST form values in GO. I spend three hours yesterday to get go to print a POST form value in the browser and failed miserably. I don't know what I'm doing wrong, can anyone point me to the right direction? I can easily do this in another language like C#, PHP, VB, ASP, Rails etc. I have search the entire interweb and haven't found a working sample. Below is my sample code. Here is Index.html page {{ define "title" }}Homepage{{ end }} {{ define "content" }} <h1>My Homepage</h1> <p>Hello, and welcome to my homepage!</p> <form method="POST" action="/"> <p> Enter your name : <input type="text" name="username"> </P> <p> <button>Go</button> </form> <br /><br /> {{ end }} Here is the base page <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <title>{{ template "title" . }}</title> </head> <body> <section id="contents"> {{ template "content" . }} </section> <footer id="footer"> My homepage 2012 copy </footer> </body> </html> now some go code package main import ( "fmt" "http" "strings" "html/template" ) var index = template.Must(template.ParseFiles( "templates/_base.html", "templates/index.html", )) func GeneralHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, r *http.Request) { index.Execute(w, nil) if r.Method == "POST" { a := r.FormValue("username") fmt.Fprintf(w, "hi %s!",a); //<-- this variable does not rendered in the browser!!! } } func helloHandler(w http.ResponseWriter, r *http.Request) { remPartOfURL := r.URL.Path[len("/hello/"):] fmt.Fprintf(w, "Hello %s!", remPartOfURL) } func main() { http.HandleFunc("/", GeneralHandler) http.HandleFunc("/hello/", helloHandler) http.ListenAndServe("localhost:81", nil) } Thanks! PS: Very tedious to add four space before every line of code in stackoverflow especially when you are copy pasting. Didn't find it very user friendly or is there an easier way?

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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  • C++ class member functions instantiated by traits

    - by Jive Dadson
    I am reluctant to say I can't figure this out, but I can't figure this out. I've googled and searched Stack Overflow, and come up empty. The abstract, and possibly overly vague form of the question is, how can I use the traits-pattern to instantiate non-virtual member functions? The question came up while modernizing a set of multivariate function optimizers that I wrote more than 10 years ago. The optimizers all operate by selecting a straight-line path through the parameter space away from the current best point (the "update"), then finding a better point on that line (the "line search"), then testing for the "done" condition, and if not done, iterating. There are different methods for doing the update, the line-search, and conceivably for the done test, and other things. Mix and match. Different update formulae require different state-variable data. For example, the LMQN update requires a vector, and the BFGS update requires a matrix. If evaluating gradients is cheap, the line-search should do so. If not, it should use function evaluations only. Some methods require more accurate line-searches than others. Those are just some examples. The original version instantiates several of the combinations by means of virtual functions. Some traits are selected by setting mode bits that are tested at runtime. Yuck. It would be trivial to define the traits with #define's and the member functions with #ifdef's and macros. But that's so twenty years ago. It bugs me that I cannot figure out a whiz-bang modern way. If there were only one trait that varied, I could use the curiously recurring template pattern. But I see no way to extend that to arbitrary combinations of traits. I tried doing it using boost::enable_if, etc.. The specialized state information was easy. I managed to get the functions done, but only by resorting to non-friend external functions that have the this-pointer as a parameter. I never even figured out how to make the functions friends, much less member functions. The compiler (VC++ 2008) always complained that things didn't match. I would yell, "SFINAE, you moron!" but the moron is probably me. Perhaps tag-dispatch is the key. I haven't gotten very deeply into that. Surely it's possible, right? If so, what is best practice?

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  • Basic data alignment question

    - by Broken Logic
    I've been playing around to see how my computer works under the hood. What I'm interested in is seeing is what happens on the stack inside a function. To do this I've written the following toy program: #include <stdio.h> void __cdecl Test1(char a, unsigned long long b, char c) { char c1; unsigned long long b1; char a1; c1 = 'b'; b1 = 4; a1 = 'r'; printf("%d %d - %d - %d %d Total: %d\n", (long)&b1 - (long)&a1, (long)&c1 - (long)&b1, (long)&a - (long)&c1, (long)&b - (long)&a, (long)&c - (long)&b, (long)&c - (long)&a1 ); }; struct TestStruct { char a; unsigned long long b; char c; }; void __cdecl Test2(char a, unsigned long long b, char c) { TestStruct locals; locals.a = 'b'; locals.b = 4; locals.c = 'r'; printf("%d %d - %d - %d %d Total: %d\n", (long)&locals.b - (long)&locals.a, (long)&locals.c - (long)&locals.b, (long)&a - (long)&locals.c, (long)&b - (long)&a, (long)&c - (long)&b, (long)&c - (long)&locals.a ); }; int main() { Test1('f', 0, 'o'); Test2('f', 0, 'o'); return 0; } And this spits out the following: 9 19 - 13 - 4 8 Total: 53 8 8 - 24 - 4 8 Total: 52 The function args are well behaved but as the calling convention is specified, I'd expect this. But the local variables are a bit wonky. My question is, why wouldn't these be the same? The second call seems to produce a more compact and better aligned stack. Looking at the ASM is unenlightening (at least to me), as the variable addresses are still aliased there. So I guess this is really a question about the assembler itself allocates the stack to local variables. I realise that any specific answer is likely to be platform specific. I'm more interested in a general explanation unless this quirk really is platform specific. For the record though, I'm compiling with VS2010 on a 64bit Intel machine.

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  • Problems with validates_inclusion_of, acts_as_tree and rspec

    - by Jens Fahnenbruck
    I have problems to get rspec running properly to test validates_inclusion_of my migration looks like this: class CreateCategories < ActiveRecord::Migration def self.up create_table :categories do |t| t.string :name t.integer :parent_id t.timestamps end end def self.down drop_table :categories end end my model looks like this: class Category < ActiveRecord::Base acts_as_tree validates_presence_of :name validates_uniqueness_of :name validates_inclusion_of :parent_id, :in => Category.all.map(&:id), :unless => Proc.new { |c| c.parent_id.blank? } end my factories: Factory.define :category do |c| c.name "Category One" end Factory.define :category_2, :class => Category do |c| c.name "Category Two" end my model spec looks like this: require 'spec_helper' describe Category do before(:each) do @valid_attributes = { :name => "Category" } end it "should create a new instance given valid attributes" do Category.create!(@valid_attributes) end it "should have a name and it shouldn't be empty" do c = Category.new :name => nil c.should be_invalid c.name = "" c.should be_invalid end it "should not create a duplicate names" do Category.create!(@valid_attributes) Category.new(@valid_attributes).should be_invalid end it "should not save with invalid parent" do parent = Factory(:category) child = Category.new @valid_attributes child.parent_id = parent.id + 100 child.should be_invalid end it "should save with valid parent" do child = Factory.build(:category_2) child.parent = Factory(:category) # FIXME: make it pass, it works on cosole, but I don't know why the test is failing child.should be_valid end end I get the following error: 'Category should save with valid parent' FAILED Expected #<Category id: nil, name: "Category Two", parent_id: 5, created_at: nil, updated_at: nil to be valid, but it was not Errors: Parent is missing On console everything seems to be fine and work as expected: c1 = Category.new :name => "Parent Category" c1.valid? #=> true c1.save #=> true c1.id #=> 1 c2 = Category.new :name => "Child Category" c2.valid? #=> true c2.parent_id = 100 c2.valid? #=> false c2.parent_id = 1 c2.valid? #=> true I'm running rails 2.3.5, rspec 1.3.0 and rspec-rails 1.3.2 Anybody, any idea?

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