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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • CSS call from code behind not working

    - by SmartestVEGA
    I have the following entries in the css file. a.intervalLinks { font-size:11px; font-weight:normal; color:#003399; text-decoration:underline; margin:0px 16px 0px 0px; } a.intervalLinks:link { text-decoration:underline; } a.intervalLinks:hover { text-decoration:none; } a.intervalLinks:visited { text-decoration:underline; } a.selectedIntervalLink { font-size:12px; font-weight:bold; color:#003399; text-decoration:none; margin:0px 16px 0px 0px; } a.intervalLinks:active { text-decoration:underline; font-size:large ; } Whenever i take the click on some links (not shown) which is embedded in the webpage ..i can see the change in the link a.intervalLinks:active { text-decoration:underline; font-size:large ; (the font of the link will become large) but after clicking the page refreshes ..the changes will go away i want to keep the change for ever in that link ...even there is a page refresh i understood that ..this can achieved only throughg the code behind of asp.net Following code should work:but unfortunately its not ..could anyone help? protected override void OnInit(EventArgs e) { rptDeptList.ItemDataBound += new RepeaterItemEventHandler(rptDeptList_ItemDataBound); } void rptDeptList_ItemDataBound(object sender, RepeaterItemEventArgs e) { if (e.Item.DataItem == null) return; LinkButton btn = (LinkButton)e.Item.FindControl("LinkButton1"); btn.Attributes.Add("class", "intervalLinks"); } Current html code for links has been shown below : <ItemTemplate> <div class='dtilsDropListTxt'><div class='rightArrow' ></div> <asp:LinkButton ID="LinkButton1" runat="server" Text=<%#DataBinder.Eval(Container.DataItem, "WORK_AREA")%> CssClass="intervalLinks" OnClick="LinkButton1_Click" ></asp:LinkButton> </div> </ItemTemplate> Could anyone help?

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  • Implementation of delegates in C#

    - by Ram
    Hi, I am trying to learn on how to use delegates efficiently in C# and I was just wondering if anyone can guide me through... The following is a sample implementation using delegates... All I am doing is just passing a value through a delegate from one class to another... Please tell me if this is the right way to implement... And also your suggestions... Also, please note that I have de-registered the delegate in : void FrmSample_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { sampleObj.AssignValue -= new Sample.AssignValueDelegate(AssignValue); } Is this de-registration necessary? The following is the code that I have written.. public partial class FrmSample : Form { Sample sampleObj; public FrmSample() { InitializeComponent(); this.Load += new EventHandler(FrmSample_Load); this.FormClosing += new FormClosingEventHandler(FrmSample_FormClosing); sampleObj = new Sample(); sampleObj.AssignValue = new Sample.AssignValueDelegate(AssignValue); } void FrmSample_FormClosing(object sender, FormClosingEventArgs e) { sampleObj.AssignValue -= new Sample.AssignValueDelegate(AssignValue); } void FrmSample_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { sampleObj.LoadValue(); } void AssignValue(string value) { MessageBox.Show(value); } } class Sample { public delegate void AssignValueDelegate(string value); public AssignValueDelegate AssignValue; internal void LoadValue() { if (AssignValue != null) { AssignValue("This is a test message"); } } } Pls provide your feedback on whether this is right... Thanks, Ram

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  • Drawing graphics on top of a JButton

    - by trinth
    I have a situation wherein I have a bunch of JButtons on a GridLayout. I need each of the JButtons to have: a background image (but retain the ability to keep the default button look if needed) custom graphics drawn on top by other classes I have no trouble with the background image, since I am using setIcon() but I am having problems drawing things on top of the background. At one point I was able to draw on top of the button, but after the button was clicked, the drawings disappeared. How can make the button keep this drawing state? Basically, I need a way for my JButtons to have public methods that would allow another class to draw anything on it such as: public void drawSomething() { Graphics g = this.getGraphics(); g.drawOval(3,2,2,2); repaint(); } or public Graphics getGraphics() { return this.getGraphics(); } then another class could do this: button.getGraphics().drawSomething(); The latter is more what I am looking for but the first is equally useful. Is there any way to go about this? Also, overriding the parent class method paintComponent() doesn't help since I need each button to have different graphics.

