Search Results

Search found 19928 results on 798 pages for 'multiple constructors'.

Page 668/798 | < Previous Page | 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675  | Next Page >

• Address Match Key Algorithm

  - by sestocker

  I have a list of addresses in two separate tables that are slightly off that I need to be able to match. For example, the same address can be entered in multiple ways: 110 Test St 110 Test St. 110 Test Street Although simple, you can imagine the situation in more complex scenerios. I am trying to develop a simple algorithm that will be able to match the above addresses as a key. For example. the key might be "11TEST" - first two of 110, first two of Test and first two of street variant. A full match key would also include first 5 of the zipcode as well so in the above example, the full key might look like "11TEST44680". I am looking for ideas for an effective algorithm or resources I can look at for considerations when developing this. Any ideas can be pseudo code or in your language of choice. We are only concerned with US addresses. In fact, we are only looking at addresses from 250 zip codes from Ohio and Michigan. We also do not have access to any postal software although would be open to ideas for cost effective solutions (it would essentially be a one time use). Please be mindful that this is an initial dump of data from a government source so suggestions of how users can clean it are helpful as I build out the application but I would love to have the best initial I possibly can by being able to match addresses as best as possible.

  Read the article

• How can I enable PHP5 for a site? Having problems with every single method.

  - by user347662

  I'm working on a client site that is hosted on someone's DIY Debian Linux server [Apache/1.3.33 (Debian GNU/Linux)], and I'm trying to install a script that requires PHP5. By default, the server parses .php files with PHP 4.3.10-22, which is configured at /etc/php4/apache/php.ini, according to phpinfo(). On the server I can see a config directory for PHP5 adjacent to the PHP4 directory: /etc/php5.0/apache2/php.ini. I have tried multiple methods to enable PHP5 for the document root where the site's files are hosted, including all available methods mentioned here. By far, the most common suggestion I've found is to add one or both of the following lines to the site's .htaccess file: AddHandler application/x-httpd-php5 .php AddType application/x-httpd-php5 .php Trouble is, when either or both of those lines are present, the site forces my browser to download any .php files requested, without parsing the PHP at all. All of the other methods mentioned in the above article cause a 500 Internal Server Error. There is no hosting control panel I can access in a browser to enable PHP5 for the site, but I do have shell access. When I asked the server administrator about this issue, he encouraged me to search for the answer on Google. Where could I begin to troubleshoot this issue? Are there ways to test or verify the server's specific PHP5 installation and configuration, using the command line or some other method? Do you have other suggestions to enable PHP5?

  Read the article

• Django model operating on a queryset

  - by jmoz

  I'm new to Django and somewhat to Python as well. I'm trying to find the idiomatic way to loop over a queryset and set a variable on each model. Basically my model depends on a value from an api, and a model method must multiply one of it's attribs by this api value to get an up-to-date correct value. At the moment I am doing it in the view and it works, but I'm not sure it's the correct way to achieve what I want. I have to replicate this looping elsewhere. Is there a way I can encapsulate the looping logic into a queryset method so it can be used in multiple places? I have this atm (I am using django-rest-framework): class FooViewSet(viewsets.ModelViewSet): model = Foo serializer_class = FooSerializer bar = # some call to an api def get_queryset(self): # Dynamically set the bar variable on each instance! foos = Foo.objects.filter(baz__pk=1).order_by('date') for item in foos: item.needs_bar = self.bar return items I would think something like so would be better: def get_queryset(self): bar = # some call to an api # Dynamically set the bar variable on each instance! return Foo.objects.filter(baz__pk=1).order_by('date').set_bar(bar) I'm thinking the api hit should be in the controller and then injected to instances of the model, but I'm not sure how you do this. I've been looking around querysets and managers but still can't figure it out nor decided if it's the best method to achieve what I want. Can anyone suggest the correct way to model this with django? Thanks.

