Search Results

Search found 18272 results on 731 pages for 'ldap query'.

Page 674/731 | < Previous Page | 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681  | Next Page >

  • customer.name joining transactions.name vs. customer.id [serial] joining transactions.id [integer]

    - by Frank Computer
    INFORMIX-SQL 7.32 Pawnshop Application: one-to-many relationship where each customer (master) can have many transactions (detail). customer( id serial, pk_name char(30), {PATERNAL-NAME MATERNAL-NAME, FIRST-NAME MIDDLE-NAME} [...] ); unique index on id; unique cluster index on name; transaction( fk_name char(30), ticket_number serial, [...] ); dups cluster index on fk_name; unique index on ticket_number; Several people have told me this is not the correct way to join master to detail. They said I should always join customer.id[serial] to transactions.id[integer]. When a customer pawns merchandise, clerk queries the master using wildcards on name. The query usually returns several customers, clerk scrolls until locating the right name, enters a 'D' to change to detail transactions table, all transactions are automatically queried, then clerk enters an 'A' to add a new transaction. The problem with using customer.id joining transaction.id is that although the customer table is maintained in sorted name order, clustering the transaction table by fk_id groups the transactions by fk_id, but they are not in the same order as the customer name, so when clerk is scrolling through customer names in the master, the system has to jump allover the place to locate the clustered transactions belonging to each customer. As each new customer is added, the next id is assigned to that customer, but new customers dont show up in alphabetical order. I experimented using id joins and confirmed the decrease in performance. How can I use id joins instead of name joins and still preserve the clustered transaction order by name if transactions has no name column?

    Read the article

  • EF4 Code-First CTP5 Many-to-one

    - by Kevin McKelvin
    I've been trying to get EF4 CTP5 to play nice with an existing database, but struggling with some basic mapping issues. I have two model classes so far: public class Job { [Key, Column(Order = 0)] public int JobNumber { get; set; } [Key, Column(Order = 1)] public int VersionNumber { get; set; } public virtual User OwnedBy { get; set; } } and [Table("Usernames")] public class User { [Key] public string Username { get; set; } public string EmailAddress { get; set; } public bool IsAdministrator { get; set; } } And I have my DbContext class exposing those as IDbSet I can query my users, but as soon as I added the OwnedBy field to the Job class I began getting this error in all my tests for the Jobs: Invalid column name 'UserUsername'. I want this to behave like NHibernate's many-to-one, whereas I think EF4 is treating it as a complex type. How should this be done?

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET server data persistence

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How do I keep users from spoofing data through a form?

    - by Jonathan
    I have a site which has been running for some time now that uses a great deal of user input to build the site. Naturally there are dozens of forms on the site. When building the site, I often used hidden form fields to pass data back to the server so that I know which record to update. an example might be: <input type="hidden" name="id" value="132" /> <input type="text" name="total_price" value="15.02" /> When the form is submitted, these values get passed to the server and I update the records based on the data passed (i.e. the price of record 132 would get changed to 15.02). I recently found out that you can change the attributes and values via something as simple as firebug. So...I open firebug and change the id value to "155" and the price value to "0.00" and then submit the form. Viola! I view product number 155 on the site and it now says that it's $0.00. This concerns me. How can I know which record to update without either a query string (easily modified) or a hidden input element passing the id to the server? And if there's no better way (I've seen literally thousands of websites that pass the data this way), then how would I make it so that if a user changes these values, the data on the server side is not executed (or something similar to solve the issue)? I've thought about encrypting the id and then decrypting it on the other side, but that still doesn't protect me from someone changing it and just happening to get something that matches another id in the database. I've also thought about cookies, but I've heard that those can be manipulated as well. Any ideas? This seems like a HUGE security risk to me.

