Search Results

Search found 18765 results on 751 pages for 'custom commands'.

Page 670/751 | < Previous Page | 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677  | Next Page >

  • Can one connection get details of another? Or, how can I get the most detailed pending transaction

    - by bob-the-destroyer
    Is there a Mysql statement which provides full details of any other open connection or user? For this particular case, on myisam tables specifically. Looking at Mysql's SHOW TABLE STATUS documentation, it's missing some very important information for my purpose. For example: remote odbc connection one is inserting several thousand records, which due to a slow connection speed can take up to an hour. Tcp connection two, using PHP on the server's localhost, is running select queries with aggregate functions on that data. Before allowing connection two to run those queries, I'd like connection two to first check to make sure there's no pending inserts on any other connection on those specific tables so it can instead wait until all data is available. If the table is currently being written to, I'd like to spit back to the user of connection two an approximation of how much longer to wait based on the number of pending inserts. Ideally by table, I'd like to get back using a query the timestamp when connection one began the write, total inserts left to be done, and total inserts already completed. Instead of insert counts, even knowing number of bytes written and left to write would work just fine here. Obviously since connection two is a tcp connection via a PHP script, all I can really use in that script is some sort of query. I suppose if I have to, since it is on localhost, I can exec() it if the only way is by a mysql command line option that outputs this info, but I'd rather not. I suppose I could simply update a custom-made transaction log before and after this massive insert task which the PHP script can check, but hopefully there's already a built-in Mysql feature I can take advantage of.

    Read the article

  • Message sent to deallocated instance which has never been released

    - by Jakub
    Hello, I started dealing with NSOperations and (as usual with concurrency) I'm observing strange behaviour. In my class I've got an instance variable: NSMutableArray *postResultsArray; when one button in the UI is pressed I initialize the array: postResultsArray = [NSMutableArray array]; and setup the operations (together with dependencies). In the operations I create a custom object and try to add to the array: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; and while adding I get: -[CFArray retain]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x3b40c30 which is strange as I don't release the array anywhere in my code (I did, but when the problem started to appear I commented all the release operations to be sure that they are not the case). I also used to have @synchronized section like below: PostResult *result = [[PostResult alloc] initWithServiceName:@"Sth" andResult:someResult]; @synchronized (self.postResultsArray) { [self.postResultsArray addObject:result]; } but the problem was the same (however, the error was for the synchronized operation). Any ideas what I may be doing wrong?

    Read the article

  • WPF - Extend ListView with checkable AND selectable ListViewItems

    - by Marks
    Hi there. I already read many examples on extending ListViews with checkboxes bound with IsSelected. But I want something more. I want a seperation between the checked and selected state, so i get a ListBox that has a single selected item, but can have multiple checked items. Unfortunately ListViewItem does not have a property for checked and I dont see a possibility to get the ListView to work with a custom CheckableListViewItem. Of course i could use a List of objects with a checked property as ItemSource, but I dont think thats a good way to go. Checked or not is a matter of the list or item-container, not of the object listed in it. Beside that I dont want all my classes like user, role, group to have counterparts like checkableUser, checkableRole and checkableGroup. The behaviour i want can be easyly accomblished for the UI with a <DataTemplate x:Key="CheckBoxCell"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <CheckBox /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and a <GridViewColumn CellTemplate="{StaticResource CheckBoxCell}" Width="30"/> But without a binding on the checkbox i cant check if it is checked or not. Is there any way to accomplish something like that? The perfect solution for me would be to have listView1.SelectedItem, listView1.CheckedItems and maybe a listView1.UncheckedItems and of course listView1.CheckItem and listView1.UncheckItem. Thanks for any help.

