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  • Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. MS SQL Server

    - by geekzlla
    I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID)? nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 xORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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  • When to use pointer to a class and when to just instantiate it as a variable

    - by Enders
    Im sort of confused by it. The best I could find was reading through the cplusplus.com tutorial and all they have to say about pointers to classes. "It is perfectly valid to create pointers that point to classes. We simply have to consider that once declared, a class becomes a valid type, so we can use the class name as the type for the pointer" Which tells me nothing about when to use them over the normal instantiation. I've seen the - operator many times, and looked at some codes but cant really decipher why they did it. Generic examples will be appreciated; but more specifically related to gui programming. Its where I encountered it first. QGridLayout *mainLayout = new QGridLayout; mainLayout->addWidget(nameLabel, 0, 0); mainLayout->addWidget(nameLine, 0, 1); mainLayout->addWidget(addressLabel, 1, 0, Qt::AlignTop); mainLayout->addWidget(addressText, 1, 1); Why not QGridLayout mainLayout mainLayout.addWidget ... (It doesnt compile if I change the sample code to that and try it but you get the point) Thanks in advance

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  • Dynamic Array of Objects Sans Vector Class

    - by Connor Black
    I am doing a homework assignment for my summer OO class and we need to write two classes. One is called Sale and the other is called Register. I've written my Sale class; here's the .h file: enum ItemType {BOOK, DVD, SOFTWARE, CREDIT}; class Sale { public: Sale(); // default constructor, // sets numerical member data to 0 void MakeSale(ItemType x, double amt); ItemType Item(); // Returns the type of item in the sale double Price(); // Returns the price of the sale double Tax(); // Returns the amount of tax on the sale double Total(); // Returns the total price of the sale void Display(); // outputs sale info private: double price; // price of item or amount of credit double tax; // amount of sales tax double total; // final price once tax is added in. ItemType item; // transaction type }; For the Register class we need to include a dynamic array of Sale objects in our member data. We cannot use the vector class. How is this done? Here's my 'Register' '.h' class Register{ public: Register(int ident, int amount); ~Register(); int GetID(){return identification;} int GetAmount(){return amountMoney;} void RingUpSale(ItemType item, int basePrice); void ShowLast(); void ShowAll(); void Cancel(); int SalesTax(int n); private: int identification; int amountMoney; };

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  • Download Remote File

    - by Abs
    Hello all, I have a function that will be passed in a link. The link is to a remote image. I thought I could just use the extension of the file in the URL to determine the type of image but some URLs won't have extensions in the URL. They probably just push headers to the browser and therefore I do not have an extension to parse from the URL. How can I test if the URL has an extension and if not then read the headers to determine the file type? Am I over complicating things here? Is there an easier way to do this? I am making use of Codeigniter maybe there is something already built in to do this? All I really want to do is download an image from a URL with the correct extension. This is what I have so far. function get_image($image_link){ $remoteFile = $image_link; $ext = ''; //some URLs might not have an extension $file = fopen($remoteFile, "r"); if (!$file) { return false; }else{ $line = ''; while (!feof ($file)) { $line .= fgets ($file, 4096); } $file_name = time().$ext; file_put_contents($file_name, $line); } fclose($file); } Thanks all for any help

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  • Passing the Class<T> in java of a generic list?

    - by Rob Stevenson-Leggett
    I have a method for reading JSON from a service, I'm using Gson to do my serialization and have written the following method using type parameters. public T getDeserializedJSON(Class<T> aClass,String url) { Reader r = getJSONDataAsReader(url); Gson gson = new Gson(); return gson.fromJson(r, aClass); } I'm consuming json which returns just an array of a type e.g. [ { "prop":"value" } { "prop":"value" } ] I have a java class which maps to this object let's call it MyClass. However to use my method I need to do this: RestClient<ArrayList<MyClass>> restClient = new RestClient<ArrayList<MyClass>>(); ArrayList<MyClass> results = restClient.getDeserializedJSON(ArrayList<MyClass>.class, url); However, I can't figure out the syntax to do it. Passing just ArrayList.class doesn't work. So is there a way I can get rid of the Class parameter or how do I get the class of the ArrayList of MyClass?

