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  • What is the fastest (to access) struct-like object in Python?

    - by DNS
    I'm optimizing some code whose main bottleneck is running through and accessing a very large list of struct-like objects. Currently I'm using namedtuples, for readability. But some quick benchmarking using 'timeit' shows that this is really the wrong way to go where performance is a factor: Named tuple with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = a.c", "from __main__ import a") 0.38655471766332994 Class using __slots__, with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = b.c", "from __main__ import b") 0.14527461047146062 Dictionary with keys a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = c['c']", "from __main__ import c") 0.11588272541098377 Tuple with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = d[2]", "from __main__ import d") 0.11106188992948773 List with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = e[2]", "from __main__ import e") 0.086038238242508669 Tuple with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = d[key]", "from __main__ import d, key") 0.11187358437882722 List with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = e[key]", "from __main__ import e, key") 0.088604143037173344 First of all, is there anything about these little timeit tests that would render them invalid? I ran each several times, to make sure no random system event had thrown them off, and the results were almost identical. It would appear that dictionaries offer the best balance between performance and readability, with classes coming in second. This is unfortunate, since, for my purposes, I also need the object to be sequence-like; hence my choice of namedtuple. Lists are substantially faster, but constant keys are unmaintainable; I'd have to create a bunch of index-constants, i.e. KEY_1 = 1, KEY_2 = 2, etc. which is also not ideal. Am I stuck with these choices, or is there an alternative that I've missed?

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  • Why would dynamically changing the stroke type of a GestureOverlayView cause unusual behaviour?

    - by Rob Kent
    I recently introduced multi-stroke gestures into my application. This is a preference so I set the StrokeType dynamically in Activity.OnCreate. What I have discovered is that if you change the StrokeType so that it is different to the setting in the layout file, it changes the behaviour of the GestureOverlayView in the following way. The normal behaviour is that you draw a gesture and it stays on the screen after it is drawn. When you change the stroke type dynamically however, any gesture drawn on the screen disappears immediately after the OnGestureEnded event has fired. I reloaded the sample GesturesBuilder application and confirmed it has the same problem if you add the second line shown here: GestureOverlayView overlay = (GestureOverlayView) findViewById(R.id.gestures_overlay); overlay.setGestureStrokeType(GestureOverlayView.GESTURE_STROKE_TYPE_SINGLE); overlay.addOnGestureListener(new GesturesProcessor()); } The default in the layout is MULTIPLE but changing it to single changes the behaviour. If you keep the above line but set it to what it already is, the behaviour is not affected. Is this a bug in the Android gestures library and does anyone know a workaround? Note that this is on an HTC Magic so it could also be a handset issue.

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  • Have a clickable button on top of a combobox in WPF

    - by Travyguy9
    I can get a button to appear and be clickable in the drop down list of a combo box, but I cannot get the selected combo box item (the drop list is closed) to have the button be clickable. It always skips the button click and just opens the drop down list. I basically want the Button_Click event handler that I setup to be called once it is clicked. Here is my sample combo box that shows the button but is not clickable once it is in the selected item: <ComboBox x:Name="MyCombo" Width="200" Height="30" ItemsSource="{Binding ListCombo}"> <ComboBox.Resources> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type local:ComboItemClass}"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SampleText}" Width="120" /> <Button Width="20" Content="..." Click="Button_Click"/> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ComboBox.Resources> </ComboBox>

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  • f:ajax not working on tomcat7/eclipse

    - by mntgoat
    I have this very simple code which works fine until I add a f:ajax tag. Code that works: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> </h:commandButton> Code that doesn't work: <h:commandButton disabled="#{!feature.available}" class="featureButton" value="#{feature.selected ? 'selected': feature.available? 'available':'unavailable'} " style="vertical-align: top;" action="#{Bean.toggleFeature(feature)}"> <f:ajax event="click" /> </h:commandButton> As far as I can tell the jsf.js file is loaded fine, this is automatically added by the facelet servlet to the head of my rendered document <script type="text/javascript" src="/www/javax.faces.resource/jsf.js.xhtml?ln=javax.faces"></script> and I was even able to do a jsf.ajax.request directly from javascript and got the page to rerender something. I am using mojarra 2.1.13, tomcat 7, eclipse juno, java 7. Any thoughts on what I might be doing wrong or how I might be able to troubleshoot this issue? debugging it in javascript didn't help at all. Thanks.