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  • template specialization of a auto_ptr<T>

    - by Chris Kaminski
    Maybe I'm overcomplicating things, but then again, I do sort of like clean interfaces. Let's say I want a specialization of auto_ptr for an fstream - I want a default fstream for the generic case, but allow a replacement pointer? tempate <> class auto_ptr<fstream> static fstream myfStream; fstream* ptr; public: auto_ptr() { // set ptr to &myfStream; } reset(fstream* newPtr) { // free old ptr if not the static one. ptr = newPtr }; } Would you consider something different or more elegant? And how would you keep something like the above from propagating outside this particular compilation unit? [The actual template is a boost::scoped_ptr.] EDIT: It's a contrived example. Ignore the fstream - it's about providing a default instance of object for an auto_ptr. I may not want to provide a specialized instance, but would like to keep the auto_ptr semantics for this static default object. class UserClass { public: auto_ptr<fstream> ptr; UserClass() { } } I may not provide an dynamic object at construction time - I still want it to have a meaningful default. Since I'm not looking at ownership-transfer semantics, it really shouldn't matter that my pointer class is pointing to a statically allocated object, no?

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  • Enum "copy" problem

    - by f0b0s
    Hi all! I have a class, let's call it A. It has a enum (E) and a method Foo(E e), with gets E in the arguments. I want to write a wrapper (decorator) W for A. So it'll have its own method Foo(A::E). But I want to have some kind of encapsulation, so this method should defined as Foo(F f), where F is another enum defined in W, that can be converted to A::E. For example: class A { public: enum E { ONE, TWO, THREE }; void Foo(E e); }; class B { //enum F; // ??? void Foo(F f) { a_.Foo(f); } private: A a_; }; How F should be defined? I don't want to copy value like this: enum F { ONE = A::ONE, TWO = A::TWO, THREE = A::THREE }; because its a potential error in the near feature. Is the typedef definition: typedef A::E F; is the best decision? Is it legal?

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  • pure/const functions in C++

    - by Albert
    Hi, I'm thinking of using pure/const functions more heavily in my C++ code. (pure/const attribute in GCC) However, I am curious how strict I should be about it and what could possibly break. The most obvious case are debug outputs (in whatever form, could be on cout, in some file or in some custom debug class). I probably will have a lot of functions, which don't have any side effects despite this sort of debug output. No matter if the debug output is made or not, this will absolutely have no effect on the rest of my application. Or another case I'm thinking of is the use of my own SmartPointer class. In debug mode, my SmartPointer class has some global register where it does some extra checks. If I use such an object in a pure/const function, it does have some slight side effects (in the sense that some memory probably will be different) which should not have any real side effects though (in the sense that the behaviour is in any way different). Similar also for mutexes and other stuff. I can think of many complex cases where it has some side effects (in the sense of that some memory will be different, maybe even some threads are created, some filesystem manipulation is made, etc) but has no computational difference (all those side effects could very well be left out and I would even prefer that). How does it work out in practice? If I mark such functions as pure/const, could it break anything (considering that the code is all correct)?

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  • Contingent Header Category Label

    - by poindexter
    Right now the header has a bit of code in it that queries the section name and then uses that section name as the h1 title in the page. It works fine. However, I want to selectively break that operation in certain categories and give myself the ability to manually enter the h1 title for a given section. Here's what I'm struggling with: how can I maintain the automatic query and title selection in most instances, but selectively break it in a given category (the 'blog' category, for starters)? Thanks for taking a look, I appreciate your help! Here's the code that drives the existing function (it's the get_the_section_name part): <?php if(!is_home()){?> <div class="section <?php echo get_the_section_name();?>"> <?php $sectitle = get_the_section_name(); $sectitle = str_ireplace("-"," ",$sectitle); echo '<h1>' . $sectitle . '</h1>';?> <p class="breadcrumbs"> <?php if(function_exists('bcn_display')) { bcn_display(); } ?> </p> </div> <div class="columns"> <?php } ?> Here's a page that shows what it looks like displayed (see the title in the blue graphic underneath the main nav near the top of the page): http://69.20.59.228/category/blog/