  Read the article

• custom C++ boost::lambda expression help

  - by aaa

  hello. A little bit of background: I have some strange multiple nested loops which I converted to flat work queue (basically collapse single index loops to single multi-index loop). right now each loop is hand coded. I am trying to generalized approach to work with any bounds using lambda expressions: For example: // RANGE(i,I,N) is basically a macro to generate `int i = I; i < N; ++i ` // for (RANGE(lb, N)) { // for (RANGE(jb, N)) { // for (RANGE(kb, max(lb, jb), N)) { // for (RANGE(ib, jb, kb+1)) { // is equivalent to something like (overload , to produce range) flat<1, 3, 2, 4>((_2, _3+1), (max(_4,_3), N), N, N) the internals of flat are something like: template<size_t I1, size_t I2, ..., class L1_, class L2, ..._> boost::array<int,4> flat(L1_ L1, L2_ L2, ...){ //boost::array<int,4> current; class variable bool advance; L2_ l2 = L2.bind(current); // bind current value to lambda { L1_ l1 = L1.bind(current); //bind current value to innermost lambda l1.next(); advance = !(l1 < l1.upper()); // some internal logic if (advance) { l2.next(); current[0] = l1.lower(); } } //..., } my question is, can you give me some ideas how to write lambda (derived from boost) which can be bound to index array reference to return upper, lower bounds according to lambda expression? thank you much

  Read the article

• Bash Array Problem

  - by Deepak Prasanna

  I wrote a bash script which tries to find a process and run the process if it had stopped. This is the script. #!/bin/bash process=thin path=/home/deepak/abc/ initiate=thin start -d process_id=`ps -ef | pgrep $process | wc -m` if [ "$process_id" -gt "0" ]; then echo "The process process is running!!" else cd $path $initiate echo "Oops the process has stopped" fi This worked fine and I thought of using arrays so that i can form a loop use this script to check multiple processes. So I modified my script like this #!/bin/bash process[1]=thin path[1]=/home/deepak/abc/ initiate[1]=thin start -d process_id=`ps -ef | pgrep $process[1] | wc -m` if [ "$process_id" -gt "0" ]; then echo "Hurray the process ${process[1]} is running!!" else cd ${path[1]} ${initiate[1]} echo "Oops the process has stopped" echo "Continue your coffee, the process has been stated again! ;)" fi I get this error if i run this script. DontWorry.sh: 2: process[1]=thin: not found DontWorry.sh: 3: path[1]=/home/deepak/abc/: not found DontWorry.sh: 4: initiate[1]=thin start -d: not found I googled to find any solution for this, most them insisted to use "#!/bin/bash" instead of "#!/bin/sh". I tried both but nothing worked. What am i missing?

  Read the article

• how to do introspection in R (stat package)

  - by Lebron James

  Hi all, I am somewhat new to R, and i have this piece of code which generates a variable that i don't know the type for. Are there any introspection facility in R which will tell me which type this variable belongs to? The following illustrates the property of this variable: I am working on linear model selection, and the resource I have is lm result from another model. Now I want to retrieve the lm call by the command summary(model)$call so that I don't need to hardcode the model structure. However, since I have to change the dataset, I need to do a bit of modification on the "string", but apparently it is not a simple string. I wonder if there is any command similar to string.replace so that I can manipulate this variable from the variable $call. Thanks > str<-summary(rdnM)$call > str lm(formula = y ~ x1, data = rdndat) > str[1] lm() > str[2] y ~ x1() > str[3] rdndat() > str[3] <- data Warning message: In str[3] <- data : number of items to replace is not a multiple of replacement length > str lm(formula = y ~ x1, data = c(10, 20, 30, 40)) > str<-summary(rdnM)$call > str lm(formula = y ~ x1, data = rdndat) > str[3] <- 'data' > str lm(formula = y ~ x1, data = "data") > str<-summary(rdnM)$call > type str Error: unexpected symbol in "type str" >

  Read the article

• should this database table be normalized?

