Search Results

Search found 18096 results on 724 pages for 'let'.

Page 668/724 | < Previous Page | 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675  | Next Page >

• Wrong sessionID being used in callback, but only on one particular computer

  - by user210119

  I am writing a Python/Django web application that uses OAuth (for the TwitterAPI, not that it should matter). I am storing a session ID in my login function, and then after using OAuth to get the user's token, I try to retrieve the sessionID in my callback function. The callback function then always fails(throws an exception) because it can't find the OAuth token in the session. Through the debugger, I am able to determine that the session ID that the server is using is incorrect - it does not match the session ID that was stored in the login function. It's therefore unsurprising that the Oauth tokens were not there. The session that appears in the callback was the same one each time (until I tried deleting it - see "things I've tried below"), and it started out as an old session, with some data in it that is from a different django app running on the same server that I hadn't touched in a couple weeks. Here's the kicker: everything I described is an issue only on our production server, and only when connecting to it from my computer. Let me clarify: this only happens with my particular laptop. I can connect to the app just fine from someone else's computer. Other people cannot connect with their accounts on my computer. Furthmore, I can connect just fine to the app when it is running on my localhost using the built-in django webserver, just not to the production server. My setup: my server and local box are running= Django 1.2.0 and Python 2.6.5. My local box is running Snow Leopard and the Django webserver, the server is running Ubuntu, Apache2, and mod-wsgi. For sessions, I am using Django's default session backend (DB). Things I have tried, all to no avail: logging in with a different account, including new accounts that have never OAuthed to this app before Clearing cookies, using incognito mode, using a different web browser on my same computer. Each time, upon inspecting my cookies, the sessionID matched the sessionID in the login function and was different from the sessionID in the callback. deleting the session in the database that appears in the callback function, (the one that appeared to be old data). The callback function still fails, and the sessionID it appears to be using is now a new one using a different session backend (DB-cache, flat file, etc...) restarting the server, my computer, etc. My first question on StackOverflow, so bear with me if I didn't quite follow local conventions. I am just at a loss as to what to even look for - what are the things that could possibly be causing sessions to not work on my particular computer, and (so far!) only my particular computer?

  Read the article

• Using a function with reference as a function with pointers?

  - by epatel

  Today I stumbled over a piece of code that looked horrifying to me. The pieces was chattered in different files, I have tried write the gist of it in a simple test case below. The code base is routinely scanned with FlexeLint on a daily basis, but this construct has been laying in the code since 2004. The thing is that a function implemented with a parameter passing using references is called as a function with a parameter passing using pointers...due to a function cast. The construct has worked since 2004 on Irix and now when porting it actually do work on Linux/gcc too. My question now. Is this a construct one can trust? I can understand if compiler constructors implement the reference passing as it was a pointer, but is it reliable? Are there hidden risks? Should I change the fref(..) to use pointers and risk braking anything in the process? What to you think? #include <iostream> using namespace std; // ---------------------------------------- // This will be passed as a reference in fref(..) struct string_struct { char str[256]; }; // ---------------------------------------- // Using pointer here! void fptr(const char *str) { cout << "fptr: " << str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Using reference here! void fref(string_struct &str) { cout << "fref: " << str.str << endl; } // ---------------------------------------- // Cast to f(const char*) and call with pointer void ftest(void (*fin)()) { void (*fcall)(const char*) = (void(*)(const char*))fin; fcall("Hello!"); } // ---------------------------------------- // Let's go for a test int main() { ftest((void (*)())fptr); // test with fptr that's using pointer ftest((void (*)())fref); // test with fref that's using reference return 0; }

  Read the article

• Django Multi-Table Inheritance VS Specifying Explicit OneToOne Relationship in Models

  - by chefsmart

  Hope all this makes sense :) I'll clarify via comments if necessary. Also, I am experimenting using bold text in this question, and will edit it out if I (or you) find it distracting. With that out of the way... Using django.contrib.auth gives us User and Group, among other useful things that I can't do without (like basic messaging). In my app I have several different types of users. A user can be of only one type. That would easily be handled by groups, with a little extra care. However, these different users are related to each other in hierarchies / relationships. Let's take a look at these users: - Principals - "top level" users Administrators - each administrator reports to a Principal Coordinators - each coordinator reports to an Administrator Apart from these there are other user types that are not directly related, but may get related later on. For example, "Company" is another type of user, and can have various "Products", and products may be supervised by a "Coordinator". "Buyer" is another kind of user that may buy products. Now all these users have various other attributes, some of which are common to all types of users and some of which are distinct only to one user type. For example, all types of users have to have an address. On the other hand, only the Principal user belongs to a "BranchOffice". Another point, which was stated above, is that a User can only ever be of one type. The app also needs to keep track of who created and/or modified Principals, Administrators, Coordinators, Companies, Products etc. (So that's two more links to the User model.) In this scenario, is it a good idea to use Django's multi-table inheritance as follows: - from django.contrib.auth.models import User class Principal(User): # # # branchoffice = models.ForeignKey(BranchOffice) landline = models.CharField(blank=True, max_length=20) mobile = models.CharField(blank=True, max_length=20) created_by = models.ForeignKey(User, editable=False, blank=True, related_name="principalcreator") modified_by = models.ForeignKey(User, editable=False, blank=True, related_name="principalmodifier") # # # Or should I go about doing it like this: - class Principal(models.Model): # # # user = models.OneToOneField(User, blank=True) branchoffice = models.ForeignKey(BranchOffice) landline = models.CharField(blank=True, max_length=20) mobile = models.CharField(blank=True, max_length=20) created_by = models.ForeignKey(User, editable=False, blank=True, related_name="principalcreator") modified_by = models.ForeignKey(User, editable=False, blank=True, related_name="principalmodifier") # # # Please keep in mind that there are other user types that are related via foreign keys, for example: - class Administrator(models.Model): # # # principal = models.ForeignKey(Principal, help_text="The supervising principal for this Administrator") user = models.OneToOneField(User, blank=True) province = models.ForeignKey( Province) landline = models.CharField(blank=True, max_length=20) mobile = models.CharField(blank=True, max_length=20) created_by = models.ForeignKey(User, editable=False, blank=True, related_name="administratorcreator") modified_by = models.ForeignKey(User, editable=False, blank=True, related_name="administratormodifier") I am aware that Django does use a one-to-one relationship for multi-table inheritance behind the scenes. I am just not qualified enough to decide which is a more sound approach.

