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Inefficient 'ANY' LINQ clause

- by Focus

I have a query that pulls back a user's "feed" which is essentially all of their activity. If the user is logged in the query will be filtered so that the feed not only includes all of the specified user's data, but also any of their friends. The database structure includes an Actions table that holds the user that created the action and a UserFriends table which holds any pairing of friends using a FrienderId and FriendeeId column which map to UserIds. I have set up my LINQ query and it works fine to pull back the data I want, however, I noticed that the query gets turned into X number of CASE clauses in profiler where X is the number of total Actions in the database. This will obviously be horrible when the database has a user base larger than just me and 3 test users. Here's the SQL query I'm trying to achieve: select * from [Action] a where a.UserId = 'GUID' OR a.UserId in (SELECT FriendeeId from UserFriends uf where uf.FrienderId = 'GUID') OR a.UserId in (SELECT FrienderId from UserFriends uf where uf.FriendeeId = 'GUID') This is what I currently have as my LINQ query. feed = feed.Where(o => o.User.UserKey == user.UserKey || db.Users.Any(u => u.UserFriends.Any(ufr => ufr.Friender.UserKey == user.UserKey && ufr.isApproved) || db.Users.Any(u2 => u2.UserFriends.Any(ufr => ufr.Friendee.UserKey == user.UserKey && ufr.isApproved) ))); This query creates this: http://pastebin.com/UQhT90wh That shows up X times in the profile trace, once for each Action in the table. What am I doing wrong? Is there any way to clean this up?

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How to alter Postgres table data based on its contents?

- by williamjones

This is probably a super simple question, but I'm struggling to come up with the right keywords to find it on Google. I have a Postgres table that has among its contents a column of type text named content_type. That stores what type of entry is stored in that row. There are only about 5 different types, and I decided I want to change one of them to display as something else in my application (I had been directly displaying these). It struck me that it's funny that my view is being dictated by my database model, and I decided I would convert the types being stored in my database as strings into integers, and enumerate the possible types in my application with constants that convert them into their display names. That way, if I ever got the urge to change any category names again, I could just change it with one alteration of a constant. I also have the hunch that storing integers might be somewhat more efficient than storing text in the database. First, a quick threshold question of, is this a good idea? Any feedback or anything I missed? Second, and my main question, what's the Postgres command I could enter to make an alteration like this? I'm thinking I could start by renaming the old content_type column to old_content_type and then creating a new integer column content_type. However, what command would look at a row's old_content_type and fill in the new content_type column based off of that?

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What's the correct place to share application logic in CakePHP?

- by Pichan

I guess simple answer to the question would be a component. Although I agree, I feel weird having to write a component for something so specific. For example, let's say I have a table of users. When a user is created, it should form a chain reaction of events, initiating different kinds of data related to the user all around the database. I figured it would be best to avoid directly manipulating the database from different controllers and instead pack all that neatly in a method. However since some logic needs to be accesed separately, I really can't have the whole package in a single method. Instead I thought it would be logical to break it up to smaller pieces(like $userModelOrController->createNew() and $candyStorageModelOrController->createNew()) that only interact with their respective database table. Now, if the logic is put to the model, it works great until I need to use other models. Of course it's possible, but when compared to loading models in a controller, it's not that simple. It's like a Cake developer telling me "Sure, it's possible if you want to do it that way but that's not how I would do it". Then, if the logic is put to the controller, I can access other models really easy through $this->loadModel(), but that brings me back to the previously explained situation since I need to be able to continue the chain reaction indefinitely. Accessing other controllers from a controller is possible, but again there doesn't seem to be any direct way of doing so, so I'm guessing I'm still not doing it right. By using a component this problem could be solved easily, since components are available to every controller I want. But like I wrote at the beginning, it feels awkward to create a component specifically for this one task. To me, components seem more like packages of extra functionality(like the core components) and not something to share controller-specific logic. Since I'm new to this whole MVC thing, I could've completely misunderstood the concept. Once again, I would be thankful if someone pointed me to the right direction :)