  - by oo

  i have taken over a database that stores fitness information and we were having a debate about a certain table and whether it should stay as one table or get broken up into three tables. Today, there is one table called: workouts that has the following fields id, exercise_id, reps, weight, date, person_id So if i did 2 sets of 3 different exercises on one day, i would have 6 records in that table for that day. for example: id, exercise_id, reps, weight, date, person_id 1, 1, 10, 100, 1/1/2010, 10 2, 1, 10, 100, 1/1/2010, 10 3, 1, 10, 100, 1/1/2010, 10 4, 2, 10, 100, 1/1/2010, 10 5, 2, 10, 100, 1/1/2010, 10 6, 2, 10, 100, 1/1/2010, 10 So the question is, given that there is some redundant data (date, personid, exercise_id) in multiple records, should this be normalized to three tables WorkoutSummary: - id - date - person_id WorkoutExercise: - id - workout_id (foreign key into WorkoutSummary) - exercise_id WorkoutSets: - id - workout_exercise_id (foreign key into WorkoutExercise) - reps - weight I would guess the downside is that the queries would be slower after this refactoring as now we would need to join 3 tables to do the same query that had no joins before. The benefit of the refactoring allows up in the future to add new fields at the workout summary level or the exercise level with out adding in more duplication. any feedback on this debate?

  Read the article

• Is this a good approach to address double-base64-encoding?

  - by Freiheit

  My software understands attachments, like PNGs attached to user records. These attachments are usually sent in from outside sources as a Base64 encoded string. The database stores whatever data it is given, Base64 encoded or not. When I serve up the attachment for download I do this: if (Base64.isBase64(data)) { data = Base64.decodeBase64(data); } There is a potential for data that is double encoded. For instance the sender of a message had base64 encoded data, then encoded it again when building the message to send to me. I think the following code would address that circumstance: while (Base64.isBase64(data)) { data = Base64.decodeBase64(data); } So if data is encoded multiple times, it would be decoded until its in its 'raw' state and then served up for download. Is this approach an acceptable way to address that problem? Ideally some sort of checking could happen at the edge when I receive attachment data, but that will take more time. This looping seems to be a faster way to do it. The 'Base64' library is Apache Commons: http://commons.apache.org/codec/apidocs/org/apache/commons/codec/binary/Base64.html I trust it to properly identify Base64 encoded data.

  Read the article

• fixed layout in formview template

  - by Jeroen

  I have n pages with formviews, all sharing a similar layout inside their item/edit/insert templates. For example all item and edit templates have a header and body part inside where i put the fields. The header has a certain style and the body part too. My question is how can i enforce this style in all my formviews without repeating the same bulk css styles all the time. Now i'm using masterpages for this with multiple formviews on 1 page. That's not good i think. I want one 1 page for edit/insert/item and 1 formview. I would prefer somehow to define the style for edit template once and load it into every formview. Ofcourse not all the formviews have the same fields, so like masterpages i would like to have 'areas' where i can put my fields. The perfect way i suppose would be to have a formview span a complete masterpage based page including the contentplaceholders inside it's edit/insert/item templates. Any ideas are more than welcome. Edit: I read it's possible in .Net 4 using dynamic data. I'm stuck with 3.5 for the moment.

  Read the article

• ASP.NET: aggregating validators in a user control

  - by orsogufo

  I am developing a web application where I would like to perform a set of validations on a certain field (an account name in the specific case). I need to check that the value is not empty, matches a certain pattern and is not already used. I tried to create a UserControl that aggregates a RequiredFieldValidator, a RegexValidator and a CustomValidator, then I created a ControlToValidate property like this: public partial class AccountNameValidator : System.Web.UI.UserControl { public string ControlToValidate { get { return ViewState["ControlToValidate"] as string; } set { ViewState["ControlToValidate"] = value; AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameRegexValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameUniqueValidator.ControlToValidate = value; } } } However, if I insert the control on a page and set ControlToValidate to some control ID, when the page loads I get an error that says Unable to find control id 'AccountName' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator', which makes me think that the controls inside my UserControl cannot resolve correctly the controls in the parent page. So, I have two questions: 1) Is it possible to have validator controls inside a UserControl validate a control in the parent page? 2) Is it correct and good practice to "aggregate" multiple validator controls in a UserControl? If not, what is the standard way to proceed?