  Read the article

• How do I destruct data associated with an object after the object no longer exists?

  - by Phineas

  I'm creating a class (say, C) that associates data (say, D) with an object (say, O). When O is destructed, O will notify C that it soon will no longer exist :( ... Later, when C feels it is the right time, C will let go of what belonged to O, namely D. If D can be any type of object, what's the best way for C to be able to execute "delete D;"? And what if D is an array of objects? My solution is to have D derive from a base class that C has knowledge of. When the time comes, C calls delete on a pointer to the base class. I've also considered storing void pointers and calling delete, but I found out that's undefined behavior and doesn't call D's destructor. I considered that templates could be a novel solution, but I couldn't work that idea out. Here's what I have so far for C, minus some details: // This class is C in the above description. There may be many instances of C. class Context { public: // D will inherit from this class class Data { public: virtual ~Data() {} }; Context(); ~Context(); // Associates an owner (O) with its data (D) void add(const void* owner, Data* data); // O calls this when he knows its the end (O's destructor). // All instances of C are now aware that O is gone and its time to get rid // of all associated instances of D. static void purge (const void* owner); // This is called periodically in the application. It checks whether // O has called purge, and calls "delete D;" void refresh(); // Side note: sometimes O needs access to D Data *get (const void *owner); private: // Used for mapping owners (O) to data (D) std::map _data; }; // Here's an example of O class Mesh { public: ~Mesh() { Context::purge(this); } void init(Context& c) const { Data* data = new Data; // GL initialization here c.add(this, new Data); } void render(Context& c) const { Data* data = c.get(this); } private: // And here's an example of D struct Data : public Context::Data { ~Data() { glDeleteBuffers(1, &vbo); glDeleteTextures(1, &texture); } GLint vbo; GLint texture; }; }; P.S. If you're familiar with computer graphics and VR, I'm creating a class that separates an object's per-context data (e.g. OpenGL VBO IDs) from its per-application data (e.g. an array of vertices) and frees the per-context data at the appropriate time (when the matching rendering context is current).

  Read the article

• Android - OPENGL cube is NOT in the display

  - by Marc Ortiz

  I'm trying to display a square on my display and i can't. Whats my problem? How can I display it on the screen (center of the screen)? I let my code below! Here's my render class: public class GLRenderEx implements Renderer { private GLCube cube; Context c; GLCube quad; // ( NEW ) // Constructor public GLRenderEx(Context context) { // Set up the data-array buffers for these shapes ( NEW ) quad = new GLCube(); // ( NEW ) } // Call back when the surface is first created or re-created. @Override public void onSurfaceCreated(GL10 gl, EGLConfig config) { // NO CHANGE - SKIP } // Call back after onSurfaceCreated() or whenever the window's size changes. @Override public void onSurfaceChanged(GL10 gl, int width, int height) { // NO CHANGE - SKIP } // Call back to draw the current frame. @Override public void onDrawFrame(GL10 gl) { // Clear color and depth buffers using clear-values set earlier gl.glClear(GL10.GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT | GL10.GL_DEPTH_BUFFER_BIT); gl.glLoadIdentity(); // Reset model-view matrix ( NEW ) gl.glTranslatef(-1.5f, 0.0f, -6.0f); // Translate left and into the // screen ( NEW ) // Translate right, relative to the previous translation ( NEW ) gl.glTranslatef(3.0f, 0.0f, 0.0f); quad.draw(gl); // Draw quad ( NEW ) } } And here is my square class: public class GLCube { private FloatBuffer vertexBuffer; // Buffer for vertex-array private float[] vertices = { // Vertices for the square -1.0f, -1.0f, 0.0f, // 0. left-bottom 1.0f, -1.0f, 0.0f, // 1. right-bottom -1.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f, // 2. left-top 1.0f, 1.0f, 0.0f // 3. right-top }; // Constructor - Setup the vertex buffer public GLCube() { // Setup vertex array buffer. Vertices in float. A float has 4 bytes ByteBuffer vbb = ByteBuffer.allocateDirect(vertices.length * 4); vbb.order(ByteOrder.nativeOrder()); // Use native byte order vertexBuffer = vbb.asFloatBuffer(); // Convert from byte to float vertexBuffer.put(vertices); // Copy data into buffer vertexBuffer.position(0); // Rewind } // Render the shape public void draw(GL10 gl) { // Enable vertex-array and define its buffer gl.glEnableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); gl.glVertexPointer(3, GL10.GL_FLOAT, 0, vertexBuffer); // Draw the primitives from the vertex-array directly gl.glDrawArrays(GL10.GL_TRIANGLE_STRIP, 0, vertices.length / 3); gl.glDisableClientState(GL10.GL_VERTEX_ARRAY); } } Thanks!!