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FluentNHibernate error -- "Invalid object name"

- by goober

I'm attempting to do the most simple of mappings with FluentNHibernate & Sql2005. Basically, I have a database table called "sv_Categories". I'd like to add a category, setting the ID automatically, and adding the userid and title supplied. Database table layout: CategoryID -- int -- not-null, primary key, auto-incrementing UserID -- uniqueidentifier -- not null Title -- varchar(50) -- not null Simple. My SessionFactory code (which works, as far as I can tell): _SessionFactory = Fluently.Configure().Database( MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005 .ConnectionString(c => c.FromConnectionStringWithKey("SVTest"))) .Mappings(x => x.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<CategoryMap>()) .BuildSessionFactory(); My ClassMap code: public class CategoryMap : ClassMap<Category> { public CategoryMap() { Id(x => x.ID).Column("CategoryID").Unique(); Map(x => x.Title).Column("Title").Not.Nullable(); Map(x => x.UserID).Column("UserID").Not.Nullable(); } } My Class code: public class Category { public virtual int ID { get; private set; } public virtual string Title { get; set; } public virtual Guid UserID { get; set; } public Category() { // do nothing } } And the page where I save the object: public void Add(Category catToAdd) { using (ISession session = SessionProvider.GetSession()) { using (ITransaction Transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(catToAdd); Transaction.Commit(); } } } I receive the error Invalid object name 'Category'. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Invalid object name 'Category'. I think it might be that I haven't told the CategoryMap class to use the "sv_Categories" table, but I'm not sure how to do that. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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Accettend letter and other graphic simbols PHP->JS

- by Kreker

I have to read a txt via file php. This file contains some normal so may contains this kind of symbols : € é ò à ° % etc I read the content in php with file_get_contents and transform these for inserenting in SQL database. $contFile = file_get_contents($pathFile); $testoCommento = htmlspecialchars($contFile,ENT_QUOTES); $testoCommento = addslashes($testoCommento); Now if I have this text for example : "l'attesa ?é cruciale fino a quando il topo non viene morso dall'?€" in the database I have this: l'attesa è cruciale fino a quando il topo non veniene morso dall'€ When I was GETTING the data from the database I use the php function for decode html entites $descrizione = htmlspecialchars_decode($risultato['descrizione'],ENT_QUOTES); $descrizione = addslashes($descrizione); Now I use jasvascript and AJAX for getting the table content and display to an HTML page In the browser instead of getting the correct text (€,è) I have square symbol. I think there is some mess with charset code/decode but never figured out. The SQL' table is in "utf8_unicode_ci" format and the column in "utf8_general_ci". The content-type of the page is <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Thanks for help me!

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How do I capture keystrokes on the web?

- by Sean

Using PHP, JS, or HTML (or something similar) how would I capture keystokes? Such as if the user presses ctrl+f or maybe even just f, a certain function will happen. ++++++++++++++++++++++++EDIT+++++++++++++++++++ Ok, so is this correct, because I can't get it to work. And I apologize for my n00bness is this is an easy question, new to jQuery and still learning more and more about JS. <script> var element = document.getElementById('capture'); element.onkeypress = function(e) { var ev = e || event; if(ev.keyCode == 70) { alert("hello"); } } </script> <div id="capture"> Hello, Testing 123 </div> ++++++++++++++++EDIT++++++++++++++++++ Here is everything, but I can't get it to work: <link rel="icon" href="favicon.ico" type="image/x-icon"> <style> * { margin: 0px } div { height: 250px; width: 630px; overflow: hidden; vertical-align: top; position: relative; background-color: #999; } iframe { position: absolute; left: -50px; top: -130px; } </style> <script> document.getElementsByTagName('body')[0].onkeyup = function(e) { var ev = e || event; if(ev.keyCode == 70 && ev.ctrlKey) { //control+f alert("hello"); } } </script> <div id="capture"> Hello, Testing 123 </div>