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  • S3 browser upload via POST: unable to handle errors gracefully

    - by samf
    I am writing an app where I want the customer to be able to upload to Amazon S3 straight from the browser. I can make this work just fine. But when errors occur, I want to handle them more gracefully than splattering an XML document on the customer's screen. I have a scheme that I think would work, but it's failing. Here's what I'm trying: Create a form to do the upload, and store the form on S3 itself, in the same domain as the "action" attribute of the form. Redirect the customer to this form. Now their browser is sitting on https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/something. The page contains a hidden iframe. The form sets its target to the iframe. The load event handler looks at the contents of the iframe, and acts upon it. So, something like this: <iframe id="foo" name="foo" style="display: none" /> <form target="foo" action="https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/"> <input type="hidden" name="..." value="..." /> <input type="file" name="file" /> </form> with this javascript (using jquery): function handler() { var message = $("#foo").contents().find('message').text(); alert(message); } $("#foo").load(handler); Using firebug, I can see that the iframe contains an XML document, that contains a "message" node. However, the .find('message') always fails to find anything within the XML document. Notice that the action of the form has the same domain, port, and scheme as the document itself. So, I don't think that I should be running afoul of the same-origin policy. Right? But it fails every time. This is using Firefox and Google Chrome browsers. Thanks for any advice!

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  • Undefined test not working in javascript.

    - by James South
    I'm getting the error 'foo' is undefined. in my script when i test my function with an undefined parameter. As far as I understand, This shouldn't be happening. My calling code: //var foo var test = peachUI().stringIsNullOrEmpty(foo) ; My function (part of a larger framework). stringIsNullOrEmpty: function (testString) { /// <summary> /// Checks to see if a given string is null or empty. /// </summary> /// <param name="testString" type="String"> /// The string check against. /// </param> /// <returns type="Boolean" /> var $empty = true; if (typeof testString !== "undefined") { if (testString && typeof testString === "string") { if (testString.length > 0) { $empty = false; } } } return $empty; } Any ideas? Please note. I've had a good read of other similar questions before posting this one.

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  • std::map keys in C++

    - by Soumava
    I have a requirement to create two different maps in C++. The Key is of type CHAR * and the Value is a pointer to a struct. I am filling 2 maps with these pairs, in separate iterations. After creating both maps I need find all such instances in which the value of the string referenced by the CHAR * are same. For this i am using the following code : typedef struct _STRUCTTYPE { .. } STRUCTTYPE, *PSTRUCTTYPE; typedef pair {CHAR *,PSTRUCTTYPE} kvpair; .. CHAR *xyz; PSTRUCTTYPE abc; after filling the information; Map.insert (kvpair(xyz,abc)); the above is repeated x times for the first map, and y times for the second map. after both are filled out; std::map {CHAR *, PSTRUCTTYPE} :: iterator Iter,findIter; for (Iter=iteratedMap-begin();Iter!=iteratedMap-end();mapIterator++) { char *key = Iter-first; printf("%s\n",key); findIter=otherMap-find(key); //printf("%u",findIter-second); if (findIter!=otherMap-end()) { printf("Match!\n"); } } The above code does not show any match, although the list of keys in both maps show obvious matches. My understanding is that the equals operator for CHAR * just equates the memory address of the pointers. My question is, what should i do to alter the equals operator for this type of key or could I use a different datatype for the string? *note : {} has been used instead of angle brackets as the content inside angle brackets was not showing up in the post.

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  • How can i design a DB where the user can define the fields and types of a detail table in a M-D rela

    - by Simon
    My application has one table called 'events' and each event has approx 30 standard fields, but also user defined fields that could be any name or type, in an 'eventdata' table. Users can define these event data tables, by specifying x number of fields (either text/double/datetime/boolean) and the names of these fields. This 'eventdata' (table) can be different for each 'event'. My current approach is to create a lookup table for the definitions. So if i need to query all 'event' and 'eventdata' per record, i do so in a M-D relaitionship using two queries (i.e. select * from events, then for each record in 'events', select * from 'some table'). Is there a better approach to doing this? I have implemented this so far, but most of my queries require two distinct calls to the DB - i cannot simply join my master 'events' table with different 'eventdata' tables for each record in in 'events'. I guess my main question is: can i join my master table with different detail tables for each record? E.g. SELECT E.*, E.Tablename FROM events E LEFT JOIN 'E.tablename' T ON E._ID = T.ID If not, is there a better way to design my database considering i have no idea on how many user defined fields there may be and what type they will be.