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  • Set bounds for markers generated by jQuery table loop?

    - by abemonkey
    I have some jQuery code that goes through a table of location results and puts corresponding pins on a map. I am having trouble figuring out how to set the bounds so that when it goes through the loop and generates the markers on the map that it zooms and pans to fit the markers in the view. I've tried implementing code from some similar questions on this site but nothing seems to be working. Please let me know what code I should be using and where the heck I should put it in my script: $(function() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(44, 44); var settings = { zoom: 15, center: latlng, disableDefaultUI: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), settings); $('tr').each(function(i) { var the_marker = new google.maps.Marker({ title: $(this).find('.views-field-title').text(), map: map, clickable: true, position: new google.maps.LatLng( parseFloat($(this).find('.views-field-latitude').text()), parseFloat($(this).find('.views-field-longitude').text()) ) }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: $(this).find('.views-field-title').text() + $(this).find('.adr').text() }); new google.maps.event.addListener(the_marker, 'click', function() { infowindow.open(map, the_marker); }); }); }); `

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  • CookieContainer bug?

    - by Salar
    I'm confused how CookieContainer handles domain, so I create this test. This test shows cookieContainer doesn't return any cookie for "site.com" but according to RFC it should return at least 2 cookies. Isn't it a bug? How make it to work? Here is a discussion about this bug: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/ncl/thread/c4edc965-2dc2-4724-8f08-68815cf1dce6 <%@ Page Language="C#" %> <%@ Import Namespace="System.Net" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <script runat="server"> CookieContainer getContainer() { CookieContainer result = new CookieContainer(); Uri uri = new Uri("http://sub.site.com"); string cookieH = @"Test1=val; domain=sub.site.com; path=/"; result.SetCookies(uri, cookieH); cookieH = @"Test2=val; domain=.site.com; path=/"; result.SetCookies(uri, cookieH); cookieH = @"Test3=val; domain=site.com; path=/"; result.SetCookies(uri, cookieH); return result; } void Test() { CookieContainer cookie = getContainer(); lblResult.Text += "<br>Total cookies count: " + cookie.Count + " &nbsp;&nbsp; expected: 3"; Uri uri = new Uri("http://sub.site.com"); CookieCollection coll = cookie.GetCookies(uri); lblResult.Text += "<br>For " + uri + " Cookie count: " + coll.Count + " &nbsp;&nbsp; expected: 2"; uri = new Uri("http://other.site.com"); coll = cookie.GetCookies(uri); lblResult.Text += "<br>For " + uri + " Cookie count: " + coll.Count + " &nbsp;&nbsp; expected: 2"; uri = new Uri("http://site.com"); coll = cookie.GetCookies(uri); lblResult.Text += "<br>For " + uri + " Cookie count: " + coll.Count + " &nbsp;&nbsp; expected: 2"; } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { Test(); } </script> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>CookieContainer Test Page</title> </head> <body> <form id="frmTest" runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="lblResult" EnableViewState="false" runat="server"></asp:Label> </form> </body> </html>

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  • cakephp group based permissions

    - by Elwhis
    Hey guys, I would like to have group based restrictions that would allow users to access only specified parts of the web. I am new to the whole ACL stuff and I didn't quite get it from the manual :/ therefore I would like to ask some questions. But before any questions, my routes look like this: Router::connect('/', array('controller' => 'users', 'action' => 'login')); Router::connect('/admin/:controller/:action/*', array('prefix' => 'admin', 'admin' => true)); Router::connect('/registered/:controller/:action/*', array('prefix' => 'registered', 'registered' => true)); 1.) How do I restrict users from any other group than Administrator to access ONLY the /registered/ part of the web 2.) How do I prevent anyone from using the default addresses like www.example.com/users/add on a global scale (I want only www.example.com/admin/users/add or www.example.com/registered/users/add type of addresses)? This kind of addresses is not event set in the routes.php but they still work. Any answers apprecated