    Read the article

  • Mysql partitioning: Partitions outside of date range is included

    - by Sturlum
    Hi, I have just tried to configure partitions based on date, but it seems that mysql still includes a partition with no relevant data. It will use the relevant partition but also include the oldest for some reason. Am I doing it wrong? The version is 5.1.44 (MyISAM) I first added a few partitions based on "day", which is of type "date" ALTER TABLE ptest PARTITION BY RANGE(TO_DAYS(day)) ( PARTITION p1 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2009-08-01')), PARTITION p2 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2009-11-01')), PARTITION p3 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2010-02-01')), PARTITION p4 VALUES LESS THAN (TO_DAYS('2010-05-01')) ); After a query, I find that it uses the "old" partition, that should not contain any relevant data. mysql> explain partitions select * from ptest where day between '2010-03-11' and '2010-03-12'; +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | id | select_type | table | partitions | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | ptest | p1,p4 | range | day | day | 3 | NULL | 79 | Using where | +----+-------------+------------+------------+-------+---------------+------+---------+------+------+-------------+ When I select a single day, it works: mysql> explain partitions select * from ptest where day = '2010-03-11'; +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+ | id | select_type | table | partitions | type | possible_keys | key | key_len | ref | rows | Extra | +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+ | 1 | SIMPLE | ptest | p4 | ref | day | day | 3 | const | 39 | | +----+-------------+------------+------------+------+---------------+------+---------+-------+------+-------+

    Read the article

  • What's an effective way to move data from one open browser tab to another?

    - by slk
    I am looking for a quick way to grab some data off of one Web page and throw it into another. I don't have access to the query string in the URL of the second page, so passing the data that way is not an option. Right now, I am using a Greasemonkey user script in tandem with a JS bookmarklet trigger: javascript:doIt(); // ==UserScript== // @include public_site // @include internal_site // ==/UserScript== if (document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { var datum1 = GM_getValue("d1"); var datum2 = GM_getValue("d2"); } unsafeWindow.doIt = function() { if(document.location.host.match(public_site)) { var d1 = innerHTML of page element 1; var d2 = innerHTML of page element 2; //Next two lines use setTimeout to bypass GM_setValue restriction window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d1", d1);}, 0); window.setTimeout(function() {GM_setValue("d2", d2);}, 0); } else if(document.location.host.match(internal_site)) { document.getElementById("field1").value = datum1; document.getElementById("field2").value = datum2; } } While I am open to another method, I would prefer to stay with this basic model if possible, as this is just a small fraction of the code in doIt() which is used on several other pages, mostly to automate date-based form fills; people really like their "magic button." The above code works, but there's an interruption to the workflow: In order for the user to know which page on the public site to grab data from, the internal page has to be opened first. Then, once the GM cookie is set from the public page, the internal page has to be reloaded to get the proper information into the internal page variables. I'm wondering if there's any way to GM_getValue() at bookmarklet-clicktime to prevent the need for a refresh. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Export large amount of data from Oracle 10G to SQL Server 2005

    - by uniball
    Dear all, I need to export 100 million data rows (avg row length ~ 100 bytes) from Oracle 10G database table into SQL server (over WAN/VLAN with 6MBits/sec capacity) on a regular basis. So far, these are the options that I have tried and a quick summary. Has anyone tried this before? Are there other better options? Which option would be the best in terms of performance and reliability? The time taken has been calculated using tests on smaller amounts of data and then extrapolating it to estimate the time required. Using data import wizard on the SQL server or SSIS packages to import the data. It will take around 150 hours to complete the task. Using Oracle batch job to spool data into a comma-delimited flat-file. Then using SSIS package to FTP this file to the SQL server and then load directly from the flat-file. The issue here is the size of the flat-file which is expected to run in GBs. Although this option is drastically different, I am even considering the option of using Linked Server to query the Oracle data directly at run-time to avoid bringing in data. Performance is a big problem and I have limited control over the Oracle database in terms of creating table indexes. Regards, Uniball

    Read the article

  • Apache Lucene: Is Relevance Score Always Between 0 and 1?