    Read the article

  • how to minimize application downtime when updating database and application ORM

    - by yamspog
    We currently run an ecommerce solution for a leisure and travel company. Everytime we have a release, we must bring the ecommerce site down as we update database schema and the data access code. We are using a custom built ORM where each data entity is responsible for their own CRUD operations. This is accomplished by dynamically generating the SQL based on attributes in the data entity. For example, the data entity for an address would be... [tableName="address"] public class address : dataEntity { [column="address1"] public string address1; [column="city"] public string city; } So, if we add a new column to the database, we must update the schema of the database and also update the data entity. As you can expect, the business people are not too happy about this outage as it puts a crimp in their cash-flow. The operations people are not happy as they have to deal with a high-pressure time when database and applications are upgraded. The programmers are upset as they are constantly getting in trouble for the legacy system that they inherited. Do any of you smart people out there have some suggestions?

    Read the article

  • How do you compare using .NET types in an NHibernate ICriteria query for an ICompositeUserType?

    - by gabe
    I have an answered StackOverflow question about how to combine to legacy CHAR database date and time fields into one .NET DateTime property in my POCO here (thanks much Berryl!). Now i am trying to get a custom ICritera query to work against that very DateTime property to no avail. here's my query: ICriteria criteria = Session.CreateCriteria<InputFileLog>() .Add(Expression.Gt(MembersOf<InputFileLog>.GetName(x => x.FileCreationDateTime), DateTime.Now.AddDays(-14))) .AddOrder(Order.Desc(Projections.Id())) .CreateCriteria(typeof(InputFile).Name) .Add(Expression.Eq(MembersOf<InputFile>.GetName(x => x.Id), inputFileName)); IList<InputFileLog> list = criteria.List<InputFileLog>(); And here's the query it's generating: SELECT this_.input_file_token as input1_9_2_, this_.file_creation_date as file2_9_2_, this_.file_creation_time as file3_9_2_, this_.approval_ind as approval4_9_2_, this_.file_id as file5_9_2_, this_.process_name as process6_9_2_, this_.process_status as process7_9_2_, this_.input_file_name as input8_9_2_, gonogo3_.input_file_token as input1_6_0_, gonogo3_.go_nogo_ind as go2_6_0_, inputfile1_.input_file_name as input1_3_1_, inputfile1_.src_code as src2_3_1_, inputfile1_.process_cat_code as process3_3_1_ FROM input_file_log this_ left outer join go_nogo gonogo3_ on this_.input_file_token=gonogo3_.input_file_token inner join input_file inputfile1_ on this_.input_file_name=inputfile1_.input_file_name WHERE this_.file_creation_date > :p0 and this_.file_creation_time > :p1 and inputfile1_.input_file_name = :p2 ORDER BY this_.input_file_token desc; :p0 = '20100401', :p1 = '15:15:27', :p2 = 'LMCONV_JR' The query is exactly what i would expect, actually, except it doesn't actually give me what i want (all the rows in the last 2 weeks) because in the DB it's doing a greater than comparison using CHARs instead of DATEs. I have no idea how to get the query to convert the CHAR values into a DATE in the query without doing a CreateSQLQuery(), which I would like to avoid. Anyone know how to do this?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic editor upload into web page. Need advice

    - by Andrew Florko
    Hello everybody, I am writing intranet site for tracking employees science activities in organization. There lots of editable information on each personal page (science degree, publications & so on) so I upload editor per request (user clicks "edit" and modal dialog with html editor: set of textboxes/comboboxes/autocomplete features & validation logic appears). Editor is html layout that is wrapped with jquery dialog plugin + some logic, written as javascript functions that should be invoked from the callee page (onsubmit, validate, afterLoad editor events). There are also attributes (editor preferrable with and height) that are passed to callee page also. Currently I send these functions & attribute as ... function onsubmit() { }; function validate() { } var width = 640; var height = 800 ... code that is embedded into the request page. Function calls and editor markup wrap with jquery plugin completed in the callee page. It works, but I have some try { call editor event handler } catch { } stuff in callee page (because not every editor provides these functions) and some attributes (editor width & height for instance) that are loaded as variables declared in javascript. Please, suggest, is there a better approach to build & use custom editors for my situation. Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • Compact data structure for storing a large set of integral values

