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• Easy way to "organize"/"render"/"generate" HTML?

  - by Rockmaninoff

  Hi all, I'm a relative newbie to web development. I know my HTML and CSS, and am getting involved with Ruby on Rails for some other projects, which has been daunting but very rewarding. Basically I'm wondering if there's a language/backbone/program/solution to eliminate the copypasta trivialities of HTML, with some caveats. Currently my website is hosted on a school server and unfortunately can't use Rails. Being a newbie I also don't really know what other technologies are available to me (or even what those technologies might be). I'm essentially looking for a way to auto-insert all of my header/sidebar/footer/menu information, and when those need to be updated, the rest of the pages get updated. Right now, I have a sidebar that is a tree of all of the pages on my website. When I add a page, not only do I need to update the sidebar, I have to update it for every page in my domain. This is really inefficient and I'm wondering if there is a better way. I imagine this is a pretty widespread problem, but searching Google turns up too many irrelevant links (design template websites, tutorials, etc.). I'd appreciate any help. Oh, and I've heard of HAML as a way to render HTML; how would it be used in this situation?

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• Grails one-to-many mapping with joinTable

  - by intargc

  I have two domain-classes. One is a "Partner" the other is a "Customer". A customer can be a part of a Partner and a Partner can have 1 or more Customers: class Customer { Integer id String name static hasOne = [partner:Partner] static mapping = { partner joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'partner_id',key:'customer_id'] } } class Partner { Integer id static hasMany = [customers:Customer] static mapping = { customers joinTable:[name:'PartnerMap',column:'customer_id',key:'partner_id'] } } However, whenever I try to see if a customer is a part of a partner, like this: def customers = Customer.list() customers.each { if (it.partner) { println "Partner!" } } I get the following error: org.springframework.dao.InvalidDataAccessResourceUsageException: could not execute query; SQL [select this_.customer_id as customer1_162_0_, this_.company as company162_0_, this_.display_name as display3_162_0_, this_.parent_customer_id as parent4_162_0_, this_.partner_id as partner5_162_0_, this_.server_id as server6_162_0_, this_.status as status162_0_, this_.vertical_market as vertical8_162_0_ from Customer this_]; nested exception is org.hibernate.exception.SQLGrammarException: could not execute query It looks as if Grails is thinking partner_id is a part of the Customer query, and it's not... It is in the PartnerMap table, which is supposed to find the customer_id, then get the Partner from the corresponding partner_id. Anyone have any clue what I'm doing wrong? Edit: I forgot to mention I'm doing this with legacy database tables. So I have a Partner, Customer and PartnerMap table. PartnerMap has simply a customer_id and partner_id field.

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• Immutability and shared references - how to reconcile?

  - by davetron5000

  Consider this simplified application domain: Criminal Investigative database Person is anyone involved in an investigation Report is a bit of info that is part of an investigation A Report references a primary Person (the subject of an investigation) A Report has accomplices who are secondarily related (and could certainly be primary in other investigations or reports These classes have ids that are used to store them in a database, since their info can change over time (e.g. we might find new aliases for a person, or add persons of interest to a report) If these are stored in some sort of database and I wish to use immutable objects, there seems to be an issue regarding state and referencing. Supposing that I change some meta-data about a Person. Since my Person objects immutable, I might have some code like: class Person( val id:UUID, val aliases:List[String], val reports:List[Report]) { def addAlias(name:String) = new Person(id,name :: aliases,reports) } So that my Person with a new alias becomes a new object, also immutable. If a Report refers to that person, but the alias was changed elsewhere in the system, my Report now refers to the "old" person, i.e. the person without the new alias. Similarly, I might have: class Report(val id:UUID, val content:String) { /** Adding more info to our report */ def updateContent(newContent:String) = new Report(id,newContent) } Since these objects don't know who refers to them, it's not clear to me how to let all the "referrers" know that there is a new object available representing the most recent state. This could be done by having all objects "refresh" from a central data store and all operations that create new, updated, objects store to the central data store, but this feels like a cheesy reimplementation of the underlying language's referencing. i.e. it would be more clear to just make these "secondary storable objects" mutable. So, if I add an alias to a Person, all referrers see the new value without doing anything. How is this dealt with when we want to avoid mutability, or is this a case where immutability is not helpful?