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Unable to delete inherited entity class in EF4

- by Coding Gorilla

I have two entities in an EF4 model (using Model First), let's call them EntityA and EntityB. EntityA is marked as abstract, and EntityB inherits from EntityA. They are similar to the following: public class EntityA { public Guid Id; public string Name; public string Uri; } public class EntityB : EntityA { public string AnotherProperty; } The generated database tables look as I would expect them, with EntityA as on table, and then another table like: EntityA_EntityB Id (PK, FK, uniqueidentifier) AnotherProperty (varchar) There is a foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB that references EntityA's Id property, no cascades are configured (although I did try changing these myself). The problem is that when I attempt to do something like: Context.DeleteObject(EntityA_EntityB); EF attempts to delete the EntityA_EntityB table record before deleting the EntityA table record, which of course violates the foreign key constraint on EntityA_EntityB table. Using EFProfiler I see the following commands being sent to the database: delete [dbo].[EntityA_EntityB] where (([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) followed by delete [dbo].[EntityA] where ([Id] = '5c02899f-09ea-2ed9-d44b-01aef80f6b64' /* @0 */) I'm completely stumped as to how to get around this problem. I would think the EF should know that it needs to delete the base class first, before deleting the inherited class. I know I could do some triggers or other database type solutions, but I'd rather avoid doing that if I can. All my classes are POCO built using some customized T4 templates. I don't want to paste in a lot of extraneous code, but if you need more information I'll provide what I can.

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Why won't the following PDO transaction won't work in PHP?

- by jfizz

I am using PHP version 5.4.4, and a MySQL database using InnoDB. I had been using PDO for awhile without utilizing transactions, and everything was working flawlessly. Then, I decided to try to implement transactions, and I keep getting Internal Server Error 500. The following code worked for me (doesn't contain transactions). try { $DB = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=database', 'root', 'root'); $DB->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); $dbh = $DB->prepare("SELECT * FROM user WHERE username = :test"); $dbh->bindValue(':test', $test, PDO::PARAM_STR); $dbh->execute(); } catch(Exception $e){ $dbh->rollback(); echo "an error has occured"; } Then I attempted to utilize transactions with the following code (which doesn't work). try { $DB = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=database', 'root', 'root'); $DB->setAttribute(PDO::ATTR_ERRMODE, PDO::ERRMODE_EXCEPTION); $dbh = $DB->beginTransaction(); $dbh->prepare("SELECT * FROM user WHERE username = :test"); $dbh->bindValue(':test', $test, PDO::PARAM_STR); $dbh->execute(); $dbh->commit(); } catch(Exception $e){ $dbh->rollback(); echo "an error has occured"; } When I run the previous code, I get an Internal Server Error 500. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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How to convert "0" and "1" to false and true

- by Chris

I have a method which is connecting to a database via Odbc. The stored procedure which I'm calling has a return value which from the database side is a 'Char'. Right now I'm grabbing that return value as a string and using it in a simple if statement. I really don't like the idea of comparing a string like this when only two values can come back from the database, 0 and 1. OdbcCommand fetchCommand = new OdbcCommand(storedProc, conn); fetchCommand.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; fetchCommand.Parameters.AddWithValue("@column ", myCustomParameter); fetchCommand.Parameters.Add("@myReturnValue", OdbcType.Char, 1). Direction = ParameterDirection.Output; fetchCommand.ExecuteNonQuery(); string returnValue = fetchCommand.Parameters["@myReturnValue"].Value.ToString(); if (returnValue == "1") { return true; } What would be the proper way to handle this situation. I've tried 'Convert.ToBoolean()' which seemed like the obvious answer but I ran into the 'String was not recognized as a valid Boolean. ' exception being thrown. Am I missing something here, or is there another way to make '1' and '0' act like true and false? Thanks!