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  • Issues with simple jQuery image gallery with Colorbox plugin

    - by Chris
    I'm putting together an image gallery for an ecommerce site and wanting to use colorbox to launch larger images. My problem is that image launched in colorbox stays as the first one launched and should reflect the image shown as img#bigpic - the link to the image does appear to be updating correctly. Here's the jQuery I have: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#largeimage").colorbox(); imageSwapper(".thumbnails a"); function imageSwapper(link) { $(link).click(function(){ $("#bigpic").attr("src", this.href); $("#largeimage").attr("href", this.rel); return false; }); }; $("#largeimage").bind('mouseenter mouseleave', function(event) { $("#largeimage span").toggleClass('showspan'); }); }); ...and the HTML <a href="_images/products/large/bpn0001_1.jpg" id="largeimage"><span></span><img src="_images/products/bpn0001_1.jpg" id="bigpic" /></a> <div class="thumbnails"> <ul> <li><a href="_images/products/bpn0001_1.jpg" rel="_images/products/large/bpn0001_1.jpg"><img src="_images/products/mini/bpn0001_1.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="_images/products/bpn0001_2.jpg" rel="_images/products/large/bpn0001_2.jpg"><img src="_images/products/mini/bpn0001_2.jpg" /></a></li> <li><a href="_images/products/bpn0001_3.jpg" rel="_images/products/large/bpn0001_3.jpg"><img src="_images/products/mini/bpn0001_3.jpg" /></a></li> </ul> </div> Any help would be much appreciated!

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  • jquery tabs - load url in current tab?

    - by BigDogsBarking
    I'm trying to figure out how to load the url each tab links to inside the tab area onclick, and have been trying to following the docs at http://docs.jquery.com/UI/Tabs#...open_links_in_the_current_tab_instead_of_leaving_the_page, but am clearly not getting it.... This is the HTML markup: <div class="tabs"> <ul class="tabNav"> <li><a href="/1.html#tabone">Tab One</a></li> <li><a href="/2.html#tabtwo">Tab Two</a></li> <li><a href="/3.html#tabthree">Tab Three</a></li> </ul> </div> <div id="tabone"> <!-- Trying to load content from 1.html in this div on click --> </div> <div id="tabtwo"> <!-- Trying to load content from 2.html in this div on click --> </div> <div id="tabthree"> <!-- Trying to load content from 3.html in this div on click --> </div> And this is the jquery I'm trying to use: $(".tabs").tabs({ load: function(event, ui) { $('a', ui.panel).click(function() { $(ui.panel).load(this.href); return false; }); } }); I know I've got some part of this wrong.... I've gone through several iterations (too many to post), and all I get is a blank div... I don't know... Feeling a bit confused here... Help?

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  • disable .click function on an anchor in jquery

    - by user554014
    This is written in an external .js with jquery... I have two windows that slide in and out of view like: $(document).ready(function() { // hides gallery1 as soon as the DOM is ready $('#gallery1').hide(); // shows the menu on click $('#showgal1').click(function() { $('#gallery1').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'left'}); $('#gallery2').hide('slide', {direction:'right'}); //need code to disable showgal1 and enable showgal2 }); $('#showgal2').click(function() { $('#gallery2').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'right'}); $('#gallery1').hide('slide', {direction:'left'}); //need code to disable showgal2 and enable showgal1 }); }); 'gallery1' and 'gallery2' are DIV's with flash image galleries and 'showgal1' and 'showgal2' are id's of anchors... looks like <a href="#" id="showgal1">gallery 1</a> I cannot find a way to disable the .click function when one is clicked and re-enable the other... i want to disable 'showgal1' by default and when 'showgal2' event takes place it removes the attribute and makes 'showgal2' disabled until 'showgal1' is clicked... the .attr('disabled','disabled') hasn't worked yet...