    - by Eamorr
    Greetings, I have the following Apache Lucene snippet that's giving me some nice results: int numHits=100; int resultsPerPage=100; IndexSearcher searcher=new IndexSearcher(reader); TopScoreDocCollector collector=TopScoreDocCollector.create(numHits,true); Query q=parser.parse(queryString); searcher.search(q,collector); ScoreDoc[] hits=collector.topDocs(0*resultsPerPage,resultsPerPage).scoreDocs; Results r=new Results(); r.length=hits.length; for(int i=0;i<hits.length;i++){ Document doc=searcher.doc(hits[i].doc); double distanceKm=getGreatCircleDistance(lucene2double(doc.get("lat")), lucene2double(doc.get("lng")), Double.parseDouble(userLat), Double.parseDouble(userLng)); double newRelevance=((1/distanceKm)*Math.log(hits[i].score)/Math.log(2))*(0-1); System.out.println(hits[i].doc+"\t"+hits[i].score+"\t"+doc.get("content")+"\t"+"Km="+distanceKm+"\trlvnc="+String.valueOf(newRelevance)); } What I want to know, is hits[i].score always between 0 and 1? It seems that way, but I can't be sure. I've even checked the Lucene documentation (class ScoreDocs) to no avail. You'll see I'm calculating the log of the "newRelevance" value, which is based on hits[i].score. I need hits[i].score to be between 0 and 1, because if it is below zero, I'll get an error; above 1 and the sign will change from negative to positive. I hope some Lucene expert out there can offer me some insight. Many thanks,

    Read the article

  • A good data model for finding a user's favorite stories

    - by wings
    Original Design Here's how I originally had my Models set up: class UserData(db.Model): user = db.UserProperty() favorites = db.ListProperty(db.Key) # list of story keys # ... class Story(db.Model): title = db.StringProperty() # ... On every page that displayed a story I would query UserData for the current user: user_data = UserData.all().filter('user =' users.get_current_user()).get() story_is_favorited = (story in user_data.favorites) New Design After watching this talk: Google I/O 2009 - Scalable, Complex Apps on App Engine, I wondered if I could set things up more efficiently. class FavoriteIndex(db.Model): favorited_by = db.StringListProperty() The Story Model is the same, but I got rid of the UserData Model. Each instance of the new FavoriteIndex Model has a Story instance as a parent. And each FavoriteIndex stores a list of user id's in it's favorited_by property. If I want to find all of the stories that have been favorited by a certain user: index_keys = FavoriteIndex.all(keys_only=True).filter('favorited_by =', users.get_current_user().user_id()) story_keys = [k.parent() for k in index_keys] stories = db.get(story_keys) This approach avoids the serialization/deserialization that's otherwise associated with the ListProperty. Efficiency vs Simplicity I'm not sure how efficient the new design is, especially after a user decides to favorite 300 stories, but here's why I like it: A favorited story is associated with a user, not with her user data On a page where I display a story, it's pretty easy to ask the story if it's been favorited (without calling up a separate entity filled with user data). fav_index = FavoriteIndex.all().ancestor(story).get() fav_of_current_user = users.get_current_user().user_id() in fav_index.favorited_by It's also easy to get a list of all the users who have favorited a story (using the method in #2) Is there an easier way? Please help. How is this kind of thing normally done?

    Read the article

  • how to extract information from JSON using jQuery

    - by Richard Reddy
    Hi, I have a JSON response that is formatted from my C# WebMethod using the JavascriptSerializer Class. I currently get the following JSON back from my query: {"d":"[{\"Lat\":\"51.85036\",\"Long\":\"-8.48901\"},{\"Lat\":\"51.89857\",\"Long\":\"-8.47229\"}]"} I'm having an issue with my code below that I'm hoping someone might be able to shed some light on. I can't seem to get at the information out of the values returned to me. Ideally I would like to be able to read in the Lat and Long values for each row returned to me. Below is what I currently have: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "page.aspx/LoadWayPoints", data: "{'args': '" + $('numJourneys').val() + "'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function (msg) { if (msg.d != '[]') { var lat = ""; var long = ""; $.each(msg.d, function () { lat = this['MapLatPosition']; long = this['MapLongPosition']; }); alert('lat =' + lat + ', long =' + long); } } }); I think the issue is something to do with how the JSON is formatted but I might be incorrect. Any help would be great. Thanks, Rich