  Read the article

• Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Hibernate Based Java Servlet application powered by MySQL

  - by Vatsala

  Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?) edit - Here are the c3p0 parameters I tried out - select 1; 2

  Read the article

• Basic Ruby On Rails Linking Help

  - by dweebsonduty

  So I am beginning to work with Rails and I get some of the concepts but am stuck on an important one. Let's say I have customers which has many jobs and jobs which belongs to customers. How would I go about creating a new job for a customer? I can create a link that goes to customers/1/jobs/new and I can grab the customer ID but how do I tell it that I am creating a job for customer 1? I know this is the most basic of things but I just need a push in the right direction. This is my form so far: How do I get :customer_id to populate with the customer_id param? <h1>New job</h1> <% form_for(@job) do |f| %> <%= f.error_messages %> <p> <%= f.label :customer_id %><br /> <%= f.text_field :customer_id %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :manufacturer %><br /> <%= f.text_field :manufacturer %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :serial_number %><br /> <%= f.text_field :serial_number %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :problem %><br /> <%= f.text_area :problem %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :notes %><br /> <%= f.text_area :notes %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :status %><br /> <%= f.text_field :status %> </p> <p> <%= f.label :tech_id %><br /> <%= f.text_field :tech_id %> </p> <p> <%= f.submit 'Create' %> </p> <% end %> <%= link_to 'Back', jobs_path %>

  Read the article

• onListItemClick with Mulitple Value/Retrieving Value

  - by JuniorFlip

  Hello, I am trying to retrieve the value from a Arraylist/ArrayAdapter that I have populated. I believe my issue is at the Onitemclick event. What I would like to accomplished is that when I click on Yasmin, I can return the value of 8. Please let me know if I am on the right track import java.util.ArrayList; import android.app.Activity; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.AdapterView; import android.widget.ArrayAdapter; import android.widget.ListView; import android.widget.TextView; import android.widget.AdapterView.OnItemClickListener; public class lister extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ TextView txHomeTeam; protected ListView mFavlist; protected ArrayList fakeFavs = new ArrayList(); @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); this.setContentView(R.layout.main); this.txHomeTeam = (TextView)this.findViewById(R.id.title); fakeFavs.add(new Favorite("John", "1")); fakeFavs.add(new Favorite("Yasmin", "8")); fakeFavs.add(new Favorite("Jack", "10")); //this.mFavlist = (ListView) this.findViewById(R.id.list_favorites); this.mFavlist = (ListView) this.findViewById(R.id.list_favorites); initListView(); mFavlist.setTextFilterEnabled(true); mFavlist.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { @Override public void onItemClick(AdapterView arg0, View view, int position, long id) { // user clicked a list item, //and read the value from <Favorite>.value //txHomeTeam.setText=???? } }); } public void refreshFavListItems() { mFavlist.setAdapter(new ArrayAdapter(this, android.R.layout.simple_list_item_1, fakeFavs)); } public void initListView() { /* Loads the items to the ListView. */ refreshFavListItems(); } protected class Favorite { protected String Detail; protected String value; protected Favorite(String Detail, String value) { this.Detail = Detail; this.value = value; } public String toString() { return Detail; } } }

  Read the article

• Sorting based on existing elements in xslt

  - by Teelo

  Hi , I want to sort in xslt based on existing set of pattern . Let me explain with the code: <Types> <Type> <Names> <Name>Ryan</Name> </Names> <Address>2344</Address> </Type> <Type> <Names> </Name>Timber</Name> </Names> <Address>1234</Address> </Type> <Type> <Names> </Name>Bryan</Name> </Names> <Address>34</Address> </Type> </Types> Right now I m just calling it and getting it like (all hyperlinks) Ryan Timber Bryan Now I don't want sorting on name but I have existing pattern how I want it to get displayed.Like Timber Bryan Ryan (Also I don't want to lose the url attached to my names earlier while doing this) I was thinking of putting earlier value in some array and sort based on the other array where I will store my existing pattern. But I am not sure how to achieve that.. My xslt looks like this now(there can be duplicate names also) <xsl:for-each select="/Types/Type/Names/Name/text()[generate-id()=generate-id(key('Name',.)[1])]"> <xsl:call-template name="typename"> </xsl:call-template> </xsl:for-each> <xsl:template name="typename"> <li> <a href="somelogicforurl"> <xsl:value-of select="."/> </a> </li> </xsl:template> I am using xsl 1.0

  Read the article

• Is it a oop good design ?

  - by remi bourgarel

  Hi all, I'd like to know what you think about this part of our program is realized : We have in our database a list of campsite. Partners call us to get all the campsites near a GPS location or all the campsites which provide a bar (we call it a service). So how I realized it ? Here is our database : Campsite - ID - NAME - GPS_latitude - GPS_longitude CampsiteServices -Campsite_ID -Services_ID So my code (c# but it's not relevant, let say it's an OO language) looks like this public class SqlCodeCampsiteFilter{ public string SqlCode; public Dictionary<string, object> Parameters; } interface ISQLCampsiteFilter{ SqlCodeEngineCore CreateSQLCode(); } public class GpsLocationFilter : ISQLCampsiteFilter{ public float? GpsLatitude; public float? GpsLongitude; public SqlCodeEngineCore CreateSQLCode() { --return an sql code to filter on the gps location like dbo.getDistance(@gpsLat,@gpsLong,campsite.GPS_latitude,campsite.GPS_longitude) with the parameters } } public class ServiceFilter : : ISQLCampsiteFilter{ public int[] RequiredServicesID; public SqlCodeEngineCore CreateSQLCode() { --return an sql code to filter on the services "where ID IN (select CampsiteServices.Service_ID FROm CampsiteServices WHERE Service_ID in ...) } } So in my webservice code : List<ISQLFilterEngineCore> filters = new List<ISQLFilterEngineCore>(); if(gps_latitude.hasvalue && gps_longitude.hasvalue){ filters.Add (new GpsLocationFilter (gps_latitude.value,gps_longitude.value)); } if(required_services_id != null){ filters.Add (new ServiceFilter (required_services_id )); } string sql = "SELECT ID,NAME FROM campsite where 1=1" foreach(ISQLFilterEngineCore aFilter in filters){ SqlCodeCampsiteFilter code = aFilter.CreateSQLCode(); sql += code.SqlCode; mySqlCommand.AddParameters(code.Parameters);//add all the parameters to the sql command } return mySqlCommand.GetResults(); 1/ I don't use ORM for the simple reason that the system exists since 10 years and the only dev who is here since the beginning is starting to learn about difference between public and private. 2/ I don't like SP because : we can do override, and t-sql is not so funny to use :) So what do you think ? Is it clear ? Do you have any pattern that I should have a look to ? If something is not clear please ask

  Read the article

• Would a Centralized Blogging Service Work?