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  • ASP.NET DropDownList control doesn't postback correctly inside of UserControl

    - by RichardAZ
    I have a situation where a DropDownList control is not posting back correctly. The AutoPost property is set to true, so the postback does happen, but the SelectedValue is not set to the correct value. In addition, the onSelectedIndexChanged event doesn't fire. The exact same code works perfect fine on an ASPX page, but does not work in a ASCX control. I have tried all the obvious things, I hope, trying to figure this one out, but no luck so far. I have even investigated what comes back in Request.Form["__EVENTTARGET"] and __EVENTARGUMENT. __EVENTTARGET does point to the drop down list, but the argument is empty. Can the folks of StackOverflow help lead me in the right direction to debug this issue. Of course, it is further complicated by master pages and the usual overcomplication of ASP.NET. Here is the code: <div> <asp:DropDownList ID="testDrop" runat="server" AutoPostBack="true" EnableViewState="true" onselectedindexchanged="testDrop_SelectedIndexChanged"> <asp:ListItem Value="1" Text="1">1</asp:ListItem> <asp:ListItem Value="2" Text="2">2</asp:ListItem> </asp:DropDownList> </div> And here is the generated html: <select id="ctl00_MainContent_rptAccordion_ctl00_statControl_testDrop" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$MainContent$rptAccordion$ctl00$statControl$testDrop\',\'\')', 0)" name="ctl00$MainContent$rptAccordion$ctl00$statControl$testDrop"> <option value="1" selected="selected">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> THANKS!

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  • Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

    - by yarmiganosca
    Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

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  • Flex: Scale an Image so that its width matches contentWidth?

    - by Tong Wang
    I have a dynamic layout, where an image is loaded into an HBox: <mx:HBox ...> <mx:Image height="100%" .../> </mx:HBox> only the image's height is set on the image, so that it can take all the vertical space available, while its width is left undefined and I expect the width to scale accordingly with its height. It turns out that the image's height is equal to its contentHeight, i.e. height scales properly; however, the image's width is still the same as measuredWidth (the image's original width), and is not scaled accordingly. For example, if the image's original size is 800x600 and if the HBox is 300 in height, then image height will scale down to 300, however its width doesn't scale down to 400, instead it stays at 800. I tried to add an event listener to explicitly set the image width: <mx:Image id="img" height="100%" updateComplete="img.width=img.contentWidth;" .../> It works only the first time the image is loaded, after that, if I use Image.load() to dynamically load different images, it stops working - the image width is set to 0. Any help/advice will be highly appreciated.

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  • URL Rewrite ASP.net

    - by wandos
    i have an asp.net website where i need to use URL re-write so i have written an HTTP module and i have implemented it and it works correctly the only problem is when the page redirect to its corresponding address the images and the styles are not loaded. here is the http module: // Your BeginRequest event handler. private void Application_BeginRequest(Object source, EventArgs e) { HttpApplication application = (HttpApplication)source; string URL = application.Request.Url.ToString(); //int pid = Convert.ToInt32(application.Request.QueryString["pid"]); if ((URL.ToLower().Contains(".aspx")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".js")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".css")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".gif")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".png")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".jpeg")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".jpe")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".jpg")) || (URL.ToLower().Contains(".ashx"))) return; else { string mname = URL.Substring(URL.LastIndexOf("/") + 1).ToString(); Merchand ms = merchantDB.GetMerchant(mname); HttpContext context = application.Context; if (ms != null) { string url = "~/pages/Merchant.aspx?mid=" + ms.MerchandID + "&catid=" + ms.MainCategory + "&subcatid=0"; context.RewritePath(VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(url)); } else { //(""); string url = "~/pages/default.aspx"; context.RewritePath(VirtualPathUtility.ToAppRelative(url)); } } } when i open the page from it normal URL it opens fine, but when i use the url rewrite it open but with out images or styles. when i open firebug i get an error that the css and the javascript are not found

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  • Render different view depending on the type of the data