    Read the article

  • SharePoint webpart with button to auto-login to 3rd party website

    - by JCdowney
    I have been tasked with creating a SharePoint 2007 webpart that logs the user directly into our website (which uses forms authentication). Most likely the username and password will be same in the SharePoint account as in our website. Ideally we would like it to be fully integrated in that the webpart looks up the SP login & password, somehow encodes that using SHA1, MD5 or similar encryption, then passes that along to our login page on the query string. However given we have little experience with SharePoint, and that it's probably impossible to programmatically access the SP username/password from a webpart we realize this isn't very likely to be possible and if so would probably require a lot of development time. Another option would be to load a login form from the website within an iframe in the webpart, which would show the login & password first but store a "remember me" cookie after the first login, and on each subsequent load display just a button that logs them in directly using the cookie. Has anyone done something similar before? I'm in over my head, any guidance would be much appreciated! :)

    Read the article

  • asp.net MVC ActionMethod causing null exception on parameter

    - by David Liddle
    I am trying to add filter functionality that sends a GET request to the same page to filter records in my table. The problem I am having is that the textbox complains about null object reference when a parameter is not passed. For example, when the person first views the page the url is '/mycontroller/myaction/'. Then when they apply a filter and submit the form it should be something like 'mycontroller/myaction?name=...' Obviously the problem stems from when the name value has not been passed (null) it is still trying to be bound to the 'name' textbox. Any suggestions on what I should do regarding this problem? UPDATE I have tried setting the DefaultValue attribute but I am assuming this is only for route values and not query string values ActionResult MyAction([DefaultValue("")] string name) //Action - /mycontroler/myaction ActionResult MyAction(string name) { ...do stuff } //View <div id="filter"> <% Html.BeginForm("myaction", "mycontroller", FormMethod.Get); %> Name: <%= Html.TextBox("name") %> .... </div> <table>...my list of filtered data

    Read the article

  • Using nHibernate to map two different data models to one entity model

    - by Dan
    I have two different data models that map to the same Car entity. I needed to create a second entity called ParkedCar, which is identical to Car (and therefore inherits from it) in order to stop nhibernate complaining that two mappings exists for the same entity. public class Car { protected Car() { IsParked = false; } public virtual int Id { get; set; } public bool IsParked { get; internal set; } } public class ParkedCar : Car { public ParkedCar() { IsParked = true; } //no additional properties to car, merely exists to support mapping and signify the car is parked } The only issue is that when I come to retrieve a Car from the database using the Criteria API like so: SessionProvider.OpenSession.Session.CreateCriteria<Car>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Id", 123)) .List<Car>(); The query brings back Car Entities that are from the ParkedCar data model. Its as if nhibernate defaults to the specialised entity. And the mappings are defiantly looking in the right place: <class name="Car" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" table="tblCar"> <class name="ParkedCar" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" table="tblParkedCar" > How do I stop this?

    Read the article

  • c programming malloc question

    - by user535256
    Hello guys, Just got query regarding c malloc() function. I am read()ing x number of bytes from a file to get lenght of filename, like ' read(file, &namelen, sizeof(unsigned char)); ' . The variable namelen is a type unsigned char and was written into file as that type (1 byte). Now namelen has the lenght of filename ie namelen=8 if file name was 'data.txt', plus extra /0 at end, that working fine. Now I have a structure recording file info, ie filename, filelenght, content size etc. struct fileinfo { char *name; ...... other variable like size etc }; struct fileinfo *files; Question: I want to make that files.name variable the size of namelen ie 8 so I can successfully write the filename into it, like ' files[i].name = malloc(namelen) ' However, I dont want it to be malloc(sizeof(namelen)) as that would make it file.name[1] as the size of its type unsigned char. I want it to be the value thats stored inside variable &namelen ie 8 so file.name[8] so data.txt can be read() from file as 8 bytes and written straight into file.name[8? Is there a way to do this my current code is this and returns 4 not 8 files[i].name = malloc(namelen); //strlen(files[i].name) - returns 4 //perhaps something like malloc(sizeof(&namelen)) but does not work Thanks for any suggestions Have tried suggested suggestions guys, but I now get a segmentation fault error using: printf("\nsizeofnamelen=%x\n",namelen); //gives 8 for data.txt files[i].name = malloc(namelen + 1); read(file, &files[i].name, namelen); int len=strlen(files[i].name); printf("\nnamelen=%d",len); printf("\nname=%s\n",files[i].name); When I try to open() file with that files[i].name variable it wont open so the data does not appear to be getting written inside the read() &files[i].name and strlen() causes segemntation error as well as trying to print the filename