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How to call JS function within .js file into .jsp file?

- by Simple-Solution

I am trying to call a javaScript function that's in .../js/index.js file to .../index.jsp file. Any suggestion would be helpful. Here is code within both file: index.js function testing() { if ("c" + "a" + "t" === "cat") { document.writeln("Same"); } else { document.writeln("Not same"); }; }; index.jsp <%@ page language="java" contentType="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1" pageEncoding="ISO-8859-1"%> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <title>Insert title here</title> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/index.js">  </script> </body> </html>

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c# How to find if two objects are equal

- by Simon G

Hi, I'm needing to know the best way to compare two objects and to find out if there equal. I'm overriding both GethashCode and Equals. So a basic class looks like: public class Test { public int Value { get; set; } public string String1 { get; set; } public string String2 { get; set; } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value ^ String1.GetHashCode() ^ String2.GetHashCode(); } public override bool Equals( object obj ) { return GetHashCode() == obj.GetHashCode(); } } So for testing purposes I created two objects: Test t = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 ="One", String2 = "One" }; Test t2 = new Test() { Value = 1, String1 = "Two", String2 = "Two" }; bool areEqual = t.Equals( t2 ); In testing this areEqual returns true event though both objects are different. I realise this is because String1 and String2 are the same value in each object and thus cancels each other out when hashing. Is there a better way off hashing object that the method I have that will resolve my issue?

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Rails creating users, roles, and projects

- by Bobby

I am still fairly new to rails and activerecord, so please excuse any oversights. I have 3 models that I'm trying to tie together (and a 4th to actually do the tying) to create a permission scheme using user-defined roles. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :projects, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles, :through => :user_projects end class Project < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :user_projects has_many :users, :through => :user_projects has_many :project_roles end class ProjectRole < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :projects belongs_to :user_projects end class UserProject < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :project has_one :project_role attr_accessible :project_role_id end The project_roles model contains a user-defined role name, and booleans that define whether the given role has permissions for a specific task. I'm looking for an elegant solution to reference that from anywhere within the project piece of my application easily. I do already have a role system implemented for the entire application. What I'm really looking for though is that the users will be able to manage their own roles on a per-project basis. Every project gets setup with an immutable default admin role, and the project creator gets added upon project creation. Since the users are creating the roles, I would like to be able to pull a list of role names from the project and user models through association (for display purposes), but for testing access, I would like to simply reference them by what they have access to without having reference them by name. Perhaps something like this? def has_perm?(permission, user) # The permission that I'm testing user.current_project.project_roles.each do |role| if role.send(permission) # Not sure that's right... do_stuff end end end I think I'm in over my head on this one because I keep running in circles on how I can best implement this.

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c++ and visual studio 08, how to develop the following web extracting application. folloow up of las

- by user287745

the purpose is to use c++ in a useful way. i have just started programming and have made a few small applications in c and c#. my understanding is that programming for web and thing related to web is now a days a very easy task. please note this is for personnel learning not for rent a coder or any money making. an application which can run on any windows platform even win98. the application should start automatically at a scheduled time and do the following. connect to a site which displays stock prices summary (high low current open ). captures the data (excluding the other things in the site) and saves it to disk ( a sql database) please note:- internet connection is assumed to be there always. do not want to know how to make database schema or database. the stock exchange has no law prohibiting the use of the data provided on its site, but i do not want to mention the name in case i am wrong, but its for personnel private use only. the data of summary of pricing is arranged in a table such that when copied pasted to ms excel it automatically forms a table. guidance needed thank u.