    - by Miau
    Hi there So lets suppose we have an action in a controller that looks a bit like this: public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); ... //create new view model based on the data here return View(viewModel); } What I m trying to figure out is the best way to render a diferent view based on the type fo the data. the "_someService.GetData method returns an data that knows its out type (ie not only you can do typeof(data) but also you can do data.DataType and you ll get an enum value so I could achieve what I m trying to do doing something kinda like this public ViewResult SomeAction(int id) { var data = _someService.GetData(id); //I m mapping fields to the viewModel here var viewModel = GetViewModel(data); swtich(data.DataType) case DataType.TypeOne: return View("TypeOne", viewModel); break; ... } But this does not seem to be the nicest way, (I dont event know if it would work) Is this the way to go? Should I use some sort of RenderPartial Aproach? after all , waht will change in the view is mostly the order of the data (ie the rest of the view would be quite similar) Cheers

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  • How can I make this jQuery plugin chainable after all image load events have completed?

    - by BumbleB2na
    [UPDATE] Solution I decided on: Decided that passing in a callback to the plugin will take care of firing an event once all images have completed loading. Chaining is also still possible. Updated Fiddle I am building a chainable jQuery plugin that can load images dynamically. (View the following code as a JSFiddle) Html: <img data-img-src="http://www.lubasf.com/blog/wp-content/uploads/2009/03/gnome.jpg" style="display: none" /> <img data-img-src="http://buffered.io/uploads/2008/10/gnome.jpg" style="display: none" /> Instead of adding in a src attribute, I give these images a data-img-src attribute. My plugin uses the value of that to fill the src. Also, these images are hidden to begin with. jQuery plugin: (function(jQuery) { jQuery.fn.loadImages = function() { var numToLoad = jQuery(this).length; var numLoaded = 0; jQuery(this).each(function() { if(jQuery(this).attr('src') == undefined) { return jQuery(this).load(function() { numLoaded++; if(numToLoad == numLoaded) return this; // attempt at making this plugin // chainable, after all .load() // events have completed. }).attr('src', jQuery(this).attr('data-img-src')); } else { numLoaded++; if(numToLoad == numLoaded) return this; // attempt at making this plugin // chainable, after all .load() // events have completed. } }); // this works if uncommented, but returns before all .load() events have completed //return this; }; })(jQuery); // I want to chain a .fadeIn() after all images have completed loading $('img[data-img-src]').loadImages().fadeIn(); Is there a way to make this plugin chainable, and have my fadeIn() happen after all images have loaded?

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  • S3 browser upload via POST: unable to handle errors gracefully

    - by samf
    I am writing an app where I want the customer to be able to upload to Amazon S3 straight from the browser. I can make this work just fine. But when errors occur, I want to handle them more gracefully than splattering an XML document on the customer's screen. I have a scheme that I think would work, but it's failing. Here's what I'm trying: Create a form to do the upload, and store the form on S3 itself, in the same domain as the "action" attribute of the form. Redirect the customer to this form. Now their browser is sitting on https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/something. The page contains a hidden iframe. The form sets its target to the iframe. The load event handler looks at the contents of the iframe, and acts upon it. So, something like this: <iframe id="foo" name="foo" style="display: none" /> <form target="foo" action="https://<bucket>.s3.amazonaws.com/"> <input type="hidden" name="..." value="..." /> <input type="file" name="file" /> </form> with this javascript (using jquery): function handler() { var message = $("#foo").contents().find('message').text(); alert(message); } $("#foo").load(handler); Using firebug, I can see that the iframe contains an XML document, that contains a "message" node. However, the .find('message') always fails to find anything within the XML document. Notice that the action of the form has the same domain, port, and scheme as the document itself. So, I don't think that I should be running afoul of the same-origin policy. Right? But it fails every time. This is using Firefox and Google Chrome browsers. Thanks for any advice!