  - by viatropos

  If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models. My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that the main point of a website? Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook?

  Read the article

• Failed to obtain JDBC Driver for MySQL under Tomcat environment

  - by Michael Mao

  Hi all: I've been trying to obtain the Driver class for JDBC connection to MySQL. The workstation is running on Linux, Fedora 10. I have manually set up the classpath variable for Java by CLI like this: bash-3.2$ echo $CLASSPATH /home/cmao/public_html/jsp/mysql-connector-java-5.1.12-bin.jar This shows that I've added the lastest mysql connection jar archive to my CLASSPATH variable. I've created a test JSP page which can be found here And source code for this page is: <%@page language="java"%> <%@page import="java.sql.*"%> <%@page import="java.util.*"%> <html> <head> <title>UTS JDBC MySQL connection test page</title> </head> <body> <% Connection con = null; out.print("Java version is : " + System.getProperty("java.version") + "<br />"); out.print("Tomcat version is : " + application.getServerInfo() + "<br />"); out.print("Servlet version is: " + application.getMajorVersion() + "<br />"); out.print("JSP version is : " + JspFactory.getDefaultFactory().getEngineInfo().getSpecificationVersion() +"<br />"); //out.print("Java classpath is : " + System.getProperty("java.class.path")+ "<br />"); //out.print("JSP classpath is : " + appliaction.getAttribute("org.apache.catalina.jsp_classpath") + "<br />"); //out.print("Tomcat classpath is : " + System.getProperty("org.apache.tomcat.common.classpath") + "<br />"); try { Class c = Class.forName("com.mysql.jdbc.Driver"); } catch(Exception e) { out.println("Error! Failed to obtain JDBC driver for MySQL... Missing class \"com.mysql.jdbc.Driver\"<br />"); } %> </body> </html> None of those commented out line would work, various Jsper Expetions would be thrown. You can check those Error pages from the following links: classpath Error page catalina Error page tomcat Error page It seems, from my limited knowledge of JSP and Servlet, the Tomcat environment "ignores" my Java CLASSPATH? In which case I cannot configure the MySQL JDBC package to let my Servlets(a JSP is but a Servlet anyway) work. I am not sure how to fix this issue. would it be better if I use an IDE like Eclipse or NetBeans and create a real Java "web app" so that everything can be "self-configured" by the usage of a web.config XML configuration file? So that I can certainly bypass this Tomcat environment restriction? Many thanks for the suggestions in advance.

  Read the article

• EXC_BAD_ACCESS when I change moviePlayer contentURL

  - by Bruno

  Hello, In few words, my application is doing that : 1) My main view (MovieListController) has some video thumbnails and when I tap on one, it displays the moviePlayer (MoviePlayerViewController) : MovieListController.h : @interface MoviePlayerViewController : UIViewController <UITableViewDelegate>{ UIView *viewForMovie; MPMoviePlayerController *player; } @property (nonatomic, retain) IBOutlet UIView *viewForMovie; @property (nonatomic, retain) MPMoviePlayerController *player; - (NSURL *)movieURL; @end MovieListController.m : MoviePlayerViewController *controllerTV = [[MoviePlayerViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MoviePlayerViewController" bundle:nil]; controllerTV.delegate = self; controllerTV.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController: controllerTV animated: YES]; [controllerTV release]; 2) In my moviePlayer, I initialize the video I want to play MoviePlayerViewController.m : @implementation MoviePlayerViewController @synthesize player; @synthesize viewForMovie; - (void)viewDidLoad { NSLog(@"start"); [super viewDidLoad]; self.player = [[MPMoviePlayerController alloc] init]; self.player.view.frame = self.viewForMovie.bounds; self.player.view.autoresizingMask = UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleWidth | UIViewAutoresizingFlexibleHeight; [self.viewForMovie addSubview:player.view]; self.player.contentURL = [self movieURL]; } - (void)dealloc { NSLog(@"dealloc TV"); [player release]; [viewForMovie release]; [super dealloc]; } -(NSURL *)movieURL { NSBundle *bundle = [NSBundle mainBundle]; NSString *moviePath = [bundle pathForResource:@"FR_Tribord_Surf camp_100204" ofType:@"mp4"]; if (moviePath) { return [NSURL fileURLWithPath:moviePath]; } else { return nil; } } - It's working good, my movie is display My problem : When I go back to my main view : - (void) returnToMap: (MoviePlayerViewController *) controller { [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated: YES]; } And I tap in a thumbnail to display again the moviePlayer (MoviePlayerViewController), I get a *Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.* In my debugger I saw that it's stopping on the thread "main" : // // main.m // MoviePlayer // // Created by Eric Freeman on 3/27/10. // Copyright Apple Inc 2010. All rights reserved. // #import <UIKit/UIKit.h> int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { NSAutoreleasePool * pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; int retVal = UIApplicationMain(argc, argv, nil, nil); //EXC_BAD_ACCESS [pool release]; return retVal; } If I comment self.player.contentURL = [self movieURL]; it's working, but when I let it, iI have this problem. I read that it's due to null pointer or memory problem but I don't understand why it's working the first time and not the second time. I release my object in dealloc method. Thanks for your help ! Bruno.

  Read the article

• How To Create A Download Quota.