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  • ASP.net MVC Linq-To-SQL Many-To-Many Field Binding

    - by user336858
    Hi there, The short version of this question is "Is there a way to gracefully handle database insertion for an object that has a many-to-many field that has been set up in a partial class?" Apologies if it's been asked before. Example Suppose I have a typical MVC setup with the tables: Posts {PostID, ...} Categories {CategoryID, ...} A post can have more than one category, and a category can identify more than one post. Thus suppose further that I need an extra table: PostCategories {PostID, CategoryID, ...} This handles the many-to-many relationship between posts and categories. As far as I know, there's no way to do this in Linq-to-SQL right now so I have to shoehorn it in by adding a partial Post class to the project to add that functionality. Something like: public partial class Post { public IEnumerable<Category> Categories{ get { ... } set { ... } } } So I can now create a "Create" view that automatically populates a "Categories" UI item. This is where the trouble starts. So here's my question: How do you get automatic object model binding to work cleanly with an object that has a many-to-many relationship to control? The workaround that makes many-to-many relationships possible relies on the Post object having a PostID in order to be associated with CategoryID(s), which is only issued after the Post object has been submitted for validation and insertion. Bit of a Catch22 here. Any terminology, links, or tips you can provide would be tremendously helpful!

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  • getSystemResourceAsStream() returns null

    - by Hitesh Solanki
    Hiii... I want to get the content of properties file into InputStream class object using getSystemResourceAsStream(). I have built the sample code. It works well using main() method,but when i deploy the project and run on the server, properties file path cannot obtained ... so inputstream object store null value. Sample code is here.. public class ReadPropertyFromFile { public static Logger logger = Logger.getLogger(ReadPropertyFromFile.class); public static String readProperty(String fileName, String propertyName) { String value = null; try { //fileName = "api.properties"; //propertyName = "api_loginid"; System.out.println("11111111...In the read proprty file....."); // ClassLoader loader = ClassLoader.getSystemClassLoader(); InputStream inStream = ClassLoader.getSystemResourceAsStream(fileName); System.out.println("In the read proprty file....."); System.out.println("File Name :" + fileName); System.out.println("instream = "+inStream); Properties prop = new Properties(); try { prop.load(inStream); value = prop.getProperty(propertyName); } catch (Exception e) { logger.warn("Error occured while reading property " + propertyName + " = ", e); return null; } } catch (Exception e) { System.out.println("Exception = " + e); } return value; } public static void main(String args[]) { System.out.println("prop value = " + ReadPropertyFromFile.readProperty("api.properties", "api_loginid")); } }

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  • SPRING: How do you programmatically instantiate classes based on information passed from Flex UI

    - by babyangel86
    Imagine the UI passes back an XMl node as such: <properties> <type> Source </type> <name> Blooper </name> <delay> <type> Deterministic </type> <parameters> <param> 4 </param> </parameters> <delay> <batch> <type> Erlang </type> <parameters> <param> 4 </param> <param> 6 </param> </parameters> <batch> And behind the scene what it is asking that you instantiate a class as such: new Source("blooper", new Exp(4), new Erlang(4,6); The problem lies in the fact that you don't know what class you will need to processing, and you will be sent a list of these class definitions with instructions on how they can be linked to each other. I've heard that using a BeanFactoryPostProcessor might be helpful, or a property editor/convertor. However I am at a loss as to how best to use them to solve my problem. Any help you can provide will be much appreciated.