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  • Problems with Asynchronous UDP Sockets

    - by ihatenetworkcoding
    Hi, I'm struggling a bit with socket programming (something I'm not at all familiar with) and I can't find anything which helps from google or MSDN (awful). Apologies for the length of this. Basically I have an existing service which recieves and responds to requests over UDP. I can't change this at all. I also have a client within my webapp which dispatches and listens for responses to that service. The existing client I've been given is a singleton which creates a socket and an array of response slots, and then creates a background thread with an infinite looping method that makes "sock.Receive()" calls and pushes the data received into the slot array. All kinds of things about this seem wrong to me and the infinite thread breaks my unit testing so I'm trying to replace this service with one which makes it's it's send/receives asynchronously instead. Point 1: Is this the right approach? I want a non-blocking, scalable, thread-safe service. My first attempt is roughly like this, which sort of worked but the data I got back was always shorter than expected (i.e. the buffer did not have the number of bytes requested) and seemed to throw exceptions when processed. private Socket MyPreConfiguredSocket; public object Query() { //build a request this.MyPreConfiguredSocket.SendTo(MYREQUEST, packet.Length, SocketFlags.Multicast, this._target); IAsyncResult h = this._sock.BeginReceiveFrom(response, 0, BUFFER_SIZE, SocketFlags.None, ref this._target, new AsyncCallback(ARecieve), this._sock); if (!h.AsyncWaitHandle.WaitOne(TIMEOUT)) { throw new Exception("Timed out"); } //process response data (always shortened) } private void ARecieve (IAsyncResult result) { int bytesreceived = (result as Socket).EndReceiveFrom(result, ref this._target); } My second attempt was based on more google trawling and this recursive pattern I frequently saw, but this version always times out! It never gets to ARecieve. public object Query() { //build a request this.MyPreConfiguredSocket.SendTo(MYREQUEST, packet.Length, SocketFlags.Multicast, this._target); State s = new State(this.MyPreConfiguredSocket); this.MyPreConfiguredSocket.BeginReceiveFrom(s.Buffer, 0, BUFFER_SIZE, SocketFlags.None, ref this._target, new AsyncCallback(ARecieve), s); if (!s.Flag.WaitOne(10000)) { throw new Exception("Timed out"); } //always thrown //process response data } private void ARecieve (IAsyncResult result) { //never gets here! State s = (result as State); int bytesreceived = s.Sock.EndReceiveFrom(result, ref this._target); if (bytesreceived > 0) { s.Received += bytesreceived; this._sock.BeginReceiveFrom(s.Buffer, s.Received, BUFFER_SIZE, SocketFlags.None, ref this._target, new AsyncCallback(ARecieve), s); } else { s.Flag.Set(); } } private class State { public State(Socket sock) { this._sock = sock; this._buffer = new byte[BUFFER_SIZE]; this._buffer.Initialize(); } public Socket Sock; public byte[] Buffer; public ManualResetEvent Flag = new ManualResetEvent(false); public int Received = 0; } Point 2: So clearly I'm getting something quite wrong. Point 3: I'm not sure if I'm going about this right. How does the data coming from the remote service even get to the right listening thread? Do I need to create a socket per request? Out of my comfort zone here. Need help.

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  • Trying to build a dynamic PHP mysql_query string to update a row and getting back the updated row

    - by adardesign
    I have a form that jQuery tracks the onChage .change() event so when something is changed it runs a ajax request and i pass in the column, id, and the values in the url. Here i have the PHP code that should update the data. My question is now how do i build the mySQl string dynamically. and how do i echo back the changes/updates that where just changed on the db. Here is the PHP code i am trying to work with. <?php require_once('Connections/connect.php'); ?> <?php $id = $_GET['id']; $collumn = $_GET['collumn']; $val = $_GET['val']; ?> <?php mysql_select_db($myDB, $connection); // here i try to build the query string and pass in the passed in values $sqlUpdate = 'UPDATE `plProducts`.`allPens` SET `$collumn` = '$val' WHERE `allPens`.`prodId` = '$id' LIMIT 1;'; // here i want to echo back the updated row (or the updated data) $seeResults = mysql_query($sqlUpdate, $connection); echo $seeResults ?>

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  • How do I change the application background color at run-time in a Flex 3.5 application?