  - by snikolov

  I need to create an handy file down loader which will count the amount of bytes downloaded and stop when it has exceed a preset limit. i need to mirror some files but i only have 7 gb per moth of bandwidth and i dont want to exceed the limit. Example limits can be in bytes or number of files, each user has their own limit, as well as a limit for Download Quota itself. So if you set a limit of 2 gigabytes for Download Quota, downloads stop at 2 gigabytes, even if you have 3 users with a limit of 1 gigabyte each. if ($range) { //pass client Range header to rapidshare // _insert($range); $cookie .= "\r\nRange: $range"; $multipart = true; header("X-UR-RANGE-Range: $range"); } //octet-stream + attachment => client always stores file header('Content-type: application/octet-stream'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="' . $fn . '"'); //always included so clients know this script supports resuming header("Accept-Ranges: bytes"); //awful hack to pass rapidshare the premium cookie $user_agent = ini_get("user_agent"); ini_set("user_agent", $user_agent . "\r\nCookie: enc=$cookie"); $httphandle = fopen($url, "r"); $headers = stream_get_meta_data($httphandle); //let's check the return header of rapidshare for range / length indicators //we'll just pass these to the client foreach ($headers["wrapper_data"] as $header) { $header = trim($header); if (substr(strtolower($header), 0, strlen("content-range")) == "content-range") { // _insert($range); header($header); header("X-RS-RANGE-" . $header); $multipart = true; //content-range indicates partial download } elseif (substr(strtolower($header), 0, strlen("Content-Length")) == "content-length") { // _insert($range); header($header); header("X-RS-CL-" . $header); } } //now show the client he has a partial download if ($multipart) header('HTTP/1.1 206 Partial Content'); flush(); $download_rate = 100; while (!feof($httphandle)) { // send the current file part to the browser $var_stat = fread($httphandle, round($download_rate * 1024)); $var12 = strlen($var_stat); ////////////////////////////////// echo $var_stat; ///////////////////////////////// // flush the content to the browser flush(); // sleep one second sleep(1); }

  Read the article

• XSLT, JSTL e JSF

  - by Paulo S.

  I have a xml file which I want to transform in a jsf code page. To do that I've created a xsl file. xml: <?xml version='1.0' encoding='ISO-8859-1'?> <questionario xmlns:xsi='http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance' xsi:noNamespaceSchemaLocation='Schema2.xsd'> <componente nome='input'> <id>input1</id> </componente> <componente nome='input'> <id>input2</id> </componente> </questionario> code: <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jstl/core_rt" prefix="c" %> <%@ taglib uri="http://java.sun.com/jsp/jstl/xml" prefix="x" %> <c:set var="xml" value="${questionarioXSLBean.xml}"/> <c:set var="xsl"> <xsl:stylesheet xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" version="2.0" xmlns:f="http://java.sun.com/jsf/core" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" exclude-result-prefixes="f h"> <xsl:template match="/"> <xsl:for-each select="questionario/componente"> <xsl:if test="attribute::nome = 'input'"> <xsl:variable name="id"> <xsl:value-of select="id" /> </xsl:variable> <h:inputText id="{$id}"/> </xsl:if> </xsl:for-each> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> </c:set> <x:transform xml="${xml}" xslt="${xsl}" /> The problem is that nothing is shown in my screen because the generated code for <h:inputText id="input1"/> is <h:inputText id="input_1" xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html"/> how can I replace the xmlns:h="http://java.sun.com/jsf/html" or suppress it. Thanks! Update: Let me clarify what I want to do. I want to generate a jsf page dynamically depending on the attributes of a xml file, for instance, 2 input texts, 3 check boxes, etc. To make the transformation to jsf I thought in two approaches, one using jstl and another using xslt. The problem with the former is that I couldn't integrate jstl with jsf code (to set jsf components attributes using jstl variables) and with the last approach, I'm facing the problem described above.I wouldn't like to create components in java (UIComponents). Any suggestions?

  Read the article

• Getting <divs>'s to align next to each other

  - by user1322845

  I have the following code I am trying to get working correctly: <div id="newspost_bg"> <article> <p> <header><h3>The fast red fox!</h3></header> This is where the article resides in the article tag. This is good for SEO optimization. <footer>Read More..</footer> </p> </article> </div> <div id="newspost_bg"> hello </div> <div id="newspost_bg"> hello </div> <div id="advertisement"> <script type="text/javascript"><!-- google_ad_client = "ca-pub-2139701283631933"; /* testing site */ google_ad_slot = "4831288817"; google_ad_width = 120; google_ad_height = 600; //--> </script> </div> Here is the css that goes with it: #newspost_bg{ position: relative; background-color: #d9dde1; width:700px; height:250px; margin: 10px; margin-left: 20px; border: solid 10px #1d2631; float:left; } #newspost_bg article{ position: relative; margin-left: 20px; } #advertisement{ float: left; background-color: #d9dde1; width: 125px; height: 605px; margin: 10px; } The problem I'm experiencing is that the advertisements im trying to get setup will align with the last with the id of newspost_bg but im looking to havce it align to the top of the container it is in. I dont know if this is enough info, if not please let me know what you might need. Im new to the web coding scene so any and all critiques help me.

  Read the article

• Do Websites need Local Databases Anymore?