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  • return false is not working in my submit click

    - by kumar
    Hello friends. this is the code i am using for my Html.BeginForm.. $('#PbtnSubmit').click(function() { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').each(function() { if ($("#PricingEditExceptions input:checkbox:checked").length > 0) { var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[type=checkbox]:checked'); var PMstrIDs = checked.map(function() { return $(this).val(); }).get().join(','); $('#1_exceptiontypes').attr('value', exceptiontypes) $('#1_PMstrIDs').attr('value', PMstrIDs); } else { alert("Please select atleast one exception"); return false; } }); }); in else blcok my return false is not working after alert mesage also its going to my controler? thanks is this right? i tried like this $('#PbtnSubmit').click(function() { $('#PricingEditExceptions input[name=PMchk]').each(function() { if ($("#PricingEditExceptions input:checkbox:checked").length > 0) { var checked = $('#PricingEditExceptions input[type=checkbox]:checked'); var PMstrIDs = checked.map(function() { return $(this).val(); }).get().join(','); $('#1_exceptiontypes').attr('value', exceptiontypes) $('#1_PMstrIDs').attr('value', PMstrIDs); } else { alert("Please select atleast one exception"); } }); return false; }); if i do like this on submit its doing nothing.. thanks

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  • Optimising ruby regexp -- lots of match groups

    - by Farcaller
    I'm working on a ruby baser lexer. To improve performance, I joined up all tokens' regexps into one big regexp with match group names. The resulting regexp looks like: /\A(?<__anonymous_-1038694222803470993>(?-mix:\n+))|\A(?<__anonymous_-1394418499721420065>(?-mix:\/\/[\A\n]*))|\A(?<__anonymous_3077187815313752157>(?-mix:include\s+"[\A"]+"))|\A(?<LET>(?-mix:let\s))|\A(?<IN>(?-mix:in\s))|\A(?<CLASS>(?-mix:class\s))|\A(?<DEF>(?-mix:def\s))|\A(?<DEFM>(?-mix:defm\s))|\A(?<MULTICLASS>(?-mix:multiclass\s))|\A(?<FUNCNAME>(?-mix:![a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z0-9_]*))|\A(?<ID>(?-mix:[a-zA-Z_][a-zA-Z0-9_]*))|\A(?<STRING>(?-mix:"[\A"]*"))|\A(?<NUMBER>(?-mix:[0-9]+))/ I'm matching it to my string producing a MatchData where exactly one token is parsed: bigregex =~ "\n ... garbage" puts $~.inspect Which outputs #<MatchData "\n" __anonymous_-1038694222803470993:"\n" __anonymous_-1394418499721420065:nil __anonymous_3077187815313752157:nil LET:nil IN:nil CLASS:nil DEF:nil DEFM:nil MULTICLASS:nil FUNCNAME:nil ID:nil STRING:nil NUMBER:nil> So, the regex actually matched the "\n" part. Now, I need to figure the match group where it belongs (it's clearly visible from #inspect output that it's _anonymous-1038694222803470993, but I need to get it programmatically). I could not find any option other than iterating over #names: m.names.each do |n| if m[n] type = n.to_sym resolved_type = (n.start_with?('__anonymous_') ? nil : type) val = m[n] break end end which verifies that the match group did have a match. The problem here is that it's slow (I spend about 10% of time in the loop; also 8% grabbing the @input[@pos..-1] to make sure that \A works as expected to match start of string (I do not discard input, just shift the @pos in it). You can check the full code at GH repo. Any ideas on how to make it at least a bit faster? Is there any option to figure the "successful" match group easier?

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  • Optimize Duplicate Detection