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Weird behavior of matching array keys after json_decode()

- by arnorhs

I've got some very weird behavior in my PHP code. I don't know if this is actually a good SO question, since it almost looks like a bug in PHP. I had this problem in a project of mine and isolated the problem: // json object that will be converted into an array $json = '{"5":"88"}'; $jsonvar = (array) json_decode($json); // notice: Casting to an array // Displaying the array: var_dump($jsonvar); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($jsonvar["5"])); var_dump(isset($jsonvar[5])); That code outputs the following: array(1) { ["5"]=> string(2) "88" } bool(false) bool(false) The big problem: Both of those tests should produce bool(true) - if you create the same array using regular php arrays, this is what you'll see: // Let's create a similar PHP array in a regular manner: $phparr = array("5" => "88"); // Displaying the array: var_dump($phparr); // Testing if the key is there var_dump(isset($phparr["5"])); var_dump(isset($phparr[5])); The output of that: array(1) { [5]=> string(2) "88" } bool(true) bool(true) So this doesn't really make sense. I've tested this on two different installations of PHP/apache. You can copy-paste the code to a php file yourself to test it. It must have something to do with the casting from an object to an array.

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NHibernate + Cannot insert the value NULL into...

- by mybrokengnome

I've got a MS-SQL database with a table created with this code CREATE TABLE [dbo].[portfoliomanager]( [idPortfolioManager] [int] NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY IDENTITY, [name] [varchar](45) NULL ) so that idPortfolioManager is my primary key and also auto-incrementing. Now on my Windows WPF application I'm using NHibernate to help with adding/updating/removing/etc. data from the database. Here is the class that should be connecting to the portfoliomanager table namespace PortfolioManager { [Class(Table="portfoliomanager",NameType=typeof(PortfolioManagerClass))] public class PortfolioManagerClass { [Id(Name = "idPortfolioManager")] [Generator(1, Class = "identity")] public virtual int idPortfolioManager { get; set; } [NHibernate.Mapping.Attributes.Property(Name = "name")] public virtual string name { get; set; } public PortfolioManagerClass() { } } } and some short code to try and insert something PortfolioManagerClass portfolio = new PortfolioManagerClass(); Portfolio.name = "Brad's Portfolios"; The problem is, when I try running this, I get this error: {System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'idPortfolioManager', table 'PortfolioManagementSystem.dbo.portfoliomanager'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated... with an outer exception of {"could not insert: [PortfolioManager.PortfolioManagerClass][SQL: INSERT INTO portfoliomanager (name) VALUES (?); select SCOPE_IDENTITY()]"} I'm hoping this is the last error I'll have to solve with NHibernate just to get it to do something, it's been a long process. Just as a note, I've also tried setting Class="native" and unsaved-value="0" with the same error. Thanks! Edit: Ok removing the 1, from Generator actually allows the program to run (not sure why that was even in the samples I was looking at) but it actually doesn't get added to the database. I logged in to the server and ran the sql server profiler tool and I never see the connection coming through or the SQL its trying to run, but NHibernate isn't throwing an error anymore. Starting to think it would be easier to just write SQL statements myself :(

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Dynamic Data Extract Tools

- by Kevin McGovern

I've been searching around for a few weeks now for a tool that either is fully built or a direction of something I could build for dynamically extracting data via a web interface. Basically, what I'm looking for is a way to give users a list of all available data objects from our database and then let them pick ones from the list they'd like to view and set parameters then export the results to an excel file. Right now we're doing it purely with SQL statements but we have hundreds of objects so as you might imagine, those statements are really complex and prone to errors. It would be great if there was a tool available to do this or if someone had an idea of an easy way to organize this. Any help would be greatly appreciated. We've looked at BI tools like QlikView and Tableau but that is probably overkill for what we're trying to do. The open-source BI tools we've looked at seemed really primitive in their functionality. The other thing we looked at was MSAS (our DB is SQL Server) but I'd prefer something that was more database-agnostic and lived on a web server instead of on the database.

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What prevents a user from adding controls to an ASP.NET page client side?