  - by viatropos

  If there's a better place to ask this, please let me know. Every time I build a new website/blog/shopping-cart/etc., I keep trying to do the following: Extract out common functionality into reusable code (Rubygems and jQuery plugins mostly) If possible, convert that gem into a small service so I never have to deal with a database for the objects involved (by service, I mean something lean and mean, usually built with the Sinatra Web Framework with a few core models). My assumption is, if I can remove dependencies on local databases, that will make it easier and more scalable in the long run (scalable in terms of reusability and manageability, not necessarily database/performance). I'm not sure if that's a good or bad assumption yet. What do you think? I've made this assumption because of the following reason: Most serious database/model functionality has been built on the internet somewhere. Just to name a few: Social Network API: Facebook Messaging API: Twitter Mailing API: Google Event API: Eventbrite Shopping API: Shopify Comment API: Disqus Form API: Wufoo Image API: Picasa Video API: Youtube ... Each of those things are fairly complicated to build from scratch and to make as optimized, simple, and easy to use as those companies have made them. So if I build an app that shows pictures (picasa) on an Event page (eventbrite), and you can see who joined the event (facebook events), and send them emails (google apps api), and have them fill out monthly surveys (wufoo), and watch a video when they're done (youtube), all integrated into a custom, easy to use website, and I can do that without ever creating a local database, is that a good thing? I ask because there's two things missing from the puzzle that keep forcing me to create that local database: Post API RESTful/Pretty Url API While there's plenty of Blogging systems and APIs for them, there is no one place where you can just write content and have it part of some massive thing. For every app, I have to use code for creating pretty/restful urls, and that saves posts. But it seems like that should be a service! Question is, is that what the website is? ...That place to integrate the worlds services for my specific cause... and, sigh, to store posts that only my site has access to. Will everyone always need "their own blog"? Why not just have a profile and write lots of content on an established platform like StackOverflow or Facebook? ... That way I can write apps entirely without a database and know that I'm doing it right. Note: Of course at some point you'd need a database, if you were doing something unique or new. But for the case where you're just rewiring information or creating things like videos, events, and products, is it really necessary anymore??

  Read the article

• Adding a mini admin to a webpage.

  - by DADU

  Hello Picture this: you are creating a little module that people can incorporate into their website easily, for example, a little contact form. It would consist of a PHP file that outputs some HTML, a Javascript file (ajax etc.), a CSS file and a CSS skin. Now the person who doesn't know much about coding wants to integrate it on a webpage (website/index.php). We could do this with three rules of code: <link rel="stylesheet" href="module/css/module.css" /> <script src="module/js/module.js"></script> <?php require_once 'module/module.php'; ?> There's no doubt this part is questionable, right? Now when we want to add an admin for this little module, there are two options: Accessing the admin via an extra URL like website/module/admin.php and after authentication, displaying a page where the person can do all the settings. The person then goes back to index.php to see the results. Enabling the admin via an extra URL like website/module/admin.php and after authentication, redirecting back to index.php. The person can now edit the module directly (HTML5 contenteditable) and see changes live, on the webpage where everybody else will see it when the person saves the changes. Option 2 has a couple of advantages: The person doesn't have to toggle between admin and index.php. The person can see directly how it's looking at the webpage it's integrated in. The person probably feels like the module is more part of the webpage/website. Of course option 2 has some disadvantages too: Not everything works well editing it inline. The person would need to have an HTML5 compliant browser. Probably some more I can't think of right now. Now I have a few concerns that's I can't seem to see a clear answer to. How would we let the person integrate the admin on their webpage? The admin files only need to be included in index.php if the person has choosen to edit the module via the url (website/module/admin.php). But how can we do this if we have a admin.css file that belongs in the head section, an admin.php file that goes into the body, and another admin.js file that's included at the end of the body? How would we know the file that admin.php needs to redirect back to, after authentication? index.php could be any webpage with any name. Any real life website/web apps examples using this principle are welcome too. If there's something unclear, I am glad to add additional info.

  Read the article

• How does the rsync algorithm correctly identify repeating blocks?

  - by Kai

  I'm on a personal quest to learn how the rsync algorithm works. After some reading and thinking, I've come up with a situation where I think the algorithm fails. I'm trying to figure out how this is resolved in an actual implementation. Consider this example, where A is the receiver and B is the sender. A = abcde1234512345fghij B = abcde12345fghij As you can see, the only change is that 12345 has been removed. Now, to make this example interesting, let's choose a block size of 5 bytes (chars). Hashing the values on the sender's side using the weak checksum gives the following values list. abcde|12345|fghij abcde -> 495 12345 -> 255 fghij -> 520 values = [495, 255, 520] Next we check to see if any hash values differ in A. If there's a matching block we can skip to the end of that block for the next check. If there's a non-matching block then we've found a difference. I'll step through this process. Hash the first block. Does this hash exist in the values list? abcde -> 495 (yes, so skip) Hash the second block. Does this hash exist in the values list? 12345 -> 255 (yes, so skip) Hash the third block. Does this hash exist in the values list? 12345 -> 255 (yes, so skip) Hash the fourth block. Does this hash exist in the values list? fghij -> 520 (yes, so skip) No more data, we're done. Since every hash was found in the values list, we conclude that A and B are the same. Which, in my humble opinion, isn't true. It seems to me this will happen whenever there is more than one block that share the same hash. What am I missing?

  Read the article

• JSONArray does not work when I am getting the JSON string from the server

  - by Taehoon A Kim

  I've looked up some answers but am not sure why mine is failing exactly... The code looks something like this HttpResponse httpResponse = httpClient.execute(httpPost); HttpEntity httpEntity = httpResponse.getEntity(); String json = EntityUtils.toString(httpEntity); //Convert to JsonArray JSONArray jsonArray = new JSONArray(json); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, Integer.toString(jsonArray.length())); for (int i = 0; i < jsonArray.length(); i++) { JSONObject jsonObject = jsonArray.getJSONObject(i); Log.i(DEBUG_TAG, jsonObject.getString(KEY_ID)); // creating new HashMap HashMap<String, String> map = new HashMap<String, String>(); // adding each child node to HashMap key => value map.put(KEY_ID, jsonObject.getString(KEY_ID)); map.put(KEY_TITLE, jsonObject.getString(KEY_TITLE)); map.put(KEY_ARTIST, jsonObject.getString(KEY_ARTIST)); map.put(KEY_DURATION, jsonObject.getString(KEY_DURATION)); map.put(KEY_VOTECOUNT, jsonObject.getString(KEY_VOTECOUNT)); map.put(KEY_THUMB_URL, jsonObject.getString(KEY_THUMB_URL)); map.put(KEY_GENRE, jsonObject.getString(KEY_GENRE)); //Adding map to ArrayList if (Integer.parseInt(jsonObject.getString(KEY_VOTECOUNT)) == -1){ //If VoteCount is -1 then add to header headerList.add(map); }else { songsList.add(map); } } } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (ClientProtocolException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { e.printStackTrace(); } When I run logcat on String json, it seems to show correct info which is kind of like this... { "userdata": [ { "id": "8", "title": "Baby One More Time", "artist": "Britney Spears", "duration": "03:24:00", "votes": "0", "thumb_url": "http://api.androidhive.info/music/images/dido.png", "genre": null }, { "id": "2", "title": "As Long As You Love Me", "artist": "Justin Bieber", "duration": "05:26:00", "votes": "0", "thumb_url": "http://api.androidhive.info/music/images/enrique.png", "genre": "Rock" } ] } and the logcat on JSONArray jsonArray = new JSONArray(json); tells me that jsonArray.length() 10-31 22:57:28.433: W/CustomizedListView(26945): error! Invalid index 0, size is 0 Please let me know Thank you,