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• What are CDN Best Practices?

  - by Wild Thing

  Hi, I have recently started using the Rackspace Cloudfiles CDN (Limelight), about which I have some questions: I am using jQuery, jQuery UI and jQuery tools in addition to custom JS code. Also, my site is written in ASP.Net, which means there is some ASP.Net generated JS code. Right now what I have done is that I have combined all of the js (including the jquery code), except the ASP.Net generated JS into one file. I am hosting this on the Rackspace CDN. I am wondering if it would make more sense to just get the jQuery, jQuery UI files from the Google hosted CDN (which I suspect would work very well in serving these files, since they will be in many users' cache already)? This would mean one extra HTTP request, so I'm not sure if it'll help. Right now I have multiple containers for my assets. For example, in Rackspace I have 3 containers: JS, CSS and Images. The URL subdomain for all 3 is different. Will that lead to a performance penalty? Should I just use one container (and thus one domain for the CDN)? Is there a way of having the MS ASP.Net generated JS loaded from MS CDN? Would this have a performance hit as per the above question? Thanks in advance, WT

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• How can I build and parse HTTP URL's / URI's / paths in Perl?

  - by Robert S. Barnes

  I have a wget-like script which downloads a page and then retrieves all the files linked in IMG tags on that page. Given the URL of the original page and the the link extracted from the IMG tag in that page I need to build the URL for the image file I want to retrieve. Currently I use a function I wrote: sub build_url { my ( $base, $path ) = @_; # if the path is absolute just prepend the domain to it if ($path =~ /^\//) { ($base) = $base =~ /^(?:http:\/\/)?(\w+(?:\.\w+)+)/; return "$base$path"; } my @base = split '/', $base; my @path = split '/', $path; # remove a trailing filename pop @base if $base =~ /[[:alnum:]]+\/[\w\d]+\.[\w]+$/; # check for relative paths my $relcount = $path =~ /(\.\.\/)/g; while ( $relcount-- ) { pop @base; shift @path; } return join '/', @base, @path; } The thing is, I'm surely not the first person solving this problem, and in fact it's such a general problem that I assume there must be some better, more standard way of dealing with it, using either a core module or something from CPAN - although via a core module is preferable. I was thinking about File::Spec but wasn't sure if it has all the functionality I would need.

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• Migrating MachineKey from iis6 on old server to iis7 on new server

  - by MaseBase

  I am migrating our hosting environment to a totally new data center with new boxes and hardware and software... the whole deal. Our website cookies are encrypted using the machineKey, so when I make a request to my domain and point it to the new web server (by overriding the local hosts file), I get an error because the cookie cannot be decrypted, since the Machine Key is different. I'd like to avoid any problems a frequent user might have when they arrive at the new server for the first time. To the best of my knowledge, at this point I think I need to set the same MachineKey from our current servers on our new servers. This way when past visitors with a cookie arrive at our website served by the new server, the cookie will be decrypted properly with the MachineKey it was encrypted with and then log them in properly. My question is where do I find my MachineKey value (in IIS 6 win2k3 server) so I can use that value to set it statically on my new servers? I've pulled up my machine.config file, but it doesn't specify the key, it only specifies a configSection where the key can be defined. It's not in my web.config for the app or elsewhere. I did find this great article on some MachineKey and Web Garden woes (which could explain some other bugs I've been experiencing with regard to the machineKey). Update I am back to this issue and am still faced with a similar problem. I have the MachineKey auto-generated on the IIS6 server but I need to get that exact key so I can set it explicitly and not have it auto-generated anymore. Any help is appreciated...

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• Displaying cookies as key=value for all domains?