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background This is an optimization problem. Oracle Forms XML files have elements such as: <Trigger TriggerName="name" TriggerText="SELECT * FROM DUAL" ... /> Where the TriggerText is arbitrary SQL code. Each SQL statement has been extracted into uniquely named files such as: sql/module=DIAL_ACCESS+trigger=KEY-LISTVAL+filename=d_access.fmb.sql sql/module=REP_PAT_SEEN+trigger=KEY-LISTVAL+filename=rep_pat_seen.fmb.sql I wrote a script to generate a list of exact duplicates using a brute force approach. Problem There are 37,497 files to compare against each other; it takes 8 minutes to compare one file against all the others. Logically, if A = B and A = C, then there is no need to check if B = C. So the problem is: how do you eliminate the redundant comparisons? The script will complete in approximately 208 days. Script Source Code The comparison script is as follows: #!/bin/bash echo Loading directory ... for i in $(find sql/ -type f -name \*.sql); do echo Comparing $i ... for j in $(find sql/ -type f -name \*.sql); do if [ "$i" = "$j" ]; then continue; fi # Case insensitive compare, ignore spaces diff -IEbwBaq $i $j > /dev/null # 0 = no difference (i.e., duplicate code) if [ $? = 0 ]; then echo $i :: $j >> clones.txt fi done done Question How would you optimize the script so that checking for cloned code is a few orders of magnitude faster? System Constraints Using a quad-core CPU with an SSD; trying to avoid using cloud services if possible. The system is a Windows-based machine with Cygwin installed -- algorithms or solutions in other languages are welcome. Thank you!

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  • C# Linq Select Problem in Method Chain.

    - by Gnought
    Note that the _src inherit IQueryable<U> and V inherit new(); I wrote the following statement, there is no syntax error. IQueryable<V> a = from s in _src where (s.Right - 1 == s.Left) select new V(); But if i re-wrote it as follows, the Visual Studio editor complains an error in the "Select" IQueryable<V> d = _src.Where(s => s.Right - 1 == s.Left).Select(s=> new V()); The Error is: The type arguments cannot be inferred from the usage. Try specifying the type arguments explicitly. Candidates are: System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<U>, System.Func<U,V>) (in class Enumerable) System.Linq.IQueryable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Linq.IQueryable<U>, System.Linq.Expressions.Expression<System.Func<U,V>>) (in class Queryable) Could anyone explain this phenomenon, and what the solution is to fix the error?

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  • Is there a Visual Studio (or freeware) equivalent for Expression Blend's "Edit Template" feature?

    - by DanM
    In Expression Blend, you can view and edit the control template of objects in the "Objects and Timeline" panel. I'm wondering if there's an equivalent feature in Visual Studio or if there's something free (or very inexpensive) I can download that will allow me to do this. Here's a screen cap from Expression Blend that shows what I'm talking about: Doing this for DataGrid results in the following: <Style x:Key="DataGridStyle1" TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Custom:DataGrid}"> ... </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsGrouping" Value="True"> <Setter Property="ScrollViewer.CanContentScroll" Value="False"/> </Trigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> (The ... is of course replaced with setters and the contents of the control template.) This is a very useful starting point if you want to create a custom style and template for a control. It seems like you can do pretty much anything you can do in Blend in Studio, but this one is eluding me. Any ideas? Edit I'm also curious if this feature will be in Visual Studio 2010. Anyone know?

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  • jQuery class selector and click()

    - by Anonymous
    I'm currently trying to get an alert to happen when something is clicked. I can get it working in jsFiddle, but not in production code: jsFiddle example that works (jQuery 1.5 loaded) HTML (in case jsFiddle is inaccessible): <!DOCTYPE HTML><html><head><title>Test</title></head> <body> <h1>25 Feb 2011</h1><h3>ABC</h3><ul> <li class="todoitem">Test&mdash;5 minutes</li> </ul> </body></html> Javascript: $(".todoitem").click(function() { alert('Item selected'); }); Non-working production example: <!DOCTYPE HTML><html><head><title>Test</title> <script src="http://ajax.aspnetcdn.com/ajax/jQuery/jquery-1.5.1.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(".todoitem").click(function() { alert('Item selected'); }); </script> </head> <body> <h1>25 Feb 2011</h1><h3>ABC</h3><ul><li class="todoitem">Test&mdash;5 minutes</li></ul> </body> </html> Safari's Inspector indicate that jQuery is being loaded correctly, so that's not the issue. As far as I can tell, these two pieces of code are essentially identical, but the latter isn't working. Can anyone see what I've done wrong?

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  • User input being limited to the alphabet in python

    - by Danger Cat
    I am SUPER new to programming and have my first assignment coming up in python. I am writing a hangman type game, where users are required to guess the word inputted from the other user. I have written most of the code, but the only problem I am having is when users have to input the word, making sure it is only limited to the alphabet. The code I have so far is : word = str.lower(raw_input("Type in your secret word! Shhhh... ")) answer = True while answer == True: for i in range(len(word)): if word[i] not in ("abcdefghijklmnopqrstuvwxyz"): word = raw_input("Sorry, words only contain letters. Please enter a word ") break else: answer = False This works while I input a few tries, but eventually will either exit the loop or displays an error. Is there any easier way to use this? We've really only covered topics up to loops in class, and break and continue are also very new to me. Thank you! (Pardon if the code is sloppy, but as I said I am very new to this....)