    Read the article

  • jquery draggable/droppable issue

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a drag and drop function that does not fully work. What I want to do is be able to drag and drop a picture into a div and have that picture pop up in the div. I have a list of 2 pictures right now, so I have the following function echoed for each picture. Both pictures are draggable and droppable, but the first one is the only one that appears in the div, regardless of which picture gets dragged in. I am not sure what is wrong because the jquery function seems to be unique to each picture. If any one has any suggestions I would appreciate it greatly. while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { $image=htmlentities($row['image']); //image name $uniqid=uniqid(); //unique id for jquery functions $dirname = "usercontent/$user/images/$image"; echo "<img id=\"$uniqid\" src=\"$dirname\" width=\"75\" height=\"75\"/>"; echo "<script> $(function() { $(\"#$uniqid\").draggable({ scroll: true, scrollSensitivity: 10, scrollSpeed: 10, revert: true, helper: 'clone', cursorAt: { cursor: 'move', top: 27, left: 27 } }); $(\"#droppable2, #droppable-background , #droppable2-innerer\").droppable({ greedy: true, activeClass: 'ui-state-hover', hoverClass: 'ui-state-active', drop: function(event, ui) { $(this).addClass('ui-state-highlight').find('> p').html('Dropped!'); $('#droppable-background').css(\"background-image\",\"url($dirname)\"); } }); }); </script>"; }

    Read the article

  • ajax checkbox filter

    - by user1018298
    I need some help with a checkbox filter I am working in. I have four groups of checkboxes (type, vehicle, availability, price) and I would like to filter the content on the page based on the user's input. I can get the filter working OK but I am having issues with the groups. I can only seem to match one checkbox from each group rather than all checkboxes from each group. For example, a visitor can select 1 option in group 1, all options in group 2, 1 option in group three and 1 option in group 4. I am using ajax to build an SLQ query to return the correct filtered results from my database. here is my code: $('div.filters').delegate('input:checkbox', 'change', function() { var type = $('input.exp_type:checked').map(function () { return $(this).attr('value'); }).get().join(','); var vehicle = $('input.vehicle_type:checked').map(function () { return $(this).attr('value'); }).get().join(','); var avail = $('input.availability:checked').map(function () { return $(this).attr('value'); }).get().join(','); var price = $('input.price:checked').map(function () { return $(this).attr('value'); }).get().join(','); //alert($options); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"filtervouchers.php", data:"type="+type+"&vehicle="+vehicle+"&avail="+avail+"&price="+price, success:function(data){ $('.results').html(data); } });//end ajax }) and the php code: $type = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['type']); $vehicles = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['vehicle']); $avail = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['avail']); $price = mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['price']); if ($type != '') { $sql2 = " AND exp_type IN ($type)"; } if ($vehicles != '') { $sql3 = " AND vehicle_type LIKE '%$vehicles%'"; } if ($avail != '') { $sql4 = " AND availability LIKE '%,' $avail% ','"; } if ($price != '') { $sql5 = " AND price_band IN ($price)"; } Can this be done using jquery?

    Read the article

  • XPath: limit scope of result set

    - by Laramie
    Given the XML <a> <c> <b id="1" value="noob"/> </c> <b id="2" value="tube"/> <a> <c> <b id="3" value="foo"/> </c> <b id="4" value="goo"/> <b id="5" value="noob"/> <a> <b id="6" value="near"/> <b id="7" value="bar"/> </a> </a> </a> and the Xpath 1.0 query //b[@id=2]/ancestor::a[1]//b[@value="noob"] is there some way to limit the result set to the <b> elements that are ONLY the children of the immediate <a> element of the start node (//b[@id=2])? For example the Xpath above returns both node ids 1 and 5. The goal is to limit the result to just node id=1 since it is the only @value="noob" element in the same <c> group as our start node (//b[@id=2]). In English, "Starting at a node whose id is equal to 2, find all the elements whose value is "noob" that are descendants of the immediate parent c element without passing through another c element".

