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  • Node.js + Express.js. How to RENDER less css?

    - by Paden
    Hello all, I am unable to render less css in my express workspace. Here is my current configuration (my css/less files go in 'public/stylo/'): app.configure(function() { app.set('views' , __dirname + '/views' ); app.set('partials' , __dirname + '/views/partials'); app.set('view engine', 'jade' ); app.use(express.bodyDecoder() ); app.use(express.methodOverride()); app.use(express.compiler({ src: __dirname + '/public/stylo', enable: ['less']})); app.use(app.router); app.use(express.staticProvider(__dirname + '/public')); }); Here is my main.jade file: !!! html(lang="en") head title Yea a title link(rel="stylesheet", type="text/css", href="/stylo/main.less") link(rel="stylesheet", href="http://fonts.googleapis.com/cssfamily=Droid+Sans|Droid+Sans+Mono|Ubuntu|Droid+Serif") script(src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.4/jquery.min.js") script(src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.7/jquery-ui.min.js") body!= body here is my main.less css: @import "goodies.css"; body { .googleFont; background-color : #000000; padding : 20px; margin : 0px; > .header { border-bottom : 1px solid #BBB; background-color : #f0f0f0; margin : -25px -25px 30px -25px; /* important */ color : #333; padding : 15px; font-size : 18pt; } } AND here is my goodies.less css: .rounded_corners(@radius: 10px) { -moz-border-radius : @radius; -webkit-border-radius: @radius; border-radius : @radius; } .shadows(@rad1: 0px, @rad2: 1px, @rad3: 3px, @color: #999) { -webkit-box-shadow : @rad1 @rad2 @rad3 @color; -moz-box-shadow : @rad1 @rad2 @rad3 @color; box-shadow : @rad1 @rad2 @rad3 @color; } .gradient (@type: linear, @pos1: left top, @pos2: left bottom, @color1: #f5f5f5, @color2: #ececec) { background-image : -webkit-gradient(@type, @pos1, @pos2, from(@color1), to(@color2)); background-image : -moz-linear-gradient(@color1, @color2); } .googleFont { font-family : 'Droid Serif'; } Cool deal. Now: I have installed less via npm and I had heard from another post that @imports should reference the .css not the .less. In any case, I have tried the combinations of switching .less for .css in the jade and less files with no success. If you can help or have the solution I'd greatly appreciate it. Note: The jade portion works fine if I enter any ol' .css. Note2: The less compiles if I use lessc via command line.

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  • Hooking DirectX EndScene from an injected DLL

    - by Etan
    I want to detour EndScene from an arbitrary DirectX 9 application to create a small overlay. As an example, you could take the frame counter overlay of FRAPS, which is shown in games when activated. I know the following methods to do this: Creating a new d3d9.dll, which is then copied to the games path. Since the current folder is searched first, before going to system32 etc., my modified DLL gets loaded, executing my additional code. