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• CSS Table Formatting to a HTML Table

  - by Rurigok

  I am attempting to provide CSS formating to two HTML tables, but I cannot. I am setting up a webpage in HTML & CSS (with the CSS in an external sheet) and the layout of the website depends on the tables. There are 2 tables, one for the head and another for the body. They are set up whereas content is situated in one middle column of 60% width, with one column on each side of the center with 20% width each, along with other table formatting. My question is - how can I format the tables in CSS? I successfully formatted them in HTML, but this will not do. This is the CSS code for the tables - each table has the id layouttable: #layouttable{border:0px;width:100%;} #layouttable td{width:20%;vertical-align:top;} #layouttable td{width:60%;vertical-align:top;background-color:#E8E8E8;} #layouttable td{width:20%;vertical-align:top;} The tables in the html document both each have, in respective order, these elements (with content inside not shown): <table id="layouttable"><tr><td></td><td></td><td></td></tr></table> Does anyone have any idea why this CSS is not working, or can write some code to fix it? If further explanation is needed, please, ask.

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• [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

  - by bitschnau

  I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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• Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

  - by Weeble

  I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

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• How do I switch out Views in a Cocoa application?

  - by David Garcia

  So I'm beginning to learn how to use Cocoa. I think I've pretty much got it but I'm hung up on creating and switching views. I'm rewriting a game I made a little bit ago for practice. All I want is one window (preferably not resizable) and I want to be able to switch out views for different screens in the game. First, I have the main menu (Start Game, High Scores, Exit). Then I need a window for each screen (Gameplay screen, Highscore screen). What I'm getting confused with is how to design this. I looked up NSViewController thinking it manages views but it doesn't. It only manages one view by loading it really. I don't understand why I'd need to use NSViewController then. Couldn't I just have a window class that contains multiple subclasses of NSView and load them like that? I'm not sure I understand the purpose of the ViewController. Does my Window Class really need to subclass NSWindowController? I was trying to follow the example of Apple's ViewController example and it has a window controller class that's a subclass of NSWindowController. I don't see what the purpose was of subclassing that. All NSWindowController seems to add is - initWithPath:(NSString *)newPath but I fail to see the use in that either when I can just edit the plist file to open the window on start up. Apple's example also has an NSView variable and an NSViewController variable. Don't you only need one variable to store the current view? Thanks in advance guys, I'm really confused as to how this works.

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• Is it possible to specify Jquery File Upload to post back only once (for multiple files)?

  - by JaJ

  When I upload multiple files (per bluimp jquery file upload) the [httppost] action is entered once per file. Is it possible to specify one and only one postback with an enumerated file container to iterate? View: <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.7.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.ui.widget.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.iframe-transport.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery.fileupload.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <input id="fileupload" type="file" name="files" multiple="multiple"/> Controller: public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(IEnumerable<HttpPostedFileBase> files) { // This is posted back for every file that gets uploaded...I would prefer it only post back once // with a actual collection of files to iterate. foreach (var file in files) // There is only ever one file in files { var filename = Path.Combine(Server.MapPath("~/App_Data"), file.FileName); file.SaveAs(filename); } return View(); }

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• SQLAlchemy sessions - DetachedInstanceError?

  - by benjaminhkaiser

  I have a function that attempts to take a list of usernames, look each one up in a user table, and then add them to a membership table. If even one username is invalid, I want the entire list to be rolled back, including any users that have already been processed. I thought that using sessions was the best way to do this but I'm running into a DetachedInstanceError: DetachedInstanceError: Instance <Organization at 0x7fc35cb5df90> is not bound to a Session; attribute refresh operation cannot proceed Full stack trace is here. The error seems to trigger when I attempt to access the user (model) object that is returned by the query. From my reading I understand that it has something to do with there being multiple sessions, but none of the suggestions I saw on other threads worked for me. Code is below: def add_members_in_bulk(organization_eid, users): """Add users to an organization in bulk - helper function for add_member()""" """Returns "success" on success and id of first failed student on failure""" session = query_session.get_session() session.begin_nested() users = users.split('\n') for u in users: try: user = user_lookup.by_student_id(u) except ObjectNotFoundError: session.rollback() return u if user: membership.add_user_to_organization( user.entity_id, organization_eid, '', [] ) session.flush() session.commit() return 'success' here's the membership.add_user_to_organization: def add_user_to_organization(user_eid, organization_eid, title, tag_ids): """Add a User to an Organization with the given title""" user = user_lookup.by_eid(user_eid) organization = organization_lookup.by_eid(organization_eid) new_membership = OrganizationMembership( organization_eid=organization.entity_id, user_eid=user.entity_id, title=title) new_membership.tags = [get_tag_by_id(tag_id) for tag_id in tag_ids] crud.add(new_membership) and here is the lookup by ID query: def by_student_id(student_id, include_disabled=False): """Get User by RIN""" try: return get_query_set(include_disabled).filter(User.student_id == student_id).one() except NoResultFound: raise ObjectNotFoundError("User with RIN %s does not exist." % student_id)

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• Compare values in serialized column in Doctrine with Query Builder

  - by ReynierPM

  I'm building a FormType for a Symfony2 project but I need some Query Builder on the field since I need to compare some values with the one stored on DB and show the results. This is what I have: .... ->add('servicio', 'entity', array( 'mapped' => false, 'class' => 'ComunBundle:TipoServicio', 'property' => 'nombre', 'required' => true, 'label' => false, 'expanded' => true, 'multiple' => true, 'query_builder' => function (EntityRepository $er) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('ts') ->where('ts.tipo_usuario = (:tipo)') ->setParameter('tipo', 1); } )) .... But tipo_usuario at DB table is stored as serialized text for example: record1: value1 | a:1:{i:0;s:1:"1";} record2: value2 | a:4:{i:0;s:1:"1";i:1;s:1:"2";i:2;s:1:"3";i:3;s:1:"4";} I'll have two different forms (I don't know how to pass the Request to a form) in the first one I'll only show the first record and for the second one the first and second record for example: First form will show: checkbox: value1 Second form will show: checkbox: value1 checkbox: value2 I achieve this? Any help?

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• jquery selecting all elements except the last per group

  - by Anthony

  I have a table that looks like: <table> <tr> <td>one</td><td>two</td><td>three</td><td>last</td> </tr> <tr> <td>blue</td><td>red</td><td>green</td><td>last</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Monday</td><td>Tuesday</td><td>Wednesday</td><td>last</td> </tr> </table> What I want is a jquery selector that will choose all but the last td of each table row. I tried: $("tr td:not(:last)").css("background-color","red"); //changing color just as a test... But instead of all cells but the last on each row being changed, all cells but the very last one in the table are selected. Similarly, if I change it to: $("tr td:last").css("background-color","red"); the only one that changes is the very last cell. How do I choose the last (or not last) of each row?

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• Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

  - by Evgeny

  I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

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• Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

  - by kujawk

  Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

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• Google Maps API v3 - infoWindows all have same content

  - by paulriedel

  Hello, I've been having problems with the infoWindows and Google Maps API v3. Initially, I've ran into the problem that everyone else has of closing infoWindows when opening a new one. I thought to have solved the problem by defining "infowindow" beforehand. Now they close when I click on a new marker, but the content is the same. How should I re-structure my code to make sure the content is the right one each time - and only one infoWindow is open at a given time? Thank you! Paul var allLatLngs = new Array(); var last = 0; var infowindow; function displayResults(start, count){ if(start === undefined){ start = last; } if(count === undefined){ count = 20; } jQuery.each(jsresults, function(index, value) { if(index >= start && index < start+count){ var obj = jQuery.parseJSON(value); $("#textresults").append(index + ": <strong>" + obj.name + "</strong> " + Math.round(obj.distanz*100)/100 + " km entfernt" + "<br/>"); var myLatlng = new google.maps.LatLng(obj.geo_lat, obj.geo_lon); allLatLngs.push(myLatlng); var contentString = '<strong>'+obj.name+'</strong>'; infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: contentString }); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: myLatlng, //title:"Hello World!" }); marker.setMap(map); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'click', function() { if (infowindow) { infowindow.close(map,marker); } infowindow.open(map,marker); }); } }); last = start+count;

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• Need to exclude results in a MySQL query where two table fields are not of certain values (brain far

  - by DondeEstaMiCulo

  I don't know if I'm just burnt out and can't think, or what... But I can't seem to make this work right... (We're using MySQL 5.1...) I have two tables which have some transactional stuff stored in them. There will be many records per user_id in each table. Table1 and Table2 have a one-to-one relationship with each other. I want to pull records from both tables, but I want to exclude records which have certain values in both tables. I don't care if they both don't have these values, or if just one does, but both tables should not have both values. (Does this make any sense? lol) For example: SELECT t1.id, t1.type, t2.name FROM table1 t1 INNER JOIN table2 t2 ON table.xid = table2.id WHERE t1.user_id = 100 AND (t1.type != 'FOO' AND t2.name != 'BAR') So t1.type is type ENUM with about 10 different options, and t2.name is also type ENUM with 2 options. My expected results would look a little like: 1, FOO, YUM 2, BOO, BAR 3, BOO, YUM But instead, all I'm getting is: 3, BOO, YUM Because it's filtering out all records which has 'FOO' as the type, and 'BAR' as the name. I keep waiting for that D'oh! moment where it hits me and I feel like an idiot for not realizing what I'm doing wrong. But it hasn't come. And I still feel like an idiot, lol. I appreciate any light any of you can shed on this! Many thanks in advance for the help!

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• Negative number representation across multiple architechture

  - by Donotalo

  I'm working with OKI 431 micro controller. It can communicate with PC with appropriate software installed. An EEPROM is connected in the I2C bus of the micro which works as permanent memory. The PC software can read from and write to this EEPROM. Consider two numbers, B and C, each is two byte integer. B is known to both the PC software and the micro and is a constant. C will be a number so close to B such that B-C will fit in a signed 8 bit integer. After some testing, appropriate value for C will be determined by PC and will be stored into the EEPROM of the micro for later use. Now the micro can store C in two ways: The micro can store whole two byte representing C The micro can store B-C as one byte signed integer, and can later derive C from B and B-C I think that two's complement representation of negative number is now universally accepted by hardware manufacturers. Still I personally don't like negative numbers to be stored in a storage medium which will be accessed by two different architectures because negative number can be represented in different ways. For you information, 431 also uses two's complement. Should I get rid of the headache that negative number can be represented in different ways and accept the one byte solution as my other team member suggested? Or should I stick to the decision of the two byte solution because I don't need to deal with negative numbers? Which one would you prefer and why?

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• Should uni provide "correct answer" after programming assignment is due?

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: This is my very first subjective question. And I think it is programming related - the assignment is to be written in a programming language. I am not for "getting the full marks out of a subject". I am actually not for a "correct answer", but for a "better solution", so that I can compare, and can improve. I reckon it is good that I practice programming first and check the solution later to pick up the things I've done wrong/bad. Without a "benchmark" to against, this would be much harder. Unfortunately as far as I know, not all programming subjects taught in uni would kindly provide the students with a "correct answer" in the end, after the assignment is due. One bad metaphor for this is like someone asks you a question which they don't have a clear answer themselves and hope to take advantage of your answer as the basis for their answer. Personally, I feel having a assignment solution provided by the academic staff is essential to students. I do appreciate this, and I feel I might not be the only one. I am a very proactive student in uni. I learn more, I practice more, an assignment for me is more like a challenge to achieve "the best solution I can come up with", not something "I have to pass"... The cause of this question is that for the past few days I have crafted 500+ lines of Perl code, for a tiny assignment. I feel pain when I look at my solution(not finished yet) and I feel like I am an idiot doing some crap code. I know there must be a much better solution. And I reckon it is better for the lecturer in this subject to get me one, rather than asking for an answer here, even I would shamelessly add the link to my solution apart from the assignment requirements. I know in SO, there are a lot of tutors/lecturers for programming subjects/courses. I'd like to hear your words on this question.

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• iphone - grouping UIImageViews x blocking elements

  - by Mike

  I have to rotate several UIImageViews around a specific center. To accomplish this I am using the famous trick of putting these views as subviews of a larger one and rotating that one. The problem is that these subviews have to detect touches, because each one has buttons on it. The hierarchy is like this LARGE_VIEW | |_____ imageView1 | |_________ button1 | |_________ button2 | |_________ button3 | |_____ imageView2 |_________ button4 |_________ button5 |_________ button6 etc So, to make buttons respond to tap, I had to make this; [LARGE_VIEW setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imageView1 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; [imageView2 setUserInteractionEnabled:YES]; ImageView1 and 2 are two vertical rows of buttons on each side of the screen. The problem is that there's another view below LARGE_VIEW and this view is not receiving the taps, because LARGE_VIEW is intercepting them first. I don't need LARGE_VIEW to detect any taps except on the two areas where imageView 1 and 2 are. LARGE_VIEW must let pass taps on the area defined by this rect (52, 0, 768-2*52, 1024). ImageView1 and 2 have this size: 52 pixels wide and 1024 pixels high (iPad). ImageView1's rect is: (0, 0, 52, 1024) and ImageView2's rect is: (768-52, 0, 52, 1024) LARGE_VIEW must let pass taps on the area defined by this rect (52, 0, 768-2*52, 1024). How to solve that? I need LARGE_VIEW detect taps on each rect defined on my previous paragraph and pass these taps to its subviews and just let pass taps outside these rects to the app, so other views BELOW, can detect taps too. thanks.

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• jquery draggable/droppable issue

  - by Scarface

  Hey guys I have a drag and drop function that does not fully work. What I want to do is be able to drag and drop a picture into a div and have that picture pop up in the div. I have a list of 2 pictures right now, so I have the following function echoed for each picture. Both pictures are draggable and droppable, but the first one is the only one that appears in the div, regardless of which picture gets dragged in. I am not sure what is wrong because the jquery function seems to be unique to each picture. If any one has any suggestions I would appreciate it greatly. while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { $image=htmlentities($row['image']); //image name $uniqid=uniqid(); //unique id for jquery functions $dirname = "usercontent/$user/images/$image"; echo "<img id=\"$uniqid\" src=\"$dirname\" width=\"75\" height=\"75\"/>"; echo "<script> $(function() { $(\"#$uniqid\").draggable({ scroll: true, scrollSensitivity: 10, scrollSpeed: 10, revert: true, helper: 'clone', cursorAt: { cursor: 'move', top: 27, left: 27 } }); $(\"#droppable2, #droppable-background , #droppable2-innerer\").droppable({ greedy: true, activeClass: 'ui-state-hover', hoverClass: 'ui-state-active', drop: function(event, ui) { $(this).addClass('ui-state-highlight').find('> p').html('Dropped!'); $('#droppable-background').css(\"background-image\",\"url($dirname)\"); } }); }); </script>"; }

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• Is there a definitive reference document for Ruby syntax?