    Read the article

  • Usage of autorelease pools for fetch method

    - by Matthias
    Hi, I'm a little bit confused regarding the autorelease pools when programming for the iPhone. I've read a lot and the oppionions seem to me from "Do-NOT-use" to "No problem to use". My specific problem is, I would like to have a class which encapsulates the SQLite3 Access, so I have for example the following method: -(User*)fetchUserWithId:(NSInteger)userId Now, within this method a SQL query is done and a new user object is created with the data from the database and then returned. Within this DB Access class I don't need this object anymore, so I can do a release, but since the calling method needs it, I would do an autorelease, wouldn't I? So, is it okay to use autorelease here oder would it gain too much memory, if this method is called quite frequently? Some websites say, that the autorelease pool is released first at the end of the application, some say, at every event (e.g. user touches something). If I should not use autorelease, how can I make sure, that the object is released correctly? Can I do a release in the fetch method and hope, that the object is still there until the calling method can do a retain? Thanks for your help! Regards Matthias

    Read the article

  • NHibernate + Fluent long startup time

    - by PaRa
    Hi all, am new to NHibernate. When performing below test took 11.2 seconds (debug mode) i am seeing this large startup time in all my tests (basically creating the first session takes a tone of time) setup = Windows 2003 SP2 / Oracle10gR2 latest CPU / ODP.net 2.111.7.20 / FNH 1.0.0.636 / NHibernate 2.1.2.4000 / NUnit 2.5.2.9222 / VS2008 SP1 using System; using System.Collections; using System.Data; using System.Globalization; using System.IO; using System.Text; using System.Data; using NUnit.Framework; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Data.Common; using NHibernate; using log4net.Config; using System.Configuration; using FluentNHibernate; [Test()] public void GetEmailById() { Email result; using (EmailRepository repository = new EmailRepository()) { results = repository.GetById(1111); } Assert.IsTrue(results != null); } public class EmailRepository : RepositoryBase { public EmailRepository():base() { } } In my RepositoryBase public T GetById(object id) { using (var session = sessionFactory.OpenSession()) using (var transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { try { T returnVal = session.Get(id); transaction.Commit(); return returnVal; } catch (HibernateException ex) { // Logging here transaction.Rollback(); return null; } } } The query time is very small. The resulting entity is really small. Subsequent queries are fine. Its seems to be getting the first session started. Has anyone else seen something similar?

    Read the article

  • PHP question about global variables and form requests

    - by user220201
    Hi, This is probably a stupid question but will ask anyway sine I have no idea. I have written basic php code which serve forms. Say I have a login page and I serve it using the login.php page and it will be called in the login.html page like this - <form action="login.php" method="post"> By this it is also implied that every POST needs its own php file, doesn't it? This kind of feels weird. Is there a way to have a single file, say code.php, and just have each of the forms as functions instead? EDIT: Specifically, say I have 5 forms that are used one after the other in my application. Say after login the user does A, B, C and D tasks each of which are sent to the server as a POST request. So instead of having A.php, B.php, C.php and D.php I would like to have a single code.php and have A(), B(), C() and D() as functions. Is there a way to do this? Also on the same note, how do I deal with say a global array (e.g. an array of currently logged in users) across multiple forms? I want to do this without writing to a DB. I know its probably better to write to a DB and query but is it even possible to do it with a global array? The reason I was thinking about having all the form functions in one file is to use a global array. Thanks, - Pav