    - by Odrade
    I'm working on an application that needs to pass around large sets of Int32 values. The sets are expected to contain ~1,000,000-50,000,000 items, where each item is a database key in the range 0-50,000,000. I expect distribution of ids in any given set to be effectively random over this range. The operations I need on the set are dirt simple: Add a new value Iterate over all of the values. There is a serious concern about the memory usage of these sets, so I'm looking for a data structure that can store the ids more efficiently than a simple List<int>or HashSet<int>. I've looked at BitArray, but that can be wasteful depending on how sparse the ids are. I've also considered a bitwise trie, but I'm unsure how to calculate the space efficiency of that solution for the expected data. A Bloom Filter would be great, if only I could tolerate the false negatives. I would appreciate any suggestions of data structures suitable for this purpose. I'm interested in both out-of-the-box and custom solutions. EDIT: To answer your questions: No, the items don't need to be sorted By "pass around" I mean both pass between methods and serialize and send over the wire. I clearly should have mentioned this. There could be a decent number of these sets in memory at once (~100).

    Read the article

  • How to extend a jquery ui widget ? (1.7)

    - by Jide
    I would like to create a custom version of the sortable widget. I have been searching for documentation, but could not find something really accurate. The best information I found was : http://jqueryui.pbworks.com/Widget-factory. I tried : $.widget("ui.customsortable", $.extend($.ui.sortable, { _init: function() { $.widget.prototype._init.apply(this, arguments); } })); But $.widget.prototype._init is not the function I want to call I guess since it is the $.widget prototype. Then, I tried something I read here and there : var _init = $.ui.sortable.prototype._init; $.widget("ui.customsortable", $.extend($.ui.sortable, { _init: function() { _init.apply(this, arguments); }, })); But : I can't believe I have to store all methods I want to override like this, it is so ugly. It throws an error ("this.refresh is not a function"), which means the refresh method does not exist. Does that mean I would have to recreate all methods I want to override ? What's the point of extending in that case ? Am I missing something here ? Thanks for your help !

    Read the article

  • Using JQuery in an AJAX control and avoiding conflicts

    - by Rich Andrews
    Hi, I am using JQuery within a custom AJAX user control (part of a home grown toolkit) and I need to ensure that JQuery is present on the hosting page. There can be multiple instances of the control on a page and some controls may need to use different versions of JQuery. At the moment I am using the following code to load in JQuery when the control initializes... Page.ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptInclude(Page.GetType(), "jquery-1.4.4.min.js", this.ResolveUrl("TextControlPlugin/lib/jquery-1.4.4.min.js")); This works because the scriptmanager handles not putting multiple copies of the same script into he page. Problems... I cannot use JQuery statically in the calling page (I may not have a control on the page but need to use JQuery) The scriptmanager appears to handle only duplicate URL's and I will need to deploy it from potentially 2 different URL's (the calling page's copy and the controls copy) So, is there a way to isolate a version of JQuery to the context of my control that doesnt interfear with any use of JQuery from the calling page? The developer writing the page may not have access to the internals of the control. I have looked at JQuery.noConflict() but cannot seem to get it to work correctly - I believe I'm having problems with the order in which the scripts are injected into the page - I keep getting JQuery is undefined errors. Any help would be much appreciated

    Read the article

  • Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

    - by René Wolferink
    Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

    Read the article

  • How to DRY on CRUD parts of my Rails app?

    - by kolrie
    I am writing an app which - similarly to many apps out there - is 90% regular CRUD things and 10% "juice", where we need nasty business logic and more flexibility and customization. Regarding this 90%, I was trying to stick to the DRY principle as much as I can. As long as controllers go, I have found resource_controller to really work, and I could get rid of all the controllers on that area, replacing them with a generic one. Now I'd like to know how to get the same with the views. On this app I have an overall, application.html.erb layout and then I must have another layout layer, common for all CRUD views and finally a "core" part: On index.html.erb all I need to generate a simple table with the fields and labels I indicate. For new and edit, also generic form edition, indicating labels and fields (with a possibility of providing custom fields if needed). I am not sure I will need show, but if I do it would be the same as new and edit. What plugins and tools (or even articles and general pointer) would help me to get that done? Thanks, Felipe.