  - by OverTheRainbow

  Hello, This question pertains to the use of the cookie-capable WebClient derived class presented in the How can I get the WebClient to use Cookies? question. I'd like to use a ListBox to... 1) display each cookie individually as "key=value" (the For Each loop displays all of them as one string), and 2) be able to display all cookies, regardless of the domain from which they came ("www.google.com", here): Imports System.IO Imports System.Net Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim webClient As New CookieAwareWebClient Const URL = "http://www.google.com" Dim response As String response = webClient.DownloadString(URL) RichTextBox1.Text = response 'How to display cookies as key/value in ListBox? 'PREF=ID=5e770c1a9f279d5f:TM=1274032511:LM=1274032511:S=1RDPaKJKpoMT9T54 For Each mycc In webClient.cc.GetCookies(New Uri(URL)) ListBox1.Items.Add(mycc.ToString) Next End Sub End Class Public Class CookieAwareWebClient Inherits WebClient Public cc As New CookieContainer() Private lastPage As String Protected Overrides Function GetWebRequest(ByVal address As System.Uri) As System.Net.WebRequest Dim R = MyBase.GetWebRequest(address) If TypeOf R Is HttpWebRequest Then With DirectCast(R, HttpWebRequest) .CookieContainer = cc If Not lastPage Is Nothing Then .Referer = lastPage End If End With End If lastPage = address.ToString() Return R End Function End Class Thank you.

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• Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

  - by Chad Johnson

  I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

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• DotNetOpenAuth getting return_To url as the provider

  - by Jeff

  I have a provider that I'm upgrading from version 2 to version 3. basically a user comes to one of our sites and we say "if you don't have an openID sign up with this one" They click that and are sent to our in house provider what signs them up for an account and has to verify their email address. In the link I send via Email I included the return to url . This way when they click the link to verify their email (sometimes up to a week later) they are sent to our page that knows to send them back to the returnTo to login. I could not find a good way to do this in version 2 so I used a hack. Sadly this hack broke in version 2 so I'm completely stumped as to how to find the login page url that is the return_To Note: I need the full URL not just the domain. old hack: if (ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest != null) { req = ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString(); int startpos = req.LastIndexOf("CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '"); startpos += "CheckIdRequest.ReturnTo = '".Length; int endpos = req.LastIndexOf("token=") - startpos-1; if (endpos > 0) { req = req.Substring(startpos, endpos); } else { log.Fatal("Missing token in url" + ProviderEndpoint.PendingAuthenticationRequest.ToString()); return "~/"; } req = req.Replace("&internalLogin=True", ""); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True&", "?"); req = req.Replace("?internalLogin=True", ""); }

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• data ownership and performance

  - by Ami

  We're designing a new application and we ran into some architectural question when thinking about data ownership. we broke down the system into components, for example Customer and Order. each of this component/module is responsible for a specific business domain, i.e. Customer deals with CRUD of customers and business process centered around customers (Register a n new customer, block customer account, etc.). each module is the owner of a set of database tables, and only that module may access them. if another module needs data that is owned by another module, it retrieves it by requesting it from that module. so far so good, the question is how to deal with scenarios such as a report that needs to show all the customers and for each customer all his orders? in such a case we need to get all the customers from the Customer module, iterate over them and for each one get all the data from the Order module. performance won't be good...obviously it would be much better to have a stored proc join customers table and orders table, but that would also mean direct access to the data that is owned by another module, creating coupling and dependencies that we wish to avoid. this is a simplified example, we're dealing with an enterprise application with a lot of business entities and relationships, and my goal is to keep it clean and as loosely coupled as possible. I foresee in the future many changes to the data scheme, and possibly splitting the system into several completely separate systems. I wish to have a design that would allow this to be done in a relatively easy way. Thanks!