- by Curtis White

This goes back to my other question which I thought was sufficiently answers but upon reflect am not sure that it was (sorry). Backgrounder: I am generating a form dynamically. I am pulling from the database the controls. I must associate each control with a database ID which is not the user's session id. I do this currently by storing my ID in the ID for the web control with some other stuff to make it unique/clear what I am doing. On the post back, I iterate through all the controls on my web page checking for my special identifier, ie, MyGeneratedTextBox_ID_Unique. This process enables for 2 important steps, identifying the control was one I generated and also getting the ID for this input field. And, all of this works but I'm still concerned about the security of it. I do not see a security issue with showing the actual database ID's in this case, although agree it is not desirable. However, I am concerned of the following possibilities: If a user could add a nefarious control to my collection and use that for a SQL injection attack. More academic, but if a user could somehow store data for fields they do not have access too by changing the id's. I agree this is a "hack" of a way to do it. But my question is, is it a security risk and is there an 'easy' way to do it in a less hack way? I assume that only the controls that are created/instantiated on the page are added to the controls list.. thus all controls must be created server side and thus the security issue is address but just wanted to validate. Thanks again. PS: I could see adding a property for each control and encrypting the viewstate would be a little more secure.

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How to access remote mysql host on Ubuntu inside VMware?

- by Nick Grossman

Hi, I'm running Ubuntu 10.10 inside VMware fusion on Mac OSX Snow Leopard. Inside ubuntu, I'm attempting to use command-line mysql to connect to a database hosted on a separate web server. For some reason, mysql misinterprets the remote hostname as a local address, and is not able to connect to the database. Steps: (from ubuntu inside VMware) mysql -u <my-username> -h mysql-2.sandbox.wrkng.net -p Enter Password: <my password> expected: to log into mysql got: ERROR 1045 (28000): Access denied for user '<my-username>'@'c-71-233-98-90.hds1.ma.comcast.net' (using password: YES) Note that the hostname referenced in the error message is different than the one I inputted to the mysql command. Also, performing the same command from the Mac (host of the VM) terminal successfully connects to the database. I am not seasoned with VMware or linux, so I may be missing something obvious here -- it seems like somewhere along the way either ubuntu or the VM has a networking issue. Note also that accessing the internet via ubuntu inside the VM works fine. Any help is greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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how run Access 2007 module in Vb6?

- by Mahmoud

I have created a module in access 2007 that will update linked tables, but I wanted to run this module from vb6. I have tried this code from Microsoft, but it didnt work. Sub AccessTest1() Dim A As Object Set A = CreateObject("Access.Application") A.Visible = False A.OpenCurrentDatabase (App.Path & "/DataBase/acc.accdb") A.DoCmd.RunMacro "RefreshLinks" End Sub What I am aiming to do, is to allow my program to update all linked tables to new links, in case the program has been used on other computer In case you want to take a look at the module program, here it is: Sub CreateLinkedJetTable() Dim cat As ADOX.Catalog Dim tbl As ADOX.Table Set cat = New ADOX.Catalog ' Open the catalog. cat.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection Set tbl = New ADOX.Table ' Create the new table. tbl.Name = "Companies" Set tbl.ParentCatalog = cat ' Set the properties to create the link. tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Link Datasource") = CurrentProject.Path & "/db3.mdb" tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Remote Table Name") = "Companies" tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Create Link") = True ' To link a table with a database password set the Link Provider String ' tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Link Provider String") = "MS Access;PWD=Admin;" ' Append the table to the tables collection. cat.Tables.Append tbl Set cat = Nothing End Sub Sub RefreshLinks() Dim cat As ADOX.Catalog Dim tbl As ADOX.Table Set cat = New ADOX.Catalog ' Open the catalog. cat.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection Set tbl = New ADOX.Table For Each tbl In cat.Tables ' Verify that the table is a linked table. If tbl.Type = "LINK" Then tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Link Datasource") = CurrentProject.Path & "/db3.mdb" ' To refresh a linked table with a database password set the Link Provider String 'tbl.Properties("Jet OLEDB:Link Provider String") = "MS Access;PWD=Admin;" End If Next End Sub

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Generating an NSDictionary from an SQL statement.