    Read the article

  • server control properties

    - by Richard Friend
    Okay i have a custom server control that has some autocomplete settings, i have this as follows and it works fine. /// <summary> /// Auto complete settings /// </summary> [System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility (System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty), Category("Data"), Description("Auto complete settings"), NotifyParentProperty(true)] public AutoCompleteLookupSettings AutoComplete { private set; get; } I also have a ParameterCollection that is really related to the auto complete settings, currently this collection resides off the control itself like so : /// <summary> /// Parameters for any data lookups /// </summary> [System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility(System.ComponentModel.DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] public ParameterCollection Parameters { get; set; } What i would like to do is move the parameter collection inside of the AutoCompleteSettings as it really relates to my autocomplete, i have tried this but to no avail.. I would like to move from <cc1:TextField ID="TextField1" runat='server'> <AutoComplete MethodName="GetTest" TextField="Item1" TypeName ="AppFrameWork.Utils" /> <Parameters> <asp:ControlParameter ControlID="txtTest" PropertyName="Text" Name="test" /> </Parameters> </cc1:TextField> To <cc1:TextField ID="TextField1" runat='server'> <AutoComplete MethodName="GetTest" TextField="Item1" TypeName ="AppFrameWork.Utils" > <Parameters> <asp:ControlParameter ControlID="txtTest" PropertyName="Text" Name="test" /> </Parameters> </AutoComplete> </cc1:TextField>

    Read the article

  • Are application servers necessary? Advantages of using one? (And other JEE questions)

    - by Mike
    Apologies for the long question.. there seems to be other similar questions on here but none really clear up my confusion. I'd be really grateful if someone could confirm or correct my understanding: Java Enterprise Edition is a set of APIs for building enterprise applications, which take away the burden of developing parts of the system that aren't actually features of the application you are trying to build (i.e. messaging, transactions etc). To do this, you can use an application server, which implements these APIs. So you could use JBoss, Glassfish, WebSphere, WebLogic etc which would provide your application with these enterprise services. However, there are many other implementations of these individual services available such as ActiveMQ for messaging, Hibernate for persistence, OpenEJB etc. You can download these implementations as Java libraries and include them in your application, and use the services they provide in a similar way to using the services provided by an application server. So if my understanding is correct, my questions are: I've read a lot of places that application servers are necessary for JEE features like EJB, but can't you just use an implementation such as OpenEJB and not need an application server at all? Are there any features that an application server provides which you cannot get from another source? Why would/wouldn't I choose an application server over a custom stack such as Tomcat, OpenEJB, ActiveMQ, and Hibernate? Is Spring a complete alternative to JEE? Does it ever require an application server or always just a servlet container? Why would someone choose Spring over JEE? Any help would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • .NET Remoting: Getting underlying socket?

    - by Alan
    Hi, I'm writing a light remoting app to assist in debugging a problem with remoting communication. This app mimics much of what a larger application does: Periodically sends a heartbeat to another peer application, and periodically verifies that a heartbeat has been received within some time threshold. What we're seeing is in our big application, the heartbeats seem to get dropped. One peer will go for long periods of time without seeing heartbeats from another peer, until the peer that is "dead" is restarted. The big application is responsive in all other ways. We believe it has something to do with the network setup. We were able to repro the problem locally, and fixed it by making some configuration changes to our test environment. To help our customer diagnose the issue, the mini-remoting app needs to log as much information as possible. So, is there a way to get the underlying socket for the remoting connection? I'm aware that I could write a custom sink for this, but I'd like to keep the actual remoting process as close to what is implemented in the big app as possible. Also as an aside, any ideas why the big-app might be "dropping" heartbeats?