  - by JSW

  I'm searching for a definitive document on Ruby syntax. I know about the definitive documents for the core API and standard library, but what about the syntax itself? For instance, such a document should cover: reserved words, string literals syntax, naming rules for variables/classes/modules, all the conditional statements and their permutations, and so forth. I know there are many books and tutorials, yes, but every one of them is essentially a tutorial, each one having a range of different depth and focus. They will all, by necessity of brevity and narrative flow, omit certain details of the language that the author deems insignificant. For instance, did you know that you can use a case statement without an initial case value, and it will then execute the first true when clause? Any given Ruby book or tutorial may or may not cover that particular lesser-known functionality of the case syntax. It's not discussed in the section in "Programming Ruby" about case statements. But that is just one small example. So far the best documentation I've found is the rubyspec project, which appears to be an attempt to write a complete test suite for the language. That's not bad, but it's a bit hard to use from a practical standpoint as a developer working on my own projects. Am I just missing something or is there really no definitive readable document defining the whole of Ruby syntax?

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• Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

  - by matao

  Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

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• testng multiple suites

  - by Eli

  Hi people. my problem is as follows: i am testing a web-ui using selenium and testng. i have a test suite with many test classes in it. i have a method with the @BeforeSuite witch also has a @Parameters annotation, this method recieves as a parameter the browser in witch the selenium will test by run,executing the lines: selenium = new DefaultSelenium("localhost", 4444, **browser**, "http://localhost:8099"); selenium.start(); the xml im using to run the test suite is: <suite name="suite"> <parameter name = "browser" value = "*firefox"/> <test name="allTests"> <classes> <class name="test.webui.MemcachedDeploymentTest" /> </classes> </test> </suite> this works fine and the test runs in firefox. my problem is that i would like to somehow run this suite again, immediatly after the first run finishes, but this time with chrome as the browser. i now have 2 xml suites, one with chrome and one with firefox, is there any way to run these test suites one after the other automatically? maybe using a third xml? Thanks in advance

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• C# getpixels() gets the correct value on xp and vista but is slightly off when used on windows 7

  - by user352288

  I have a C# program that works correctly on xp and vista but it needs to be used on windows 7, I have not been able to come up with a solution, it appears that getpixels just doesn't work right on windows 7. I am getting one of the RGB values because I am dealing with tiff grayscale images. System.Drawing.Bitmap image;// this is in a separate class image = new Bitmap(destination);// this is in the constructor Color t = image.GetPixel(j, i); // this is in a separate function int s = t.R when I print s, for example, image(0,0), it is supposed to be 220, it will be 221 I am doing edge detection on an image and I have to go through the image pixel by pixel, I have run the exact same program on XP,Vista,windows7 and windows 7 got different values. It wouldn't let me post images at all and only one link. The first image is the original image, the second is the correct image, also the one I get with XP and Vista, the final image is the image when running the same program in Windows 7. There is not much of a visible difference but it matters for what I am doing. Thanks for the help, it seems that I am having a hard time explaining my problem.

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• Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

  - by René Wolferink

  Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

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• NSNotification vs. Delegate Protocols?

  - by jr

  I have an iPhone application which basically is getting information from an API (in XML, but maybe JSON eventually). The result objects are typically displayed in view controllers (tables mainly). Here is the architecture right now. I have NSOperation classes which fetch the different objects from the remote server. Each of these NSOperation classes, will take a custom delegate method which will fire back the resulting objects as they are parsed, and then finally a method when no more results are available. So, the protocol for the delegates will be something like: (void) ObjectTypeResult:(ObjectType *)result; (void) ObjectTypeNoMoreResults; I think the solution works well, but I do end up with a bunch of delegate protocols around and then my view controllers have to implement all these delegate methods. I don't think its that bad, but I'm always on the lookout for a better design. So, I'm thinking about using NSNotifications to remove the use of the delegates. I could include the object in the userInfo part of the notification and just post objects as received, and then a final event when no more are available. Then I could just have one method in each view controller to receive all the data, even when using multiple objects in one controller.† So, can someone share with me some pros/cons of each approach. Should I consider refactoring my code to use Events rather then the delegates? Is one better then the other in certain situations? In my scenario I'm really not looking to receive notifications in multiple places, so maybe the protocol based delegates are the way to go. Thanks!

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• In mysql, is "explain ..." always safe?