    - by Adam Tuttle
    I have a Flex 3.5 application that will serve multiple purposes, and as part of the visual changes that I'd like to make to indicate which mode the application is in, I want to change its background color. Currently, the application tag looks like this: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns:com="ventures.view.component.*" xmlns:views="ventures.view.*" layout="absolute" preinitialize="onPreInitialize()" creationComplete="onCreationComplete()" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete()" click="onClick(event)" enabled="{(!chainController.generalLocked)}" backgroundGradientColors="[0xFFFFFF, 0xFFFFFF]" > I've tried using a binding, for both the backgroundColor and backgroundGradientColors attributes: <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundColor="{app_background_color}" > —and— <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" ... backgroundGradientColors="{app_background_color}" > but for the former binding is not allowed, and for the latter there is a warning that: Data binding will not be able to detect assignments to "app_background_color". I also ran across this page which seems to indicate that I could do it with the setStyle() method, but the documentation seems to indicate that this method is only available for components, not the main canvas. I suppose I could wrap everything in a <mx:Canvas></mx:Canvas> specificially for this purpose, but that seems wasteful—like Div-itis in HTML or something. What's the best way to change the main application background color at run-time?

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  • Detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on Windows Phone 7

    - by David_001
    Simple question: How do I detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed on windows mobile 7? Is there an event I can add a listener to? It takes up about half the screen and I want to scroll the view up when it gets displayed... EDIT: A comment below indicates more clearly what I'm trying to do: I have a textbox input, and as the user types into it an autocomplete dropdown appears below it (like google suggest). By default, the active control (the textbox) scrolls into view when focussed, and the onscreen keyboard is directly below it. The onscreen keyboard appears in front of my autocomplete dropdown - what I want to do is make the screen scroll a little further up, so there's some room for my dropdown to be shown. The windows phone UI design guidelines say: "When the keyboard is deployed, the application should scroll to ensure the active edit control and the caret are in view". This happens fine, it's just the non-active dropdown gets hidden behind the onscreen keyboard. The guidelines also say that an application can choose to show the onscreen keyboard, and can also choose to close it. At the moment i'm stuck, and I don't think (based on my research and the replies to this question) that it's possible to detect that the onscreen keyboard has been displayed. I'm moving my investigation to see if it's possible to determine the "visible area" of the page (width & height in pixels for example), and combine this with an onfocus for the textbox... not sure if this will prove fruitful though.

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  • Custom API requirement

    - by Jonathan.Peppers
    We are currently working on an API for an existing system. It basically wraps some web-requests as an easy-to-use library that 3rd party companies should be able to use with our product. As part of the API, there is an event mechanism where the server can call back to the client via a constantly-running socket connection. To minimize load on the server, we want to only have one connection per computer. Currently there is a socket open per process, and that could eventually cause load problems if you had multiple applications using the API. So my question is: if we want to deploy our API as a single standalone assembly, what is the best way to fix our problem? A couple options we thought of: Write an out of process COM object (don't know if that works in .Net) Include a second exe file that would be required for events, it would have to single-instance itself, and open a named pipe or something to communicate through multiple processes Extract this exe file from an embedded resource and execute it None of those really seem ideal. Any better ideas?

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  • Why does the BackgroundWorker in WPF need Thread.Sleep to update UI controls?