    Read the article

  • Does "delegate" mean a type or an object?

    - by Michal Czardybon
    Reading from MSDN: "A delegate is a type that references a method. Once a delegate is assigned a method, it behaves exactly like that method." Does then "delegate" mean a type or an object?! ...It cannot be both. It seems to me that the single word is used in two different meanings: a type containing a reference to a method of some specified signature, an object of that type, which can be actually called like a method. I would prefer a more precise vocabulary and use "delegate type" for the first case. I have been recently reading a lot about events and delegates and that ambiguity was making me confused many times. Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the first meaning: "Custom event delegates are needed only when an event generates event data" "A delegate declaration defines a class that is derived from the class System.Delegate" Some other uses of "delegate" word in MSDN in the second meaning: "specify a delegate that will be called upon the occurrence of some event" "Delegates are objects that refer to methods. They are sometimes described as type-safe function pointers" What do you think? Why did people from Microsoft introduced this ambiguity? Am I the only person to have conceptual problems with different notions being referenced with the same word.

    Read the article

  • Black Corners On Grouped UITableViewCells Only After Navigation Pops

    - by coneybeare
    I am not graphics expert but I somehow managed to make some good looking custom grouped UITableViewCells by setting the background view to a backgroundView with some CG code. In all SDK's up to 3.1.3 (maybe 3.2... I haven't tested on the iPad) this was working great, but I think a more recent SDK has introduced a change in the way graphics are cached offscreen. Upon first render, everything is great: The drawing is fine and the corners are transparent. If I push a couple of view controllers on the navigation stack and come back, there are now black corners that appear in the views: BEFORE && AFTER I have tons of code, most of which is written up here. I have tried tweaking to the best of my ability, looking at the docs for applicable changes, but after at least 8 hours in I still cannot find what might cause this. I have tried setting every view I can think of to be backgroundColor=clearColor and opaque=NO What else am I missing? Any debugging tips? UPDATE: I have some debug code in viewDidAppear that prints the backgroundColor and class description of all the subviews. - (void)debugView:(UIView *)view { DebugLog(@"%@ - %@", view.backgroundColor, [[view class] description]); for (UIView* child in view.subviews) { [self debugView:child]; } } - (void)viewDidAppear:(BOOL)animated { [super viewDidAppear:animated]; [DownloadController.networkQueue setSuspended:NO]; for (TTTableViewCell *cell in [self.tableView visibleCells]) { [cell debugView:cell]; } } With this code, I inspect the backgroundColor settings of the cell views on first load, when it is fine, and then again after coming back. There are some differences, but all the colors are still set to be clear. This leads me to believe the issue is underneath the UITableViewCell. UPDATE 2: I have created a simple sample application to highlight the problem here

    Read the article

  • How do I prevent qFatal() from aborting the application?

    - by Dave
    My Qt application uses Q_ASSERT_X, which calls qFatal(), which (by default) aborts the application. That's great for the application, but I'd like to suppress that behavior when unit testing the application. (I'm using the Google Test Framework.) I have by unit tests in a separate project, statically linking to the class I'm testing. The documentation for qFatal() reads: Calls the message handler with the fatal message msg. If no message handler has been installed, the message is printed to stderr. Under Windows, the message is sent to the debugger. If you are using the default message handler this function will abort on Unix systems to create a core dump. On Windows, for debug builds, this function will report a _CRT_ERROR enabling you to connect a debugger to the application. ... To supress the output at runtime, install your own message handler with qInstallMsgHandler(). So here's my main.cpp file: #include <gtest/gtest.h> #include <QApplication> void testMessageOutput(QtMsgType type, const char *msg) { switch (type) { case QtDebugMsg: fprintf(stderr, "Debug: %s\n", msg); break; case QtWarningMsg: fprintf(stderr, "Warning: %s\n", msg); break; case QtCriticalMsg: fprintf(stderr, "Critical: %s\n", msg); break; case QtFatalMsg: fprintf(stderr, "My Fatal: %s\n", msg); break; } } int main(int argc, char **argv) { qInstallMsgHandler(testMessageOutput); testing::InitGoogleTest(&argc, argv); return RUN_ALL_TESTS(); } But my application is still stopping at the assert. I can tell that my custom handler is being called, because the output when running my tests is: My Fatal: ASSERT failure in MyClass::doSomething: "doSomething()", file myclass.cpp, line 21 The program has unexpectedly finished. What can I do so that my tests keep running even when an assert fails?