  Read the article

• generated service mock: everything but RhinoMocks fails?

  - by hko

  I have the "quest" to search for the next Mocking Framework for my company, and basically it's down to NSubstitute (simplest syntax, but no strict mocks), FakeItEasy(best reviews, Roy Osherove bonus, and slightly better lib support than NSubstitute), Moq (best "other libs support", biggest featureset, downside: mock.Object). We definitely want to move on from RhinoMocks, e.g. because of the unusefull interactiontest error messages (it should tell me what the parameter was instead, when a verification fails). So I was pretty surprised the other day (that was yesterday) when I found out RhinoMocks could do a thing where every other mock framework fails at: Mocking an autogenerated SomethingService (a typical VS autogenerated service with a default construtor in a partial class). Please don't argue about the design.. I intend to write lightweight integration tests (and some unit tests), and I can't mess around with the service, the product is installed on too many customers system. See this code: // here the NSubstitute and FakeItEasy equivalents throw an exception.. see below TicketStoreService fakeTicketStoreService = MockRepository.GenerateMock<TicketStoreService>(); fakeTicketStoreService.Expect(service => service.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())).Return(new Guid()); fakeTicketStoreService.DoSomething(Arg.Is(new Guid())); fakeTicketStoreService.VerifyAllExpectations(); Note that DoSomething is a non-virtual methodcall in an autogenerated class. So it shouldn't work, according to common knowledge. But it does. Problem is that it's the only (non commercial) framework that can do this: Rhino.Mocks works, and verification works too FakeItEasy says it doesn't find a default constructor (probably just wrong exception message): No default constructor was found on the type SomeNamespace.TicketStoreService Moq gives something sane and understandable: Invalid setup on a non-virtual (overridable in VB) member: service=> service.DoSomething Nsubstitute gives a message System.NotSupportedException: Cannot serialize member System.ComponentModel.Component.Site of type System.ComponentModel.ISite because it is an interface. I'm really wondering what's going on here with the frameworks, except Moq. The "fancy new" frameworks seem to have an initial perf hit too, probably preparing some Type cache and serializing stuff, whilst RhinoMocks somehow manages to create a very "slim" mock without recursion. I have to admit I didn't like RhinoMocks very well, but here it shines.. unfortunately. So, is there a way to get that to work with newer (non-commercial!) mocking frameworks, or somehow get a sane error message out of Rhino.Mocks? And why can Rhino.Mocks achieve this, when clearly every Mocking framework states it can only work with virtual methods when given a concrete class? Let's not derail the discussion by talking about alternative approaches like Extract&Override or runtime-proxy Mocking frameworks like JustMock/TypeMock/Moles or the new Fakes framework, I know these, but that would be less ideal solutions, for reasons beyond this topic. Any help appreciated..

  Read the article

• jQuery gallery turn over with next and previous buttons

  - by Ralf

  Hi, i'm trying to do some kind of Gallery-Turn Over Script with jQuery. Therefor i got an array with - let's say 13 - images: galleryImages = new Array( 'images/tb_01.jpg', 'images/tb_02.jpg', 'images/tb_03.jpg', 'images/tb_04.jpg', 'images/tb_05.jpg', 'images/tb_06.jpg', 'images/tb_07.jpg', 'images/tb_08.jpg', 'images/tb_09.jpg', 'images/tb_10.jpg', 'images/tb_11.jpg', 'images/tb_12.jpg', 'images/tb_13.jpg' ); My gallery looks like a grid showing only 9 images at once. My current script already counts the number of li-elements in #gallery, loads the first 9 images and displays them. The HTML looks like this: <ul id="gallery"> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> <li></li> </ul> <ul id="gallery-controls"> <li id="gallery-prev"><a href="#">Previous</a></li> <li id="gallery-next"><a href="#">Next</a></li> </ul> I'm pretty new to jQuery an my problem is that i can't figure out how to split the array in portions with 9 elements to attach it as a link on the control buttons. I need something like this: $('#gallery-next').click(function(){ $('ul#gallery li').children().remove(); $('ul#gallery li').each(function(index,el){ var img = new Image(); $(img).load(function () { $(this).css('display','none'); $(el).append(this); $(this).fadeIn(); }).attr('src', galleryImages[index]); //index for the next 9 images?!?! }); }); Thanks for help!