  Read the article

• Strange C++ performance difference?

  - by STingRaySC

  I just stumbled upon a change that seems to have counterintuitive performance ramifications. Can anyone provide a possible explanation for this behavior? Original code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); double dFreq = iFreq; if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... // do some calculations with dFreq... } } While cleaning up this code during a "performance pass," I decided to move the definition of dFreq inside the if block, as it was only used inside the if. There are several calculations involving dFreq so I didn't eliminate it entirely as it does save the cost of multiple run-time conversions from int to double. I expected no performance difference, or if any at all, a negligible improvement. However, the perfomance decreased by nearly 10%. I have measured this many times, and this is indeed the only change I've made. The code snippet shown above executes inside a couple other loops. I get very consistent timings across runs and can definitely confirm that the change I'm describing decreases performance by ~10%. I would expect performance to increase because the int to double conversion would only occur when iFreq != 0. Chnaged code: for (int i = 0; i < ct; ++i) { // do some stuff... int iFreq = getFreq(i); if (iFreq != 0) { // do some stuff with iFreq... double dFreq = iFreq; // do some stuff with dFreq... } } Can anyone explain this? I am using VC++ 9.0 with /O2. I just want to understand what I'm not accounting for here.

  Read the article

• Observing events on injected elements using prototype

  - by snaken

  I asked a question previously, it was answered correctly in the form i asked it but realised now why it wasnt working for me. i have this code to observe multiple select menus: $('product_options').select('select').invoke("observe","change",optchange); This does work - as pointed out - with static layout like this: <html> <head> <title>optchange</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="prototype.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="product_options"> <select id="o0"> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> </select> <select id="o1"> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> </select> <select id="o3"> <option>1</option> <option>2</option> </select> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> function optchange(e) { alert("optchanged"); } $('product_options').select('select').invoke("observe","change", optchange); </script> </body> </html> But in my context, making a selection in the first select menu fires of an Ajax.Updater that completely replaces the content of Select 2 - this is killing the event observer. Is there a way to fix this without having to apply a new event observer each time? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Atlas style map index for static google map

  - by Ben Holland

  Hello, I'm using a static google map, but really this problem could apply to any maps project. I want to divide a map into multiple quadrants (of say 50x50 pixels) and label the columns as A, B, C.... and the rows as 1, 2, 3... Next I plan to do something like, 1) Find the markers which are the farthest north, east, south, and west 2) Use that info to to define the bounding boxes of each row and column box 3) Classify each marker by its row and column (Example Marker 1 = [A,2]) A few requirements, I don't know the zoom level because I let Google set the zoom level appropriately for me and I would rather not use an algorithm that is dependent on a zoom level. I do however know the locations of all of the markers that are shown on the map. Here is an example of a map that I would like to classify the markers for, static map example link. I found these which look like a good start, Resource 1, Resource 2 But I think I'm still in need of some help getting started. Can anyone help write out some pseudo code or post a few more resources? I'm kind of in a rut at the moment. Thanks! Much appreciated of any help!

  Read the article

• Can GWT image sprites using ImageBundle be made to work in IE7 and IE6?