    Read the article

  • Access VBA question: Change the query being referenced by a function, depending on context

    - by Tara Amatista
    I have a custom function in Access2007 that hinges on grabbing data out of a specific query. It opens Outlook, creates a new email and populates the fields with specific addresses and data taken from the query ("DecisionEmail"). Now I want to make a different query ("RequestEmail") and have it populate the email with that data. So all I have to do is change this line: Set MailList = db.OpenRecordset("DecisionEmail") and that's where I get stumped. This is my desired result: If the user is on Form_Decision and clicks the button "Send email", "DecisionEmail" will get plugged into the function and that data will appear in the email. If the user on Form_SendRequest and clicks the button "Send email", "RequestEmail" will instead get plugged in. The reason that these are different queries is because they contain very different information that is smudged about in different ways. However, since it's just one little thing that needs to change in the function code, I don't think a brand new function is a good idea. My last resort would be to make a brand new function and use the Conditions field in the Macro interface to choose between them, but I have a feeling there's a more elegant solution possible. I have a vague notion of setting the query names as variables and using an If statement but I just don't have the mental vocabulary for thinking through this.

    Read the article

  • Lightweight HTTP application/server for static content

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I am in need of a scalable and performant HTTP application/server that will be used for static file serving/uploading. So I only need support for GET and PUT operations. However, there are a few extra features that I need: Custom authentication: I need to check credentials against a database for each request. Thus I must be able to integrate propietary database interaction. Support for signed access keys: The access to resources via PUT should be signed using a key like http://uri/?key=foo The key then contains information about the request like md5(user + path + secret) which allows me to block unwanted requests. The application/server should allow me to check for this. Performance: I'd like to avoid piping content as much as possible. Otherwise the whole application could be implemented in Perl/etc. in a few lines as CGI. Perlbal (in webserver mode) looks nice, however the single-threaded model does not fit with my database lookup and it does also not support query strings. Lighttp/Nginx/… have some modules for these tasks, however it is not feasible putting everything together without ending up writing own extensions/modules. So how would you solve this? Are there other leightweight webservers available for this? Should I implement an application inside of a webserver (i.e. CGI). How can I avoid/speed up piping content between the webserver and my application. Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • C# How to create various objects at runtime that can hold strongly typed data?

    - by JL
    Is it possible to create objects at runtime without having to have hard coded class definitions, then populate properties with primitives or even strongly typed data types? For example: Lets say I want to an XML config file that could hold configuration values for connecting to various systems in an SOA application. In C# I read in these values, but for each system the properties are different (e.g: SQL might have a connection string, while SharePoint might need a username + password + domain + url, while yet an smtp server would need username + password + port + url) So instead of creating static classes as follows public class SharePointConfiguration or public class SQLConfiguration, then have each class with custom properties (this is cumbersome) Is there not a more preferred way to achieve this, without using 1990's methods, in otherwords it would still be nice to have intellisense and code completion and named properties. Since this collection of properties (object) would be passed within the class and possible to other classes from function to function I am also wondering where this class definition would get defined if its all happening at run time. Any recommendations, and hope the question was clear enough. Would like to use language features, not hacks. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • How to debug memory allocation issues?