    Read the article

  • entity framework insert bug

    - by tmfkmoney
    I found a previous question which seemed related but there's no resolution and it's 5 months old so I've opened my own version. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1545583/entity-framework-inserting-new-entity-via-objectcontext-does-not-use-existing-e When I insert records into my database with the following it works fine for a while and then eventually it starts inserting null values in the referenced field. This typically happens after I do an update on my model from the database although not always after I do an update. I'm using a MySQL database for this. I have debugged the code and the values are being set properly before the save event. They're just not getting inserted properly. I can always fix this issue by re-creating the model without touching any of my code. I have to recreate the entire model, though. I can't just dump the relevant tables and re-add them. This makes me think it doesn't have anything to do with my code but something with the entity framework. Does anyone else have this problem and/or solved it? using (var db = new MyModel()) { var stocks = from record in query let ticker = record.Ticker select new { company = db.Companies.FirstOrDefault(c => c.ticker == ticker), price = Convert.ToDecimal(record.Price), date_stamp = Convert.ToDateTime(record.DateTime) }; foreach (var stock in stocks) { if (stock.company != null) { var price = new StockPrice { Company = stock.company, price = stock.price, date_stamp = stock.date_stamp }; db.AddToStockPrices(price); } } db.SaveChanges(); }

    Read the article

  • django: results in in_bulk style without IDs

    - by valya
    in django 1.1.1, Place.objects.in_bulk() does not work and Place.objects.in_bulk(range(1, 100)) works and returns a dictionary of Ints to Places with indexes - primary keys. How to avoid using range in this situation (and avoid using a special query for ids, I just want to get all objects in this dictionary format) >>> Place.objects.in_bulk() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<console>", line 1, in <module> File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/Django-1.1.1-py2.5.egg/django/db/models/manager.py", line 144, in in_bulk return self.get_query_set().in_bulk(*args, **kwargs) TypeError: in_bulk() takes exactly 2 arguments (1 given) >>> Place.objects.in_bulk(range(1, 100)) {1L: <Place: "??? ????">, 3L: <Place: "???????????? ?????">, 4L: <Place: "????????? "??????"">, 5L: <Place: "????????? "??????"">, 8L: <Place: "????????? "??????????????"">, 9L: <Place: "??????? ????????">, 10L: <Place: "????????? ???????">, 11L: <Place: "??????????????? ???">, 14L: <Place: "????? ????? ??????">}

    Read the article

  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

    Read the article

  • How do you lock down & secure files stored on server in ASP.NET?

    - by Jon
    How do I go about securing files that are stored on the server? We have an ASP.NET app which generates PDFs. These are not stored in the wwwroot folder but in another folder i.e. C:\inetpub\data. This provides more security but maybe not enough. The ASP.NET/IIS process will need write access to this folder so it generate the PDFs there. Once the pdf is generated, it can be viewed using an ASP.NET form called viewpdf.aspx with the file to be viewed add to the query string like so viewpdf.aspx?FILE=mynewfile.pdf. This is loaded from a gridview. The full path to C:\inetpub\data is resolved and loaded in the Page_load event of the viewer page. Now I'm wondering how to secure this. Anybody could just view the file. Not by entering in the URL, as it won't been seen by IIS (its not in wwwroot), but could change the querystring in the viewpdf page. How do I stop anybody hacking this?

    Read the article

  • IPad SQLite Push and Pull Data from external MS SQL Server DB

    - by MattyD
    This carries on from my previous post (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4182664/ipad-app-pull-and-push-relational-data). My plan is that when the ipad application starts I am going to pull data (config data i.e. Departments, Types etc etc relational data that is used across the system) from a webhosted MS SQL Server DB via a webservice and populate it into an SQL Lite DB on the IPad. Then when I load a listing I will pull the data over the line again via a webservice and populate it into the SQL Lite db on the ipad (than just run select commands to populate the listing). My questions are: 1. What is the most efficient way to transfer data across the line via the web? Everyone seems to do it a different way. My idea is that I will have a webService for each type of data pull (e.g. RetrieveContactListing) that will query the db and than convert that data into "something" to send across the line. My question really is what is the "something" that it should be converting into? 2. Everyone talks about odata services. Is this suited for applications where complex read and writes are needed? Ive created a simple iphone app before that talked to an sql server db (i just sent my own structured xml across the line) but now with this app the data calls are going to be a lot larger so efficiency is key.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 670 671 672 673 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681  | Next Page >