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• Procesing 16bit sample audio

  - by user2431088

  Right now i have an audio file (2 Channels, 44.1kHz Sample Rate, 16bit Sample size, WAV) I would like to pass it into this method but i am not sure of any way to convert the WAV file to a byte array. /// <summary> /// Process 16 bit sample /// </summary> /// <param name="wave"></param> public void Process(ref byte[] wave) { _waveLeft = new double[wave.Length / 4]; _waveRight = new double[wave.Length / 4]; if (_isTest == false) { // Split out channels from sample int h = 0; for (int i = 0; i < wave.Length; i += 4) { _waveLeft[h] = (double)BitConverter.ToInt16(wave, i); _waveRight[h] = (double)BitConverter.ToInt16(wave, i + 2); h++; } } else { // Generate artificial sample for testing _signalGenerator = new SignalGenerator(); _signalGenerator.SetWaveform("Sine"); _signalGenerator.SetSamplingRate(44100); _signalGenerator.SetSamples(16384); _signalGenerator.SetFrequency(5000); _signalGenerator.SetAmplitude(32768); _waveLeft = _signalGenerator.GenerateSignal(); _waveRight = _signalGenerator.GenerateSignal(); } // Generate frequency domain data in decibels _fftLeft = FourierTransform.FFTDb(ref _waveLeft); _fftRight = FourierTransform.FFTDb(ref _waveRight); }

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• PHP - complete url parser help

  - by Mark

  I have been trying to find an effective url parser, php's own does not include subdomain or extension. On php.net a number of users had contributed and made this: function parseUrl($url) { $r = "^(?:(?P<scheme>\w+)://)?"; $r .= "(?:(?P<login>\w+):(?P<pass>\w+)@)?"; $r .= "(?P<host>(?:(?P<subdomain>[-\w\.]+)\.)?" . "(?P<domain>[-\w]+\.(?P<extension>\w+)))"; $r .= "(?::(?P<port>\d+))?"; $r .= "(?P<path>[\w/]*/(?P<file>\w+(?:\.\w+)?)?)?"; $r .= "(?:\?(?P<arg>[\w=&]+))?"; $r .= "(?:#(?P<anchor>\w+))?"; $r = "!$r!"; // Delimiters preg_match ( $r, $url, $out ); return $out; } Unfortunately it fails on paths with a '-' and I can't for the life of me workout how to amend it to accept '-' in the path name. Thanks

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• Service Layer are repeating my Repositories

  - by Felipe

  Hi all, I'm developing an application using asp.net mvc, NHibernate and DDD. I have a service layer that are used by controllers of my application. Everything are using Unity to inject dependencies (ISessionFactory in repositories, repositories in services and services in controllers) and works fine. But, it's very common I need a method in service to get only object in my repository, like this (in service class): public class ProductService { private readonly IUnitOfWork _uow; private readonly IProductRepository _productRepository; public ProductService(IUnitOfWork unitOfWork, IProductRepository productRepository) { this._uow = unitOfWork; this._productRepository = productRepository; } /* this method should be exists in DDD ??? It's very common */ public Domain.Product Get(long key) { return _productRepository.Get(key); } /* other common method... is correct by DDD ? */ public bool Delete(long key) { usign (var tx = _uow.BeginTransaction()) { try { _productRepository.Delete(key); tx.Commit(); return true; } catch { tx.RollBack(); return false; } } } /* ... others methods ... */ } This code is correct by DDD ? For each Service class I have a Repository, and for each service class need I do a method "Get" for an entity ? Thanks guys Cheers

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• CreateProcessWithLogonW : unable to start process

  - by Vivek

  Hi I am completely new to programming. And please someone help me. I am trying to start a pocess from a service. I need to start the new process by prompting user to enter admin credentials. I was trying to use CreateProcessWithLogonW(). Am I using the right function. I tried to give input username, password, domain as localhost. I gave full pathe to the .exe file that i need to start. Here is the piece of code. CreateProcessWithLogonW(L"Administrator", L"localhost", L"password", 0, NULL, L"c:\myupdates\myapp.exe", NORMAL_PRIORITY_CLASS | CREATE_CONSOLE, NULL, NULL, &si, &pi); Si.cb = sizeof(si); Si.lpDesktop = L"winsta0\\default"; But the process never started. Can you guys tell me what I am doing wrong. And what do I need to do to promt user to enter credentials of administrator instead of hardcoding it.