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  • deployd authentification using jquery ajax

    - by user2507987
    I have installed deployd in my debian 7.0.0 64 bit, I have also succesfully installed mongodb in it, I have create some collection and user collection in deployd dashboard, then using user guide how to connect and query the table in deployd, I choose jquery ajax to log in to deployd from my localhost site and after login success I try to get/post some data, but somehow deployd return access denied. I have create collection name it people, and then at the GET, POST, PUT Event I have write this code : cancelUnless(me, "You are not logged in", 401); then using this ajax code, I try to login and POST new people data: $(document).ready(function(){ /* Create query for username and password for login */ var request = new Object; request.username = 'myusername'; request.password = 'mypassword'; submitaddress = "http://myipaddress:myport/users/login"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress, data: request, cache: false, success: function(data){ var returndata = eval(data); /* After Login success try to post people data */ if (returndata){ var request2 = new Object; request2.name = 'People Name'; submitaddress2 = "http://myipaddress:myport/people"; $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: submitaddress2, data: request2, cache: false, success: function(){ } }) } } } }); }) The login process success, it's return session id and my user id, but after login success and I try to POST people data it's return "You are not logged in", can anyone help me, what is the correct way to login to deployd using jquery from other website(cross domain)?

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  • Redirection Still not working (updated on earlier question)

    - by NoviceCoding
    So earlier I asked this question: JQuery Login Redirect. Code Included The php file is sending the following: $return['error'] = false; $return['msg'] = 'You have successfully logged in!!'; I've tried all the suggestions, quoting the error on php and ajax end, 2 equals instead of 3, I've also tried DNE true which should be the same as an else statement: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#submit').click(function() { $('#waiting').show(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#reg').hide(0); $('#message').hide(0); $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'logina.php', dataType : 'json', data: { type : $('#typeof').val(), login : $('#login').val(), pass : $('#pass').val(), }, success : function(data){ $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass((data.error === true) ? 'error' : 'success') .text(data.msg).show(500) if(data.error != true) window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php"); if (data.error === true) $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide() }, error : function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass('error') .text("There was an Error. Please try again.").show(500); $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide(); Recaptcha.reload(); } }); return false; }); And it still wont work. Any ideas on how to make a redirection work if login is successful and error returns false? Also while I am asking, can I put a .delay(3000) 3s at the end of window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php")?

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  • Why is Apache + Rails is spitting out two status headers for code 500?

    - by Daniel Beardsley
    I have a rails app that is working fine except for one thing. When I request something that doesn't exist (i.e. /not_a_controller_or_file.txt) and rails throws a "No Route matches..." exception, the response is this (blank line intentional): HTTP/1.1 200 OK Date: Thu, 02 Oct 2008 10:28:02 GMT Content-Type: text/html Content-Length: 122 Vary: Accept-Encoding Keep-Alive: timeout=15, max=100 Connection: Keep-Alive Status: 500 Internal Server Error Content-Type: text/html <html><body><h1>500 Internal Server Error</h1></body></html> I have the ExceptionLogger plugin in /vendor, though that doesn't seem to be the problem. I haven't added any error handling beyond the custom 500.html in public (though the response doesn't contain that HTML) and I have no idea where this bit of html is coming from. So Something, somewhere is adding that HTTP/1.1 200 status code too early, or the Status: 500 too late. I suspect it's Apache because I get the appropriate HTTP/1.1 500 header (at the top) when I use Webrick. My production stack is as follows: Apache 2 Mongrel (5 instances) RubyOnRails 2.1.1 (happens in both 1.2 and 2.1.1) I forgot to mention, the error is caused by a "no route matches..." exception

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  • VB.NET CInt(Long) behaving differently in 32- and 64-bit environments