    - by amitabh
    Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

    Read the article

  • Driver denied access to PCI card

    - by Corin
    We wrote a Windows device driver to access our custom PCI card. The driver uses CreateFile to get a handle to the card. We recently had trouble at one installation were the card appeared to stop working. We tried replacing the card (the replacement appeared not work either). The computer vendor replaced the motherboard and both cards still failed to work. We put the cards in a different computer and both worked fine. We now have the computer at our office for examination. The Windows Device Manager lists our card in Other Devices as usual and says it's working fine. However, our driver initialization fails when it attempts to connect to the card. We created a test version of our driver with some extra debugging and determined that CreateFile is failing. It returns INVALID_HANDLE_VALUE as it is supposed to on failure. GetLastError indicates the error is Access is Denied. Since we're logged into the system as a local administrator, what can deny access to the device?

    Read the article

  • Why ASP.NET menu control ignores roles in Web.sitemap?

    - by MainMa
    Hi, I have a website with a menu based on sitemap. ActiveDirectoryRoleProvider is a custom class. securityTrimmingEnabled of sitemap provider is set to true. Now, nevertheless the roles set in the sitemap file, site menu displays every sitemap entity. So for example if I have in sitemap a node with roles="*", a second one with roles="Administrators" and a third one with roles="Foo" and I login as a member of Administrators group but not Foo group, the site menu will display all three items. On the other hand, if I have a node which does not specify roles attribute but has children, this node will never be displayed. If I put: <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Administrators") ? "Admin" : "Not admin"%> <%= HttpContext.Current.User.IsInRole("Foo") ? "Foo" : "Not foo"%> before the menu, it displays that I'm Admin, but Not foo, which is just fine. So if it knows that I'm Admin but Not foo, why does it continue to display Foo's sitemap nodes? Note: changing authorizations has no effect on the menu. It continues to show every item, even for the pages I'm unable to access.

    Read the article

  • jQuery password strength plugin callback validation method

    - by jmorhardt
    I'm using a a jQuery plugin to evaluate password strength. It gives a graphical representation for the user to see how secure the password is. I'd like to use it to validate the field as well. The plugin works by assessing the password and giving it a score. I want to be able to verify that the user has entered a password of at least a certain score. The code is hosted on jQuery's site here: http://plugins.jquery.com/project/pstrength. The documentation states that there is a way to add a rule and do custom validation. I'm not sure where to start. The inline documentation states: * === Changelog === * Version 2.1 (18/05/2008) * Added a jQuery method to add a new rule: jQuery('input[@type=password]').pstrength.addRule(name, method, score, active) And later in the code there's this method: jQuery.extend(jQuery.fn.pstrength, { 'addRule': function (name, method, score, active) { digitalspaghetti.password.addRule(name, method, score, active); return true; }, 'changeScore': function (rule, score) { digitalspaghetti.password.ruleScores[rule] = score; return true; }, 'ruleActive': function (rule, active) { digitalspaghetti.password.rules[rule] = active; return true; } }); If anybody has seen an example of how to do this I'd appreciate a pointer in the right direction. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Passing a variable from beggining to end - Paypal

    - by Phil Jackson
    Hi all, I'be been at this for days and i cant seem to figure it out. All i want to do is when subscribe button is pushed, a variable is send ( post get i dont care ) payment is completed and landed on the success page, with my variable! From what i can gather this should be able to do it: <form action="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" method="post"> <input type="hidden" name="cmd" value="_s-xclick"> <input type="hidden" name="hosted_button_id" value="0000000"> <Input type="hidden" name="custom" value="<?php md5($code.microtime()); ?>"/> <input type="image" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_US/i/btn/btn_subscribeCC_LG.gif" border="0" name="submit" alt="PayPal - The safer, easier way to pay online!"> <img alt="" border="0" src="https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/en_US/i/scr/pixel.gif" width="1" height="1"> </form> Any help much appreciated ( and yes I've read paypal and sandbox documentation, just not that good at reading. )

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 666 667 668 669 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677  | Next Page >