  - by tye

  If I allow a group of users to submit "explain $whatever" to mysql (via Perl's DBI using DBD::mysql), is there anything that a user could put into $whatever that would make any database changes, leak non-trivial information, or even cause significant database load? If so, how? I know that via "explain $whatever" one can figure out what tables / columns exist (you have to guess names, though) and roughly how many records are in a table or how many records have a particular value for an indexed field. I don't expect one to be able to get any information about the contents of unindexed fields. DBD::mysql should not allow multiple statements so I don't expect it to be possible to run any query (just explain one query). Even subqueries should not be executed, just explained. But I'm not a mysql expert and there are surely features of mysql that I'm not even aware of. In trying to come up with a query plan, might the optimizer actual execute an expression in order to come up with the value that an indexed field is going to be compared against? explain select * from atable where class = somefunction(...) where atable.class is indexed and not unique and class='unused' would find no records but class='common' would find a million records. Might 'explain' evaluate somefunction(...)? And then could somefunction(...) be written such that it modifies data?

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• python os.mkfifo() for Windows

  - by user302099

  Hello. Short version (if you can answer the short version it does the job for me, the rest is mainly for the benefit of other people with a similar task): In python in Windows, I want to create 2 file objects, attached to the same file (it doesn't have to be an actual file on the hard-drive), one for reading and one for writing, such that if the reading end tries to read it will never get EOF (it will just block until something is written). I think in linux os.mkfifo() would do the job, but in Windows it doesn't exist. What can be done? (I must use file-objects). Some extra details: I have a python module (not written by me) that plays a certain game through stdin and stdout (using raw_input() and print). I also have a Windows executable playing the same game, through stdin and stdout as well. I want to make them play one against the other, and log all their communication. Here's the code I can write (the get_fifo() function is not implemented, because that's what I don't know to do it Windows): class Pusher(Thread): def __init__(self, source, dest, p1, name): Thread.__init__(self) self.source = source self.dest = dest self.name = name self.p1 = p1 def run(self): while (self.p1.poll()==None) and\ (not self.source.closed) and (not self.source.closed): line = self.source.readline() logging.info('%s: %s' % (self.name, line[:-1])) self.dest.write(line) self.dest.flush() exe_to_pythonmodule_reader, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer =\ get_fifo() pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, pythonmodule_to_exe_writer =\ get_fifo() p1 = subprocess.Popen(exe, shell=False, stdin=subprocess.PIPE, stdout=subprocess.PIPE) old_stdin = sys.stdin old_stdout = sys.stdout sys.stdin = exe_to_pythonmodule_reader sys.stdout = pythonmodule_to_exe_writer push1 = Pusher(p1.stdout, exe_to_pythonmodule_writer, p1, '1') push2 = Pusher(pythonmodule_to_exe_reader, p1.stdin, p1, '2') push1.start() push2.start() ret = pythonmodule.play() sys.stdin = old_stdin sys.stdout = old_stdout

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• Partial class or "chained inheritance"

  - by Charlie boy

  Hi From my understanding partial classes are a bit frowned upon by professional developers, but I've come over a bit of an issue; I have made an implementation of the RichTextBox control that uses user32.dll calls for faster editing of large texts. That results in quite a bit of code. Then I added spellchecking capabilities to the control, this was made in another class inheriting RichTextBox control as well. That also makes up a bit of code. These two functionalities are quite separate but I would like them to be merged so that I can drop one control on my form that has both fast editing capabilities and spellchecking built in. I feel that simply adding the code form one class to the other would result in a too large code file, especially since there are two very distinct areas of functionality, so I seem to need another approach. Now to my question; To merge these two classes should I make the spellchecking RichTextBox inherit from the fast edit one, that in turn inherits RichTextBox? Or should I make the two classes partials of a single class and thus making them more “equal” so to speak? This is more of a question of OO principles and exercise on my part than me trying to reinvent the wheel, I know there are plenty of good text editing controls out there. But this is just a hobby for me and I just want to know how this kind of solution would be managed by a professional. Thanks!

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