- by Ed Wist

I am trying to generate an NSDictonary that can be used to populate a listview with data I retrieved from an SQL statement. when I go to create an array and add them it adds the arrays for ALL my keys and not just for the current key. I've tried a removeAllObjects on the array but for some reason that destroys ALL my data that I already put in the dictionary. //open the database if(sqlite3_open([dbPath UTF8String], &database) == SQLITE_OK) { const char *sql = "select alphaID, word from words order by word"; sqlite3_stmt *selectStatement; //prepare the select statement int returnValue = sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, sql, -1, &selectStatement, NULL); if(returnValue == SQLITE_OK) { NSMutableArray *NameArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; NSString *alphaTemp = [[NSString alloc] init]; //loop all the rows returned by the query. while(sqlite3_step(selectStatement) == SQLITE_ROW) { NSString *currentAlpha = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(selectStatement, 1)]; NSString *definitionName = [NSString stringWithUTF8String:(char *)sqlite3_column_text(selectStatement, 2)]; if (alphaTemp == nil){ alphaTemp = currentAlpha; } if ([alphaTemp isEqualToString:(NSString *)currentAlpha]) { [NameArray addObject:definitionName]; } else if (alphaTemp != (NSString *)currentAlpha) { [self.words setObject:NameArray forKey:currentAlpha]; [NameArray removeAllObjects]; [NameArray addObject:definitionName]; } } } The Statement above adds all the "keys" but then removes all the array elements for all keys. if I take out the removeAllKeys it adds ALL the array elements for ALL keys. I don't want this I want it to add the array elements FOR the specific key then move on to the next key. in the end I want a NSDictonary with A (array) Alpha (string) Apple (string) B (array) Beta (string) Ball (string) C (array) Code (string) ...

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How can I create a rules engine without using eval() or exec()?

- by Angela

I have a simple rules/conditions table in my database which is used to generate alerts for one of our systems. I want to create a rules engine or a domain specific language. A simple rule stored in this table would be..(omitting the relationships here) if temp > 40 send email Please note there would be many more such rules. A script runs once daily to evaluate these rules and perform the necessary actions. At the beginning, there was only one rule, so we had the script in place to only support that rule. However we now need to make it more scalable to support different conditions/rules. I have looked into rules engines , but I hope to achieve this in some simple pythonic way. At the moment, I have only come up with eval/exec and I know that is not the most recommended approach. So, what would be the best way to accomplish this?? ( The rules are stored as data in database so each object like "temperature", condition like "/=..etc" , value like "40,50..etc" and action like "email, sms, etc.." are stored in the database, i retrieve this to form the condition...if temp 50 send email, that was my idea to then use exec or eval on them to make it live code..but not sure if this is the right approach )

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MySQL + Joomla + remote c# access

- by Jimmy

Hello, I work on a Joomla web site, installed on a MySQL database and running on IIS7. It's all working fine. I now need to add functionality that lets (Joomla-)registered users change some configuration data. Though I haven't done this yet, it looks straightforward enough to do with Joomla. The data is private so all external access will be done through HTTPS. I also need an existing c# program, running on another machine, to read that configuration data. Sure enough, this data access needs to be as fast as possible. The data will be small (and filtered by query), but the latency should be kept to a minimum. A short-term, client-side cache (less than a minute, in case a user updates his configuration data) seems like a good idea. I have done practically zero database/asp programming so far, so what's the best way of doing that last step? Should the c# program access the database 'directly' (using what? LINQ?) or setup some sort of Facade (SOAP?) service? If a service should be used, should it be done through Joomla or with ASP on IIS? Thanks

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ASP ListView - Eval() as formatted number, Bind() as unformatted?