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• Custom bean instantiation logic in Spring MVC

  - by Michal Bachman

  I have a Spring MVC application trying to use a rich domain model, with the following mapping in the Controller class: @RequestMapping(value = "/entity", method = RequestMethod.POST) public String create(@Valid Entity entity, BindingResult result, ModelMap modelMap) { if (entity== null) throw new IllegalArgumentException("An entity is required"); if (result.hasErrors()) { modelMap.addAttribute("entity", entity); return "entity/create"; } entity.persist(); return "redirect:/entity/" + entity.getId(); } Before this method gets executed, Spring uses BeanUtils to instantiate a new Entity and populate its fields. It uses this: ... ReflectionUtils.makeAccessible(ctor); return ctor.newInstance(args); Here's the problem: My entities are Spring managed beans. The reason for this is to inject DAOs on them. Instead of calling new, I use EntityFactory.createEntity(). When they're retrieved from the database, I have an interceptor that overrides the public Object instantiate(String entityName, EntityMode entityMode, Serializable id) method and hooks the factories into that. So the last piece of the puzzle missing here is how to force Spring to use the factory rather than its own BeanUtils reflective approach? Any suggestions for a clean solution? Thanks very much in advance.

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• Where should I put validation code?

  - by D Lawson

  I'm creating interfaces and abstract classes that represent a messaging framework for short text-based messages like SMS, email, twitter, xml, etc.. and I was wondering where I should put the message validation code. The thing is that I am only writing the superclasses and interfaces, so I'm not putting the actual implementation in, I'll just put the hooks in that allow others to validate the content of the messages. The way I see it, I could do it several ways: in the abstract superclass "Message", have an abstract method 'isValid'. A variation on this would be to have isValid be called when the Message constructor is called, throwing a MalformedMessageException if the message is formatted incorrectly. in the transport layer, immediately before sending, validate the message. I would have a send(Message) method that calls an isValid(Message) method immediately before it sends. have a singleton message validator with a static method isValid(Message) that is called at some point. I'm sure there are other options that I'm missing. Currently, I'm leaning towards the first one, but it doesn't feel right to me to have validation code in what should be a domain object.

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• Session scoped bean as class attribute of Spring MVC Controller

  - by Sotirios Delimanolis

  I have a User class: @Component @Scope("session") public class User { private String username; } And a Controller class: @Controller public class UserManager { @Autowired private User user; @ModelAttribute("user") private User createUser() { return user; } @RequestMapping(value = "/user") public String getUser(HttpServletRequest request) { Random r = new Random(); user.setUsername(new Double(r.nextDouble()).toString()); request.getSession().invalidate(); request.getSession(true); return "user"; } } I invalidate the session so that the next time i got to /users, I get another user. I'm expecting a different user because of user's session scope, but I get the same user. I checked in debug mode and it is the same object id in memory. My bean is declared as so: <bean id="user" class="org.synchronica.domain.User"> <aop:scoped-proxy/> </bean> I'm new to spring, so I'm obviously doing something wrong. I want one instance of User for each session. How?

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• Sending a password securely using gwt and app engine?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I set up session handling on a google app project. This is supposed to allow my users to login and maintain state across pages. I just dumped it into the default greeting service to try it out: public class GreetingServiceImpl extends RemoteServiceServlet implements GreetingService { public void sessionTest(String username) { HttpSession session = getThreadLocalRequest().getSession(false); session.setAttribute("username", username); } } then attempting to pull it out in my landing project.jsp page: <% String username = null; HttpSession mysession = request.getSession(false); if (mysession.getAttribute("username") != null) { username = (String)mysession.getAttribute("username"); } else { username = "(not logged in yet)"; } <p>You are: <%= username %> </p> %> It works, but I don't know how to send the data in sessionTest() securely. If I were sending the user's password in there too, it would be in the clear. This would be ok (I think) if I was using https, but google app engine does not allow you to use https under custom domains (like www.mysite.com), they have to be under the (mysite.appspot.com) domain. I'm kind of stuck here - how do we send passwords securely? If I was using php, I think I could use digest authentication (I'm not too experienced here) - can we do something like that with gwt + gae? Thanks

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• How can I create a rules engine without using eval() or exec()?