  - by aem

  I'm trying to use a ClientBundle in my GWT application to make multiple images get sent as a single file. I declare the bundle like so: public interface MyResources extends ClientBundle { public static final MyResources INSTANCE = GWT.create(MyResources.class); @Source("icon1.png") ImageResource icon1(); @Source("icon2.png") ImageResource icon2(); } This works great in Firefox and IE8, but in IE7 (and earlier) the whole sprite shows up in place of one of my original images - that is, icon1 is next to icon2 next to icon3, and so on. In IE8's developer tools using IE8-as-IE7 mode or Compatibility View, I can see that it's showing an image with a file name like 26BEFD2399A92A5DDA54277BA550C75B.cache.png, which is what I'd expect. So is there any way to make GWT image sprites work in IE7 and lower? If not, is there any way to gracefully degrade so users of other browsers get the speedup of spriting and IE7 and IE6 users get something that looks right but is slower? Edit: The Client Bundle Developer's Guide has a discussion of using ClientBundle and @sprite, and says "Support for IE6 isn't feasible in this format, because structural changes to the DOM are necessary to implement a "windowing" effect. Once it's possible to distinguish ie6 and ie7 in user.agent, we could revisit support for ie6. In the current implementation, the ie6 code won't render correctly, although is a purely cosmetic issue." Is this what's going on in my case, and is there a way to work around it? Showing all the images is "purely a cosmetic issue", but it's a pretty severe one.

  Read the article

• Java/BlackBerry build error overriding too many classes

  - by behrk2

  Hey everyone, Has anyone ever heard of overriding too many classes in Java? Perhaps this issue is just related to BlackBerry development, but I was wondering if it is an issue in Java, too. Let's say I have the following: LabelField lblTitle = new LabelField(title) { protected void paint(Graphics graphics) { graphics.setColor(0x00FFFFFF); graphics.clear(); super.paint(graphics); } }; LabelField lblSubTitle = new LabelField(releaseYear + ", " + rating) { protected void paint(Graphics graphics) { graphics.setColor(0x00FFFFFF); graphics.clear(); super.paint(graphics); } }; This code works. However, I've noticed that by overriding the paint() method multiple times in many different classes throughout my project, I receive the error: I/O Error: Cannot run program "jar": CreateProcess error=2, The system cannot find the file specified My only solution thus far is to clean up my GUI code...minimize it and reuse it. Perhaps its good that this happened so I can be less careless about creating GUI code all over my classes. Anyways, I was just wondering if anyone has heard of this before. If you are interested in reading more about the issue I have been facing, check out the following link: BlackBerry Java Development Forums

  Read the article

• Matplotlib canvas drawing

  - by Morgoth

  Let's say I define a few functions to do certain matplotlib actions, such as def dostuff(ax): ax.scatter([0.],[0.]) Now if I launch ipython, I can load these functions and start a new figure: In [1]: import matplotlib.pyplot as mpl In [2]: fig = mpl.figure() In [3]: ax = fig.add_subplot(1,1,1) In [4]: run functions # run the file with the above defined function If I now call dostuff, then the figure does not refresh: In [6]: dostuff(ax) I have to then explicitly run: In [7]: fig.canvas.draw() To get the canvas to draw. Now I can modify dostuff to be def dostuff(ax): ax.scatter([0.],[0.]) ax.get_figure().canvas.draw() This re-draws the canvas automatically. But now, say that I have the following code: def dostuff1(ax): ax.scatter([0.],[0.]) ax.get_figure().canvas.draw() def dostuff2(ax): ax.scatter([1.],[1.]) ax.get_figure().canvas.draw() def doboth(ax): dostuff1(ax) dostuff2(ax) ax.get_figure().canvas.draw() I can call each of these functions, and the canvas will be redrawn, but in the case of doboth(), it will get redrawn multiple times. My question is: how could I code this, such that the canvas.draw() only gets called once? In the above example it won't change much, but in more complex cases with tens of functions that can be called individually or grouped, the repeated drawing is much more obvious, and it would be nice to be able to avoid it. I thought of using decorators, but it doesn't look as though it would be simple. Any ideas?

  Read the article

• RESTful API design question - how should one allow users to create new resource instances?