- by chucknelson

I have an ASP ListView, and have a very simple requirement to display numbers as formatted w/ a comma (12,123), while they need to bind to the database without formatting (12123). I am using a standard setup - ListView with a datasource attached, using Bind(). I converted from some older code, so I'm not using ASP.NET controls, just form inputs...but I don't think it matters for this: <asp:SqlDataSource ID="MySqlDataSource" runat="server" ConnectionString='<%$ ConnectionStrings:ConnectionString1 %>' SelectCommand="SELECT NUMSTR FROM MY_TABLE WHERE ID = @ID" UpdateCommand= "UPDATE MY_TABLE SET NUMSTR = @NUMSTR WHERE ID = @ID"> </asp:SqlDataSource> <asp:ListView ID="MyListView" runat="server" DataSourceID="MySqlDataSource"> <LayoutTemplate> <div id="itemplaceholder" runat="server"></div> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <input type="text" name="NUMSTR" ID="NUMSTR" runat="server" value='<%#Bind("NUMSTR")%>' /> <asp:Button ID="UpdateButton" runat="server" Text="Update" Commandname="Update" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> In the example above, NUMSTR is a number, but stored as a string in a SqlServer 2008 database. I'm also using the ItemTemplate as read and edit templates, to save on duplicate HTML. In the example, I only get the unformatted number. If I convert the field to an integer (via the SELECT) and use a format string like Bind("NUMSTR", "{0:###,###}"), it writes the formatted number to the database, and then fails when it tries to read it again (can't convert with the comma in there). Is there any elegant/simple solution to this? It's so easy to get the two-way binding going, and I would think there has to be a way to easily format things as well... Oh, and I'm trying to avoid the standard ItemTemplate and EditItemTemplate approach, just for sheer amount of markup required for that. Thanks!

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Error while closing SQL Connection

- by Wickedman84

I have a problem with closing the SQLconnection in my application. My application is in VB.net. I have a reference in my application to a class with code to open and close the database connection and to execute all sql scripts. The error occurs when i close my application. In the formClosing event of my main form I call a function that closes all the connections. But just before I close the connections I perform an SQLquery to delete a row from a table with the function below. Public Function DeleteFunction(ByVal mySQLQuery As String, ByVal cmd As SqlCommand) As Boolean Try cmd.Connection = myConnection cmd.CommandText = mySQLQuery cmd.ExecuteNonQuery() Return True Catch ex As Exception WriteErrorMessage("DeleteFunction", ex, Logpath, "SQL Error: " & mySQLQuery) Return False End Try End Function In my application I check the result of the boolean. If it returns True, then i call the function to close the database connection. The returned boolean is True and the requested row is deleted in my database. This means i can close my connection which I do with the function below. Public Sub DatabaseConnClose() myCommand.CommandText = "" myConnection.Close() myCommand = Nothing myConnection = Nothing End Sub After executing this code I receive an error in my logfile from the DeleteFunction. It says: "Connection property has not been initialized." It seems very strange to receive an error from a function that was completely executed, or am i wrong to think that? Can anyone tell me why I receive this error and how I can solve the problem?

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Writing data into New NFC Tag not works?

- by Nagaraj436

I am Newbie to NFC Android App Development. I am done with the App development and everything worked fine. As part of my testing I used MifareClassic as well MifareDesfire tags to write and read. I am storing data in Ndef format. Initially I used the above testing tags with other apps like Nxp tagwriter and Tagstand Tagwriter and then I used with My app. So everything worked fine. Even later I used my app to write and read data from Sony Felica tags(new tags) which also worked fine. So I passed app to client for review but I came to know that app is not writing on New Tags. If they are reset from other apps then It works fine. So I done the same test here and found the same issue as client reported. What might be the issue? Has someone come across same kind of issue? Is it required to format before using? if so how to do that? Someone Help to solve the issue. Thanks in Advance.

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