  - by Angela

  I have a simple rules/conditions table in my database which is used to generate alerts for one of our systems. I want to create a rules engine or a domain specific language. A simple rule stored in this table would be..(omitting the relationships here) if temp > 40 send email Please note there would be many more such rules. A script runs once daily to evaluate these rules and perform the necessary actions. At the beginning, there was only one rule, so we had the script in place to only support that rule. However we now need to make it more scalable to support different conditions/rules. I have looked into rules engines , but I hope to achieve this in some simple pythonic way. At the moment, I have only come up with eval/exec and I know that is not the most recommended approach. So, what would be the best way to accomplish this?? ( The rules are stored as data in database so each object like "temperature", condition like "/=..etc" , value like "40,50..etc" and action like "email, sms, etc.." are stored in the database, i retrieve this to form the condition...if temp 50 send email, that was my idea to then use exec or eval on them to make it live code..but not sure if this is the right approach )

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• Recursion problem overloading an operator

  - by Tronfi

  I have this: typedef string domanin_name; And then, I try to overload the operator< in this way: bool operator<(const domain_name & left, const domain_name & right){ int pos_label_left = left.find_last_of('.'); int pos_label_right = right.find_last_of('.'); string label_left = left.substr(pos_label_left); string label_right = right.substr(pos_label_right); int last_pos_label_left=0, last_pos_label_right=0; while(pos_label_left!=string::npos && pos_label_right!=string::npos){ if(label_left<label_right) return true; else if(label_left>label_right) return false; else{ last_pos_label_left = pos_label_left; last_pos_label_right = pos_label_right; pos_label_left = left.find_last_of('.', last_pos_label_left); pos_label_right = right.find_last_of('.', last_pos_label_left); label_left = left.substr(pos_label_left, last_pos_label_left); label_right = right.substr(pos_label_right, last_pos_label_right); } } } I know it's a strange way to overload the operator <, but I have to do it this way. It should do what I want. That's not the point. The problem is that it enter in an infinite loop right in this line: if(label_left<label_right) return true; It seems like it's trying to use this overloading function itself to do the comparision, but label_left is a string, not a domain name! Any suggestion?

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• Is this a safe PHP mail function?

  - by Eystein

  I've finally got this PHP email script working (didn't work on localhost…), but my concern is that it's not safe. So - is this safe for spamming and any other security pitfalls I'm not aware of? <?php $email = '[email protected]'; $subject = 'Notify about stuff'; $notify = $_REQUEST['email']; if (!preg_match("/\w+([-+.]\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*/", $notify)) { echo "<h4>Your email address doesn't validate, please check that you typed it correct.</h4>"; echo "<a href='javascript:history.back(1);'>Back</a>"; } elseif(mail($email, $subject, $notify)) { echo "<h4>Thank you, you will be notified.</h4>"; } else { echo "<h4>Sorry, your email didn't get registered.</h4>"; } ?> Unrelated: is there a PHP function I can use instead of javascript:history.back(1) ?

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• suggestions on syntax to express mathematical formula concisely

  - by aaa

  hello. I am developing functional domain specific embedded language within C++ to translate formulas into working code as concisely and accurately as possible. I post prototype in the comment, it is about 2 hundred lines long. Right now my language looks something like this (well, actually is going to look like): // implies two nested loops j=0:N, i=0,j (range(i) < j < N)[T(i,j) = (T(i,j) - T(j,i))/e(i+j)]; // implies summation over above expression sum(range(i) < j < N))[(T(i,j) - T(j,i))/e(i+j)]; I am looking for possible syntax improvements/extensions or just different ideas about expressing mathematical formulas as clearly and precisely as possible (in any language, not just C++). Can you give me some syntax examples relating to my question which can be accomplished in your language of choice which consider useful. In particular, if you have some ideas about how to translate the above code segments, I would be happy to hear them. Thank you just to clarify and give actual formula, my short-term goal is to express the following expression concisely where values in <> are already computed as 4-dimensional array