  - by Tamás

  I'm working in a research group where we intend to publish implementations of some of the algorithms we develop on the web via a RESTful API. Most of these algorithms work on small to medium size datasets, and in many cases, a user of our services might want to run multiple queries (with different parameters) on the same dataset, so for me it seems reasonable to allow users to upload their datasets in advance and refer to them in their queries later. In this sense, a dataset could be a resource in my API, and an algorithm could be another. My question is: how should I let the users upload their own datasets? I cannot simply let users upload their data to /dataset/dataset_id as letting the users invent their own dataset_ids might result in ID collision and users overwriting each other's datasets by accident. (I believe one of the most frequently used dataset ID would be test). I think an ideal way would be to have a dedicated URL (like /dataset/upload) where users can POST their datasets and the response would contain a unique ID under which the dataset was stored, but I'm not sure that it does not violate the basic principles of REST. What is the preferred way of dealing with such scenarios?

  Read the article

• Parent Control Mouse Enter/Leave Events With Child Controls

  - by Paul Williams

  I have a C# .NET 2.0 WinForms app. My app has a control that is a container for two child controls: a label, and some kind of edit control. You can think of it like this, where the outer box is the parent control: +---------------------------------+ | [Label Control] [Edit Control] | +---------------------------------+ I am trying to do something when the mouse enters or leaves the parent control, but I don't care if the mouse moves into one of its children. I want a single flag to represent "the mouse is somewhere inside the parent or children" and "the mouse has moved outside of the parent control bounds". I've tried handling MouseEnter and MouseLeave on the parent and both child controls, but this means the action begins and ends multiple times as the mouse moves across the control. In other words, I get this: Parent.OnMouseEnter (start doing something) Parent.OnMouseLeave (stop) Child.OnMouseEnter (start doing something) Child.OnMouseLeave (stop) Parent.OnMouseEnter (start doing something) Parent.OnMouseLeave (stop) The intermediate OnMouseLeave events cause some undesired effects as whatever I'm doing gets started and then stopped. I want to avoid that. I don't want to capture the mouse as the parent gets the mouse over, because the child controls need their mouse events, and I want menu and other shortcut keys to work. Is there a way to do this inside the .NET framework? Or do I need to use a Windows mouse hook?

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2005 standard filegroups / files for performance on SAN

  - by Blootac

  Ok so I've just been on a SQL Server course and we discussed the usage scenarios of multiple filegroups and files when in use over local RAID and local disks but we didn't touch SAN scenarios so my question is as follows; I currently have a 250 gig database running on SQL Server 2005 where some tables have a huge number of writes and others are fairly static. The database and all objects reside in a single file group with a single data file. The log file is also on the same volume. My interpretation is that separate data files should be used across different disks to lessen disk contention and that file groups should be used for partitioning of data. However, with a SAN you obviously don't really have the same issue of disk contention that you do with a small RAID setup (or at least we don't at the moment), and standard edition doesn't support partitioning. So in order to improve parallelism what should I do? My understanding of various Microsoft publications is that if I increase the number of data files, separate threads can act across each file separately. Which leads me to the question how many files should I have. One per core? Should I be putting tables and indexes with high levels of activity in separate file groups, each with the same number of data files as we have cores? Thank you

  Read the article

• Google Analytics API Authentication Speedup

  - by Paulo

  I'm using a Google Analytics API Class in PHP made by Doug Tan to retrieve Analytics data from a specific profile. Check the url here: http://code.google.com/intl/nl/apis/analytics/docs/gdata/gdataArticlesCode.html When you create a new instance of the class you can add the profile id, your google account + password, a daterange and whatever dimensions and metrics you want to pick up from analytics. For example i want to see how many people visited my website from different country's in 2009. //make a new instance from the class $ga = new GoogleAnalytics($email,$password); //website profile example id $ga->setProfile('ga:4329539'); //date range $ga->setDateRange('2010-02-01','2010-03-08'); //array to receive data from metrics and dimensions $array = $ga->getReport( array('dimensions'=>('ga:country'), 'metrics'=>('ga:visits'), 'sort'=>'-ga:visits' ) ); Now you know how this API class works, i'd like to adress my problem. Speed. It takes alot of time to retrieve multiple types of data from the analytics database, especially if you're building different arrays with different metrics/dimensions. How can i speed up this process? Is it possible to store all the possible data in a cache so i am able to retrieve the data without loading it over and over again?