    - by LocoDelAssembly
    Hello everybody, this is my first message here. Today I had a problem converting a Long (Int64) to an Integer (Int32). The problem is that my code was always working in 32-bit environments, but when I try THE SAME executable in a 64-bit computer it crashes with a System.OverflowException exception. I've prepared this test code in VS2008 in a new project with default settings: Module Module1 Sub Main() Dim alpha As Long = -1 Dim delta As Integer Try delta = CInt(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("CINT OK") delta = Convert.ToInt32(alpha And UInteger.MaxValue) Console.WriteLine("Convert.ToInt32 OK") Catch ex As Exception Console.WriteLine(ex.GetType().ToString()) Finally Console.ReadLine() End Try End Sub End Module On my 32-bit setups (Windows XP SP3 32-bit and Windows 7 32-bit) it prints "CINT OK", but in the 64-bit computer (Windows 7 64-bit) that I've tested THE SAME executable it prints the exception name only. Is this behavior documented? I tried to find a reference but failed miserably. For reference I leave the MSIL code too: .method public static void Main() cil managed { .entrypoint .custom instance void [mscorlib]System.STAThreadAttribute::.ctor() = ( 01 00 00 00 ) // Code size 88 (0x58) .maxstack 2 .locals init ([0] int64 alpha, [1] int32 delta, [2] class [mscorlib]System.Exception ex) IL_0000: nop IL_0001: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0002: conv.i8 IL_0003: stloc.0 IL_0004: nop .try { .try { IL_0005: ldloc.0 IL_0006: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0007: conv.u8 IL_0008: and IL_0009: conv.ovf.i4 IL_000a: stloc.1 IL_000b: ldstr "CINT OK" IL_0010: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0015: nop IL_0016: ldloc.0 IL_0017: ldc.i4.m1 IL_0018: conv.u8 IL_0019: and IL_001a: call int32 [mscorlib]System.Convert::ToInt32(int64) IL_001f: stloc.1 IL_0020: ldstr "Convert.ToInt32 OK" IL_0025: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_002a: nop IL_002b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end .try catch [mscorlib]System.Exception { IL_002d: dup IL_002e: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::SetProjectError(class [mscorlib]System.Exception) IL_0033: stloc.2 IL_0034: nop IL_0035: ldloc.2 IL_0036: callvirt instance class [mscorlib]System.Type [mscorlib]System.Exception::GetType() IL_003b: callvirt instance string [mscorlib]System.Type::ToString() IL_0040: call void [mscorlib]System.Console::WriteLine(string) IL_0045: nop IL_0046: call void [Microsoft.VisualBasic]Microsoft.VisualBasic.CompilerServices.ProjectData::ClearProjectError() IL_004b: leave.s IL_0055 } // end handler } // end .try finally { IL_004d: nop IL_004e: call string [mscorlib]System.Console::ReadLine() IL_0053: pop IL_0054: endfinally } // end handler IL_0055: nop IL_0056: nop IL_0057: ret } // end of method Module1::Main I suspect that the instruction that is behaving differently is either conv.ovf.i4 or the ldc.i4.m1/conv.u8 pair. If you know what is going on here please let me know Thanks

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  • Spring Controller redirect to another page

    - by user1386375
    Hey I got the following problem. This is the content of the jspx file: function postSMTH() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: document.getElementById("urltxt").value, data: parameters, }); } <input type="hidden" value="${pageContext.request.contextPath}/foo/foo2/foodat" name="urltxt" id="urltxt"/> <div class="foodat"><a href="javascript:postSMTH();"><spring:message code="foo_foo2_foodat_text" text="FOODAT"/></a></div> So if I push the submit button, the postSMTH function is called and the ajax object is paste to the Controller which look like this: @Controller @RequestMapping(value="/foo") public class FooController { .............. @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String homePOST(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2", method=RequestMethod.GET) public String homeGET(HttpServletRequest request) { ........ } @RequestMapping(value="/foo2/foodat", method=RequestMethod.POST) public String doTHAT(HttpServletRequest request) { // check authorization Map fooMap = request.getParameterMap(); // do something in the Database, depending on the paramMap return "redirect:/foo/foo1"; } } Everything is working fine regarding the Database, but the Problem is, that the redirect at the end DOESN'T work. It just stays at the page foo2. I'm new to Spring, maybe its a little mistake somewhere. I just cant make it out by myself. Would be nice if someone would have some hint. Thanks