    - by user364060
    namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { BackgroundWorker bgWorker; Action<int> myProgressReporter; public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); bgWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); bgWorker.DoWork += bgWorker_Task; bgWorker.RunWorkerCompleted += myWorker_RunWorkerCompleted; // hook event to method bgWorker.ProgressChanged += bgWorker_ReportProgress; // hook the delegate to the method myProgressReporter = updateProgress; bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress = true; } private void myWorker_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, System.ComponentModel.RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { object result; result = e.Result; MessageBox.Show(result.ToString()); progressBar1.Value = 0; button1.IsEnabled = true; } private void bgWorker_ReportProgress(object sender, ProgressChangedEventArgs e) { System.Windows.Threading.Dispatcher disp = button1.Dispatcher; disp.BeginInvoke(myProgressReporter,e.ProgressPercentage); //Dispatcher.BeginInvoke(myProgressReporter, DispatcherPriority.Normal, e.ProgressPercentage); } private void updateProgress(int progressPercentage) { progressBar1.Value = progressPercentage; } private void bgWorker_Task(Object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { int total = 1000; for (int i = 1; i <= total; i++) { if (bgWorker.WorkerReportsProgress) { int p = (int)(((float)i / (float)total) * 100); bgWorker.ReportProgress(p); } Thread.Sleep(1); // Without Thread.Sleep(x) the main thread freezes or gives stackoverflow exception, } e.Result = "Completed"; } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { if(!bgWorker.IsBusy) bgWorker.RunWorkerAsync("This is a background process"); button1.IsEnabled = false; } } }

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  • localhost yes but phpmyadmin blank

    - by Giskin Leow
    WAMP people having problem with both localhost and phpmyadmin loads blank which usually the port problem. Mine is only phpmyadmin blank. sqlbuddy and phpinfo no problem. tried uninstall reinstalled wamp. tried xampp, same problem, all works well, not phpmyadmin. mysql log: 120905 8:03:08 [Note] Plugin 'FEDERATED' is disabled. 120905 8:03:08 InnoDB: The InnoDB memory heap is disabled 120905 8:03:08 InnoDB: Mutexes and rw_locks use Windows interlocked functions 120905 8:03:08 InnoDB: Compressed tables use zlib 1.2.3 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: Initializing buffer pool, size = 128.0M 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: Completed initialization of buffer pool 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: highest supported file format is Barracuda. 120905 8:03:09 InnoDB: Waiting for the background threads to start 120905 8:03:10 InnoDB: 1.1.8 started; log sequence number 1595675 120905 8:03:11 [Note] Server hostname (bind-address): '(null)'; port: 3306 120905 8:03:11 [Note] - '(null)' resolves to '::'; 120905 8:03:11 [Note] - '(null)' resolves to '0.0.0.0'; 120905 8:03:11 [Note] Server socket created on IP: '0.0.0.0'. 120905 8:03:13 [Note] Event Scheduler: Loaded 0 events 120905 8:03:13 [Note] wampmysqld: ready for connections. apache log [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Apache/2.2.22 (Win32) PHP/5.4.3 configured -- resuming normal operations [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Server built: May 13 2012 13:32:42 [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Parent: Created child process 3812 [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Child process is running [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Acquired the start mutex. [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Starting 64 worker threads. [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Starting thread to listen on port 80. [Wed Sep 05 08:03:09 2012] [notice] Child 3812: Starting thread to listen on port 80. [Wed Sep 05 08:04:14 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] File does not exist: C:/wamp/www/favicon.ico [Wed Sep 05 08:09:50 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] File does not exist: C:/wamp/www/favicon.ico [Wed Sep 05 08:41:03 2012] [error] [client 127.0.0.1] File does not exist: C:/wamp/www/phpMyAdmin

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  • jQuery not working as expected on HTTPS Internet explorer

    - by jat
    When I try to run my code on any other webbrowsers apart from the Internet explorer it works fine. But when I try to run the code on Internet explorer I do get an alert box saying HERE along with an Ok button. but the problem is when I click on that OK button I do not get anything. Ideally I should be getting another alert box. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $("#submit").click(function(event) { alert("here"); $.post('process.php', {name:'test1',email:'test.com'}, function(data) { $('#results').html(data); alert(data); }); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <form name="myform" id="myform" action="" method="POST"> <label for="name" id="name_label">Name</label> <input type="text" name="name" id="name" size="30" value=""/> <br> <label for="email" id="email_label">Email</label> <input type="text" name="email" id="email" size="30" value=""/> <br> <input type="button" name="submit" id="submit" value="Submit"> </form> <div id="results"><div> </body> </html> Any help on this is very much appreciated. Edit: I found out that Internet Explorer which has HTTP works perfectly fine but not on Internet Explorer which uses HTTPS.

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