  Read the article

• Asynchronous NSURLConnection Throws EXC_BAD_ACCESS

  - by Sheehan Alam

  I'm not really sure why my code is throwing a EXC_BAD_ACCESS, I have followed the guidelines in Apple's documentation: -(void)getMessages:(NSString*)stream{ NSString* myURL = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://www.someurl.com"]; NSURLRequest *theRequest = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:[NSURL URLWithString:myURL]]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self]; if (theConnection) { receivedData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection Failed!"); } } And my delegate methods #pragma mark NSURLConnection Delegate Methods - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveResponse:(NSURLResponse *)response { // This method is called when the server has determined that it // has enough information to create the NSURLResponse. // It can be called multiple times, for example in the case of a // redirect, so each time we reset the data. // receivedData is an instance variable declared elsewhere. [receivedData setLength:0]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didReceiveData:(NSData *)data { // Append the new data to receivedData. // receivedData is an instance variable declared elsewhere. [receivedData appendData:data]; } - (void)connection:(NSURLConnection *)connection didFailWithError:(NSError *)error { // release the connection, and the data object [connection release]; // receivedData is declared as a method instance elsewhere [receivedData release]; // inform the user NSLog(@"Connection failed! Error - %@ %@", [error localizedDescription], [[error userInfo] objectForKey:NSErrorFailingURLStringKey]); } - (void)connectionDidFinishLoading:(NSURLConnection *)connection { // do something with the data // receivedData is declared as a method instance elsewhere NSLog(@"Succeeded! Received %d bytes of data",[receivedData length]); // release the connection, and the data object [connection release]; [receivedData release]; } I get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS on didReceiveData. Even if that method simply contains an NSLog, I get the error. Note: receivedData is an NSMutableData* in my header file

  Read the article

• Can I indicate where my MySQL parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the

  - by Paul H

  I've got a chunk of code where I can pass info into a MySQL command using parameters through an ODBC connection. Example code showing surname passed in using string surnameToLookFor: using (OdbcConnection DbConn = new OdbcConnection( connectToDB )) { OdbcDataAdapter cmd = new OdbcDataAdapter( "SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?", DbConn); OdbcParameter odbcParam = new OdbcParameter("surname", surnameToLookFor); cmd.SelectCommand.Parameters.Add(odbcParam); cmd.Fill(dsCustomers, "customers"); } What I'd like to know is whether I can indicate where my parameter should go more meaningfully than just having a ? to mark the position - as I could see this getting quite hard to debug if there are multiple parameters being replaced. I'd like to provide a name to the parameter in a manner something like this: SELECT Firstname, Address, Postcode FROM customers WHERE Surname = ?surname ", When I try this it just chokes. The following code public System.Data.DataSet Customer_Open(string sConnString, long ld) { using (MySqlConnection oConn = new MySqlConnection(sConnString)) { oConn.Open(); MySqlCommand oCommand = oConn.CreateCommand(); oCommand.CommandText = "select * from cust_customer where id=?id"; MySqlParameter oParam = oCommand.Parameters.Add("?id", MySqlDbType.Int32); oParam.Value = ld; oCommand.Connection = oConn; DataSet oDataSet = new DataSet(); MySqlDataAdapter oAdapter = new MySqlDataAdapter(); oAdapter.SelectCommand = oCommand; oAdapter.Fill(oDataSet); oConn.Close(); return oDataSet; } } is from http://www.programmingado.net/a-389/MySQL-NET-parameters-in-query.aspx and includes the fragment where id=?id Which would be ideal. Is this only available through the .Net connector rather than the ODBC? If it is possible to do using ODBC how would I need to change my code fragment to enable this?