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  • Advance: Parsing XML into another XML page using only javascript or jquery; Can't use PhP, Java or MySQL

    - by UrBestFriend
    Current site: http://cardwall.tk/ Example of intended outcome: http://www.shockwave.com/downloadWall.jsp I have an embeded flash object that uses XML/RSS (Picasa) to feed itself pictures. Now I created my own XML/RSS feed so that I can add additional XML tags and values. Now here's my big problem: enabling search. Since I'm not relying on Picasa's API anymore to return custom RSS/XML for the user's search, how can I create xml from another xml based on the user's search queries using only JavaScript and Jquery? Here is the current code: <script type="text/javascript"> var flashvars = { feed : "http%3A%2F%2Frssfeed.ucoz.com%2Frssfeed.xml", backgroundColor : "#FFFFFF", metadataFont : "Arial", wmode : "opaque", iFrameScrolling: "no", numRows : "3", }; var params = { allowFullScreen: "true", allowscriptaccess : "always", wmode: "opaque" }; swfobject.embedSWF("http://apps.cooliris.com/embed/cooliris.swf", "gamewall", "810", "410", "9.0.0", "", flashvars, params); $(document).ready(function() { $("#cooliris input").keydown(function(e) { if(e.keyCode == 13) { $("#cooliris a#searchCooliris").click(); return false; } }); doCoolIrisSearch = function() { cooliris.embed.setFeedContents( '** JAVA STRING OF PARSED RSS/XML based on http%3A%2F%2Frssfeed.ucoz.com%2Frssfeed.xml and USER'S SEARCH INPUT** ' ) }); <form id="searchForm" name="searchForm" class="shockwave"> <input type="text" name="coolIrisSearch" id="coolIrisSearch" value="Search..." class="field text short" onfocus="this.value='';" /> <a id="searchCooliris" href="#" onclick="doCoolIrisSearch();return false;" class="clearLink">Search Cooliris</a> </form> <div id="gamewall"></div> So basically, I want to replace cooliris.embed.setFeedContents's value with a Javastring based on the parsed RSS/XML and user search input. Any code or ideas would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';'

    - by sufoid
    Hallo I have this script: <? require("lib2/config.inc.php"); require("lib2/tpl.class.php"); require("lib2/db.class.php"); require("lib2/um.class.php"); $tpl = new template("templates", "tpl"); $db = new db($db['location'], $db['username'], $db['passwort'], $db['database']); $um = new usermanagment(); /** User login **/ $checklogin = $um->check_login(); $userdata = $um->getuserdata(); if(!$checklogin && !$guest) { header("LOCATION: ./index2.php"); } eval("\$header .= \" ".$tpl->get("header")."\";"); eval("\$footer .= \" ".$tpl->get("footer")."\";"); $time = time(); $db->Query("UPDATE userdaten SET lastaction = '$time' WHERE userid = '".$userdata['userid']."'"); ?> And get this error: Parse error: syntax error, unexpected ';' in /home/httpd/html/login/global.php(22) : eval()'d code on line 96 Any ideas?

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  • C++: best way to implement globally scoped data

    - by bobobobo
    I'd like to make program-wide data in a C++ program, without running into pesky LNK2005 errors when all the source files #includes this "global variable repository" file. I have 2 ways to do it in C++, and I'm asking which way is better. The easiest way to do it in C# is just public static members. C#: public static class DataContainer { public static Object data1 ; public static Object data2 ; } In C++ you can do the same thing C++ global data way#1: class DataContainer { public: static Object data1 ; static Object data2 ; } ; Object DataContainer::data1 ; Object DataContainer::data2 ; However there's also extern C++ global data way #2: class DataContainer { public: Object data1 ; Object data2 ; } ; extern DataContainer * dataContainer ; // instantiate in .cpp file In C++ which is better, or possibly another way which I haven't thought about? The solution has to not cause LNK2005 "object already defined" errors.

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  • How do I declare "Member Fields" in Java?