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• Running a process at the Windows 7 Welcome Screen

  - by peelman

  So here's the scoop: I wrote a tiny C# app a while back that displays the hostname, ip address, imaged date, thaw status (we use DeepFreeze), current domain, and the current date/time, to display on the welcome screen of our Windows 7 lab machines. This was to replace our previous information block, which was set statically at startup and actually embedded text into the background, with something a little more dynamic and functional. The app uses a Timer to update the ip address, deepfreeze status, and clock every second, and it checks to see if a user has logged in and kills itself when it detects such a condition. If we just run it, via our startup script (set via group policy), it holds the script open and the machine never makes it to the login prompt. If we use something like the start or cmd commands to start it off under a separate shell/process, it runs until the startup script finishes, at which point Windows seems to clean up any and all child processes of the script. We're currently able to bypass that using psexec -s -d -i -x to fire it off, which lets it persist after the startup script is completed, but can be incredibly slow, adding anywhere between 5 seconds and over a minute to our startup time. We have experimented with using another C# app to start the process, via the Process class, using WMI Calls (Win32_Process and Win32_ProcessStartup) with various startup flags, etc, but all end with the same result of the script finishing and the info block process getting killed. I tinkered with rewriting the app as a service, but services were never designed to interact with the desktop, let alone the login window, and getting things operating in the right context never really seemed to work out. So for the question: Does anybody have a good way to accomplish this? Launch a task so that it would be independent of the startup script and run on top of the welcome screen?

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• Java / Spring MVC 3 validation of an email address

  - by Tim

  I have a Java backend with Spring MVC and I am using validation in this way on my domain object for an email address: import javax.validation.constraints.NotNull; import javax.validation.constraints.Pattern; import javax.validation.constraints.Size; ... @NotNull @Size(min = 1, max = 100) @Pattern(regexp="^([a-zA-Z0-9\\-\\.\\_]+)'+'(\\@)([a-zA-Z0-9\\-\\.]+)'+'(\\.)([a-zA-Z]{2,4})$") private String email; But all I get with these lines of code Set<ConstraintViolation<Person>> failures = validator.validate(personObject); ... Map<String, String> failureMessages = new HashMap<String, String>(); for (ConstraintViolation<Person> failure : failures) { failureMessages.put(failure.getPropertyPath().toString(), failure.getMessage()); System.out.println(failure.getPropertyPath().toString()+" - "+failure.getMessage()) } I get this on the console: email - must match "^([a-zA-Z0-9\\-\\.\\_]+)'+'(\\@)([a-zA-Z0-9\\-\\.]+)'+'(\\.)([a-zA-Z]{2,4})$" but I have as email address [email protected], so the regexp does not match. So I have two prolems: What's wrong here? And how can I define a error message on my own, because display this to the user, that is not a good thing :-) Thank you in advance for your help and Best Regards.

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• Why is there so much XML in Java these days?

  - by BD at Rivenhill

  This is really more of a philosophy/design issue. I did some work in Java back in the middle 90's and again in the early 2000's and now I'm coming back to it after spending a lot of time in C/C++ and it seems like there was an explosion of XML dependency while I was gone. Major build system tools like ant and maven depend on XML for their configuration, but I'm actually more concerned with all the frameworks, such as Spring, Hibernate, etc. My experience is that powerful supporting libraries like these are where a developer can really get leverage for building programs with lots of features without writing a lot of code, but it really seems like I'm getting one language for the price of two here. I write a bunch of Java classes, but then I also write a bunch of XML files to glue them together. The things that get done in the XML are things that I can see reasonable ways of doing in straight code without the middleman, and they don't really seem to be treated exactly like configuration files: they change rarely and they end up getting committed to source code control like the Java code itself, but they are distributed with the resulting application and need to be unpacked and installed in the classpath in order to get the application to work. I'm working with server applications that are not web-based, so maybe the domain is a bit different from what most people are doing, but I just can't help feeling that I must be doing something wrong here. Can someone point me to a good source of information for why these design choices were made and what problems they are meant to solve so that I can analyze my own experiences in this context?

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