  Read the article

• Correctly use dependency injection

  - by Rune

  Me and two other colleagues are trying to understand how to best design a program. For example, I have an interface ISoda and multiple classes that implement that interface like Coke, Pepsi, DrPepper, etc.... My colleague is saying that it's best to put these items into a database like a key/value pair. For example: Key | Name -------------------------------------- Coke | my.namespace.Coke, MyAssembly Pepsi | my.namespace.Pepsi, MyAssembly DrPepper | my.namespace.DrPepper, MyAssembly ... then have XML configuration files that map the input to the correct key, query the database for the key, then create the object. I don't have any specific reasons, but I just feel that this is a bad design, but I don't know what to say or how to correctly argue against it. My second colleague is suggesting that we micro-manage each of these classes. So basically the input would go through a switch statement, something similiar to this: ISoda soda; switch (input) { case "Coke": soda = new Coke(); break; case "Pepsi": soda = new Pepsi(); break; case "DrPepper": soda = new DrPepper(); break; } This seems a little better to me, but I still think there is a better way to do it. I've been reading up on IoC containers the last few days and it seems like a good solution. However, I'm still very new to dependency injection and IoC containers, so I don't know how to correctly argue for it. Or maybe I'm the wrong one and there's a better way to do it? If so, can someone suggest a better method? What kind of arguments can I bring to the table to convince my colleagues to try another method? What are the pros/cons? Why should we do it one way? Unfortunately, my colleagues are very resistant to change so I'm trying to figure out how I can convince them.

  Read the article

• Extending spring based app

  - by pitr

  I have a spring-based Web Service. I now want to build a sort of plugin for it that extends it with beans. What I have now in web.xml is: <context-param> <param-name>contextConfigLocation</param-name> <param-value>/WEB-INF/classes/*-configuration.xml</param-value> </context-param> My core app has main-configuration.xml which declares its beans. My plugin app has plugin-configuration.xml which declares additional beans. Now when I deploy, my build deploys plugin.jar into /WEB-INF/lib/ and copies plugin-configuration.xml into /WEB-INF/classes/ all under main.war. This is all fine (although I think there could be a better solution), but when I develop the plugin, I don't want to have two projects in Eclipse with dependencies. I wish to have main.jar that I include as a library. However, web.xml from main.jar isn't automatically discovered. How can I do this? Bean injection? Bean discovery of some sort? Something else? Note: I expect to have multiple different plugins in production, but development of each of them will be against pure main.jar Thank you.

  Read the article

• iPhone Landscape FAQ and Solutions

  - by Johannes Rudolph

  There has been a lot of confusion and a set of corresponding set of questions here on SO how iPhone applications with proper handling for Landscape/Portrait mode autorotation can be implemented. It is especially difficult to implement such an application when starting in landscape mode is desired. The most common observed effect are scrambled layouts and areas of the screen where touches are no longer recognized. A simple search for questions tagged iphone and landscape reveals these issues, which occur under certain scenarios: Landscape only iPhone app with multiple nibs: App started in Landscape mode, view from first nib is rendered fine, everything view loaded from a different nib is not displayed correctly. Iphone Landscape mode switching to Portraite mode on loading new controller: Self explanatory iPhone: In landscape-only, after first addSubview, UITableViewController doesn’t rotate properly: Same issue as above. iPhone Landscape-Only Utility-Template Application: Layout errors, controller does not seem to recognize the view should be rotated but displays a clipped portrait view in landscape mode, causing half of the screen to stay blank. presentModalViewController in landscape after portrait viewController: Modal views are not correctly rendered either. A set of different solutions have been presented, some of them including completely custom animation via CoreGraphics, while others build on the observation that the first view controller loaded from the main nib is always displayed correct. I have spent a significant amount of time investigating this issue and finally found a solution that is not only a partial solution but should work under all these circumstances. It is my intend with this CW post to provide sort of a FAQ for others having issues with UIViewControllers in Landscape mode. Please provide feedback and help improve the quality of this Post by incorporating any related observations. Feel free to edit and post other/better answers if you know of any.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 664 665 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675  | Next Page >