    - by Bub
    This question probably reveals my total lack of knowledge in Java. But let me first show you what I thought was the correct way to declare a "member field": public class NoteEdit extends Activity { private Object mTitleText; private Object mBodyText; I'm following a google's notepad tutorial for android (here) and they simply said: "Note that mTitleText and mBodyText are member fields (you need to declare them at the top of the class definition)." I thought I got it and then realized that this little snippet of code wasn't working. if (title != null) { mTitleText.setText(title); } if (body != null) { mBodyText.setText(body); } So either I didn't set the "member fields" correctly which I thought all that was needed was to declare them private Objects at the top of the NoteEdit class or I'm missing something else. Thanks in advance for any help.UPDATE I was asked to show where these fields were being intialized here is another code snippet hope that it's helpful... @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { // TODO Auto-generated method stub super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.note_edit); Long mRowId; mTitleText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.title); mBodyText = (EditText) findViewById(R.id.body);

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  • MVC4 - how to vaildate a drop down list?

    - by Grant Roy
    I have a .Net MVC4 model / view with a number of [Required] fields, one of which is selected via a drop down list, "Content_CreatedBy" [the first code block below]. Client side validation fires on all fields except the DDL [although server side validation does not allow no entry in DDL]. I have tried validating on the DDL text as well its numeric value but niether fire on the client side. Can anyone see what I am doing wrong? Thanks Model [Required] [Display(Name = "Author")] [ForeignKey("ContentContrib")] [Range(1, 99, ErrorMessage = "Author field is required.")] public virtual int Content_CreatedBy { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Date")] public virtual DateTime Content_CreatedDate { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.MultilineText)] [Display(Name = "Source / Notes ")] [StringLength(10, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_Sources { get; set; } [Required] [Display(Name = "Keywords")] [StringLength(50, MinimumLength = 3)] public virtual string Content_KeyWords { get; set; } VIEW <div class="editor-label"> @Html.LabelFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy, new { @class="whitelabel"}) </div> <div class="editor-field"> @Html.DropDownList("Content_CreatedBy", String.Empty) @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Content_CreatedBy) </div>

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  • Property on business objects - getting and setting

    - by Mike
    Hi, I am using LINQ to SQL for the DataAccess layer. I have similar business objects to what is in the data access layer. I have got the dataprovider getting the message #23. On instantiation of the message, in the message constructor, it gets the MessageType and makes a new instance of MessageType class and fills in the MessageType information from the database. Therefore; I want this to get the Name of the MessageType of the Message. user.Messages[23].MessageType.Name I also want an administrator to set the MessageType user.Messages[23].MessageType = MessageTypes.LoadType(3); but I don't want the user to publicly set the MessageType.Name. But when I make a new MessageType instance, the access modifier for the Name property is public because I want to set that from an external class (my data access layer). I could change this to property to internal, so that my class can access it like a public variable, and not allow my other application access to modify it. This still doesn't feel right as it seems like a public property. Are public access modifiers in this situation bad? Any tips or suggestions would be appreciated. Thanks.

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  • dynamical binding or switch/case?

    - by kingkai
    A scene like this: I've different of objects do the similar operation as respective func() implements. There're 2 kinds of solution for func_manager() to call func() according to different objects Solution 1: Use virtual function character specified in c++. func_manager works differently accroding to different object point pass in. class Object{ virtual void func() = 0; } class Object_A : public Object{ void func() {}; } class Object_B : public Object{ void func() {}; } void func_manager(Object* a) { a->func(); } Solution 2: Use plain switch/case. func_manager works differently accroding to different type pass in typedef _type_t { TYPE_A, TYPE_B }type_t; void func_by_a() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_by_b() { // do as func() in Object_A } void func_manager(type_t type) { switch(type){ case TYPE_A: func_by_a(); break; case TYPE_B: func_by_b(); default: break; } } My Question are 2: 1. at the view point of DESIGN PATTERN, which one is better? 2. at the view point of RUNTIME EFFCIENCE, which one is better? Especailly as the kinds of Object increases, may be up to 10-15 total, which one's overhead oversteps the other? I don't know how switch/case implements innerly, just a bunch of if/else? Thanks very much!

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  • How are declared private ivars different from synthesized ivars?