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  • Send SOAP via curl

    - by danrichardson
    Hi. This has been bugging me for days, i'm trying to send a SOAP post via curl but i just keep getting a 'couldn't connect to host' error but i really cant see how. I have an asp version which works fine with the same url and data, i think it's just a php/curl thing...? I currently have the following code (the CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS data is a valid soap envelope string) $soap_do = curl_init(); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_URL, "https://xxx.yyy.com:517/zzz.asmx" ); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 10); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, true ); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYPEER, false); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_SSL_VERIFYHOST, false); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_POST, true ); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, '<soap:Envelope>...</soap:Envelope>'); curl_setopt($soap_do, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, array('Content-Type: text/xml; charset=utf-8', 'Content-Length: '.strlen('<soap:Envelope>...</soap:Envelope>') )); if(curl_exec($soap_do) === false) { $err = 'Curl error: ' . curl_error($soap_do); curl_close($soap_do); return $err; } else { curl_close($soap_do); return 'Operation completed without any errors'; } So any ideas why it just errors all the time? The asp version works fine! The code is; Set xmlhttp = server.Createobject("MSXML2.ServerXMLHTTP") xmlhttp.Open "POST","https://xxx.yyy.com:517/zzz.asmx" xmlhttp.setRequestHeader "Content-Type", "text/xml; charset=utf-8" xmlhttp.Send('<soap:Envelope>...</soap:Envelope>')

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  • Perl help dereferencing a reference to an array of hash references, containing record set data

    - by user1724150
    I'm using the a Amazon Perl module that returns a reference to an array of hash references as $record_sets, containing record set data and I'm having a hard time dereferencing it. I can print the data using data dumper but I need to be able to manipulate the data. Below is the documentation provided for the module Thanks In Advance: #list_resource_record_sets #Lists resource record sets for a hosted zone. #Called in scalar context: $record_sets = $r53->list_resource_record_sets(zone_id => '123ZONEID'); #Returns: A reference to an array of hash references, containing record set data. Example: $record_sets = [ { name => 'example.com.', type => 'MX' ttl => 86400, records => [ '10 mail.example.com' ] }, { name => 'example.com.', type => 'NS', ttl => 172800, records => [ 'ns-001.awsdns-01.net.', 'ns-002.awsdns-02.net.', 'ns-003.awsdns-03.net.', 'ns-004.awsdns-04.net.' ]

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  • How to ignore the validation of Unknown tags ?

    - by infant programmer
    One more challenge to the XSD capability,I have been sending XML files by my clients, which will be having 0 or more undefined or [call] unexpected tags (May appear in hierarchy). Well they are redundant tags for me .. so I have got to ignore their presence, but along with them there are some set of tags which are required to be validated. This is a sample XML: <root> <undefined_1>one</undefined_1> <undefined_2>two</undefined_2> <node>to_be_validated</node> <undefined_3>two</undefined_3> <undefined_4>two</undefined_4> </root> And the XSD I tried with: <xs:element name="root" type="root"></xs:element> <xs:complexType name="root"> <xs:sequence> <xs:any maxOccurs="2" minOccurs="0"/> <xs:element name="node" type="xs:string"/> <xs:any maxOccurs="2" minOccurs="0"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType XSD doesn't allow this, due to certain reasons. The above mentioned example is just a sample. The practical XML comes with the complex hierarchy of XML tags .. Kindly let me know if you can get a hack of it. By the way, The alternative solution is to insert XSL-transformation, before validation process. Well, I am avoiding it because I need to change the .Net code which triggers validation process, which is supported at the least by my company.

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  • Easier way to populate form data and validation data in Code Igniter?

    - by John
    I'm new to code igniter. I'm following the form validation tutorial found at: http://www.codeignitor.com/user_guide/libraries/validation.html I find I am typing too much in the view to get the form to re-populate. For example, here's what one of my INPUT fields look like: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$this->validation->email ? $this->validation->email : $array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Basically, when the form first loads, it should show a value from the database. If the user alters the value and it fails validation, then the form should post the erroneously submitted value. Does code igniter have a "cleaner" way of rendering this kind of output? Otherwise, I'm going to do something like this in my controller: $array_db_values = getdbresults(); if($_POST['submit']) foreach($_POST as $key=>$val) $array_db_values[$key] = $val; That way, if postback data exists, it will always override database values. Then input fields in my view can simply be: <input type="text" name="email" value="<?=$array_db_values['email'] ?>" /> Is there a better/native CI way to handle this scenario?

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