  Read the article

• Flash Buttons Don't Work: TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null objec

  - by goldenfeelings

  I've read through several threads about this error, but haven't been able to apply it to figure out my situation... My flash file is an approx 5 second animation. Then, the last keyframe of each layer (frame #133) has a button in it. My flash file should stop on this last key frame, and you should be able to click on any of the 6 buttons to navigate to another html page in my website. Here is the Action Script that I have applied to the frame in which the buttons exist (on a separate layer, see screenshot at: http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/wp-content/themes/Footprints/images/flash_buttonissue.jpg stop (); function babieschildren(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("babies children method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/babies-children"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } bc_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, babieschildren); bc_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, babieschildren); function fams(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("families method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/families"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } f_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fams); f_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, fams); function couplesweddings(event:MouseEvent):void { trace("couples weddings method was called!!!"); var targetURL:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio/couples-weddings"); navigateToURL(targetURL, "_self"); } cw_btn1.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, couplesweddings); cw_btn2.addEventListener(MouseEvent.CLICK, couplesweddings); When I test the movie, I get this error in the output box: "TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference." The test movie does stop on the appropriate frame, but the buttons don't do anything (no URL is opened, and the trace statements don't show up in the output box when the buttons are clicked on the test movie). You can view the .swf file here: www.footprintsfamilyphoto.com/portfolio I'm confident that all 6 buttons do exist in the appropriate frame (frame 133), so I don't think that's what's causing the 1009 error. I also tried deleting each of the three function/addEventListener sections one at a time and testing, and I still got the 1009 error every time. If I delete ALL of the action script except for the "stop ()" line, then I do NOT get the 1009 error. Any ideas?? I'm very new to Flash, so if I haven't clarified something that I need to, let me know!

  Read the article

• idiomatic property changed notification in scala?

  - by Jeremy Bell

  I'm trying to find a cleaner alternative (that is idiomatic to Scala) to the kind of thing you see with data-binding in WPF/silverlight data-binding - that is, implementing INotifyPropertyChanged. First, some background: In .Net WPF or silverlight applications, you have the concept of two-way data-binding (that is, binding the value of some element of the UI to a .net property of the DataContext in such a way that changes to the UI element affect the property, and vise versa. One way to enable this is to implement the INotifyPropertyChanged interface in your DataContext. Unfortunately, this introduces a lot of boilerplate code for any property you add to the "ModelView" type. Here is how it might look in Scala: trait IDrawable extends INotifyPropertyChanged { protected var drawOrder : Int = 0 def DrawOrder : Int = drawOrder def DrawOrder_=(value : Int) { if(drawOrder != value) { drawOrder = value OnPropertyChanged("DrawOrder") } } protected var visible : Boolean = true def Visible : Boolean = visible def Visible_=(value: Boolean) = { if(visible != value) { visible = value OnPropertyChanged("Visible") } } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of INotifyPropertyChanged trait } } } For the sake of space, let's assume the INotifyPropertyChanged type is a trait that manages a list of callbacks of type (AnyRef, String) = Unit, and that OnPropertyChanged is a method that invokes all those callbacks, passing "this" as the AnyRef, and the passed-in String). This would just be an event in C#. You can immediately see the problem: that's a ton of boilerplate code for just two properties. I've always wanted to write something like this instead: trait IDrawable { val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of ObservableProperty class } } } I know that I can easily write it like this, if ObservableProperty[T] has Value/Value_= methods (this is the method I'm using now): trait IDrawable { // on a side note, is there some way to get a Symbol representing the Visible field // on the following line, instead of hard-coding it in the ObservableProperty // constructor? val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible.Value) { DrawOrder.Value += 1 } } } // given this implementation of ObservableProperty[T] in my library // note: IEvent, Event, and EventArgs are classes in my library for // handling lists of callbacks - they work similarly to events in C# class PropertyChangedEventArgs(val PropertyName: Symbol) extends EventArgs("") class ObservableProperty[T](val PropertyName: Symbol, private var value: T) { protected val propertyChanged = new Event[PropertyChangedEventArgs] def PropertyChanged: IEvent[PropertyChangedEventArgs] = propertyChanged def Value = value; def Value_=(value: T) { if(this.value != value) { this.value = value propertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)) } } } But is there any way to implement the first version using implicits or some other feature/idiom of Scala to make ObservableProperty instances function as if they were regular "properties" in scala, without needing to call the Value methods? The only other thing I can think of is something like this, which is more verbose than either of the above two versions, but is still less verbose than the original: trait IDrawable { private val visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, false) def Visible = visible.Value def Visible_=(value: Boolean): Unit = { visible.Value = value } private val drawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def DrawOrder = drawOrder.Value def DrawOrder_=(value: Int): Unit = { drawOrder.Value = value } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 } } }

  Read the article

• MATLAB: different function returns from command line and within function

  - by Myx

  Hello: I have an extremely bizzare situation: I have a function in MATLAB which calls three other main functions and produces two figures for me. The function reads in an input jpeg image, crops it, segments it using kmeans clustering, and outputs 2 figures to the screen - the original image and the clustered image with the cluster centers indicated. Here is the function in MATLAB: function [textured_avg_x photo_avg_x] = process_database_images() clear all warning off %#ok type_num_max = 3; % type is 1='texture', 2='graph', or 3='photo' type_num_max = 1; img_max_num_photo = 100; % 400 photo images img_max_num_other = 100; % 100 textured, and graph images for type_num = 1:2:type_num_max if(type_num == 3) img_num_max = img_max_num_photo; else img_num_max = img_max_num_other; end img_num_max = 1; for img_num = 1:img_num_max [type img] = load_image(type_num, img_num); %img = imread('..\images\445.jpg'); img = crop_image(img); [IDX k block_bounds features] = segment_image(img); end end end The function segment_image first shows me the color image that was passed in, performs kmeans clustering, and outputs the clustered image. When I run this function on a particular image, I get 3 clusters (which is not what I expect to get). When I run the following commands from the MATLAB command prompt: >> img = imread('..\images\texture\1.jpg'); >> img = crop_image(img); >> segment_image(img); then the first image that is displayed by segment_image is the same as when I run the function (so I know that the clustering is done on the same image) but the number of clusters is 16 (which is what I expect). In fact, when I run my process_database_images() function on my entire image database, EVERY image is evaluated to have 3 clusters (this is a problem), whereas when I test some images individually, I get in the range of 12-16 clusters, which is what I prefer and expect. Why is there such a discrepancy? Am I having some syntax bug in my process_database_images() function? If more code is required from me (i.e. segment_images function, or crop_image function), please let me know. Thanks.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675  | Next Page >