    - by lemnar
    I know that the modern Objective-C runtime can synthesize ivars. I thought that synthesized ivars behaved exactly like declared ivars that are marked @private, but they don't. As a result, come code compiles only under the modern runtime that I expected would work on either. For example, a superclass: @interface A : NSObject { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *d; @end @implementation A @synthesize d=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end and a subclass: @interface B : A { #if !__OBJC2__ @private NSString *_c; #endif } @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *e; @end @implementation B @synthesize e=_c; - (void)dealloc { [_c release]; [super dealloc]; } @end A subclass can't have a declared ivar with the same name as one of its superclass's declared ivars, even if the superclass's ivar is private. This seems to me like a violation of the meaning of @private, since the subclass is affected by the superclass's choice of something private. What I'm more concerned about, however, is how should I think about synthesized ivars. I thought they acted like declared private ivars, but without the fragile base class problem. Maybe that's right, and I just don't understand the fragile base class problem. Why does the above code compile only in the modern runtime? Does the fragile base class problem exist when all superclass instance variables are private?

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  • wpf observableCollection

    - by Asha
    I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

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  • Using PHP as template language

    - by Kunal
    I wrote up this quick class to do templating via PHP -- I was wondering if this is easily exploitable if I were ever to open up templating to users (not the immediate plan, but thinking down the road). class Template { private $allowed_methods = array( 'if', 'switch', 'foreach', 'for', 'while' ); private function secure_code($template_code) { $php_section_pattern = '/\<\?(.*?)\?\>/'; $php_method_pattern = '/([a-zA-Z0-9_]+)[\s]*\(/'; preg_match_all($php_section_pattern, $template_code, $matches); foreach (array_unique($matches[1]) as $index => $code_chunk) { preg_match_all($php_method_pattern, $code_chunk, $sub_matches); $code_allowed = true; foreach ($sub_matches[1] as $method_name) { if (!in_array($method_name, $this->allowed_methods)) { $code_allowed = false; break; } } if (!$code_allowed) { $template_code = str_replace($matches[0][$index], '', $template_code); } } return $template_code; } public function render($template_code, $params) { extract($params); ob_start(); eval('?>'.$this->secure_code($template_code).'<?php '); $result = ob_get_contents(); ob_end_clean(); return $result; } } Example usage: $template_code = '<?= $title ?><? foreach ($photos as $photo): ?><img src="<?= $photo ?>"><? endforeach ?>'; $params = array('title' => 'My Title', 'photos' => array('img1.jpg', 'img2.jpg')); $template = new Template; echo $template->render($template_code, $params); The idea here is that I'd store the templates (PHP code) in the database, and then run it through the class which uses regular expressions to only allow permitted methods (if, for, etc.). Anyone see an obvious way to exploit this and run arbitrary PHP? If so, I'll probably go the more standard route of a templating language such as Smarty...

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  • No Hibernate Exception on the same insert of data

    - by Mark Estrada
    Hi All, Hibernate Newbie here. I am quite unsure why I am not getting any exception when I am executing below code. On first attempt, this code creates the Book Entry on my Book Table. But my concern is that when I execute below code again, no error was pop out by Hibernate. I was in fact expecting some sort of Violation of Primary Key Constraints as what I have bee doing in JDBC code. public class BookDao { public void createBook(Book bookObj) { Session session = HibernateUtil.getSessionFactory() .getCurrentSession(); session.beginTransaction(); session.saveOrUpdate(bookObj); session.getTransaction().commit(); } } public class HibernateUtil { private static final SessionFactory sessionFactory = buildSessionFactory(); private static SessionFactory buildSessionFactory() { try { // Create the SessionFactory from hibernate.cfg.xml return new AnnotationConfiguration().configure() .buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Throwable ex) { // Make sure you log the exception, as it might be swallowed ex.printStackTrace(); throw new ExceptionInInitializerError(ex); } } public static SessionFactory getSessionFactory() { return sessionFactory; } } public class BookDBStarter { public static void main(String[] args) { Book bookHF = new Book(); bookHF.setIsbn("HF-12345"); bookHF.setName("Head First HTML"); bookHF.setPublishDate(new Date()); BookDao daoBook = new BookDao(); daoBook.createBook(bookHF); } } Is this normal hibernate way? And how will I know if my insert is successful? Any thoughts?

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  • iOS: Assignment to iVar in Block (ARC)

    - by manmal
    I have a readonly property isFinished in my interface file: typedef void (^MyFinishedBlock)(BOOL success, NSError *e); @interface TMSyncBase : NSObject { BOOL isFinished_; } @property (nonatomic, readonly) BOOL isFinished; and I want to set it to YES in a block at some point later, without creating a retain cycle to self: - (void)doSomethingWithFinishedBlock:(MyFinishedBlock)theFinishedBlock { __weak MyClass *weakSelf = self; MyFinishedBlock finishedBlockWrapper = ^(BOOL success, NSError *e) { [weakSelf willChangeValueForKey:@"isFinished"]; weakSelf -> isFinished_ = YES; [weakSelf didChangeValueForKey:@"isFinished"]; theFinishedBlock(success, e); }; self.finishedBlock = finishedBlockWrapper; // finishedBlock is a class ext. property } I'm unsure that this is the right way to do it (I hope I'm not embarrassing myself here ^^). Will this code leak, or break, or is it fine? Perhaps there is an easier way I have overlooked? SOLUTION Thanks to the answers below (especially Krzysztof Zablocki), I was shown the way to go here: Define isFinished as readwrite property in the class extension (somehow I missed that one) so no direct ivar assignment is needed, and change code to: - (void)doSomethingWithFinishedBlock:(MyFinishedBlock)theFinishedBlock { __weak MyClass *weakSelf = self; MyFinishedBlock finishedBlockWrapper = ^(BOOL success, NSError *e) { MyClass *strongSelf = weakSelf; strongSelf.isFinished = YES; theFinishedBlock(success, e); }; self.finishedBlock = finishedBlockWrapper; // finishedBlock is a class ext. property }

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  • Constraint Validation

    - by tanuja
    I am using javax.validation.Validator and relevant classes for annotation based validation. Configuration<?> configuration = Validation.byDefaultProvider().configure(); ValidatorFactory factory = configuration.buildValidatorFactory(); Validator validator = factory.getValidator(); Set<ConstraintViolation<ValidatableObject>> constraintViolations = validator.validate(o); for (ConstraintViolation<ValidatableObject> value : constraintViolations) { List< Class< ? extends ConstraintValidator< ? extends Annotation,?>>> list = value.getConstraintDescriptor().getConstraintValidatorClasses(); } I get a compilation error stating: Type mismatch: cannot convert from List< Class< ? extends ConstraintValidator< capture#4-of ?,? to List< Class< ? extends ConstraintValidator< ? extends Annotation,? What am I missing?

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  • How can I get an IObservable<T> in Rx from a "non-standard" event?

    - by Dan Tao
    Here's what I mean. Suppose I'm working with an API that exposes events, but these events do not follow the standard EventHandler or EventHandler<TEventArgs> signature. One event might look like this, for instance: Public Event Update(ByVal sender As BaseSubscription, ByVal e As BaseEvent) Now, typically, if I want to get an IObservable<TEventArgs> from an event, I can just do this: Dim updates = Observable.FromEvent(Of UpdateEventArgs)( _ target:=updateSource, _ eventName:="Update" _ ) But this doesn't work, because the Update event is not an EventHandler<UpdateEventArgs> -- in fact, there is no UpdateEventArgs -- it's basically just its own thing. Obviously, I could define my own class deriving from EventArgs (i.e., UpdateEventArgs), write another class to wrap the object providing the Update event, give the wrapper class its own Update event that is an EventHandler<UpdateEventArgs>, and get an IObservable<UpdateEventArgs> from that. But that's an annoying amount of work. Is there some way to create an IObservable<[something]> from a "non-standard" event like this, or am I out of luck?

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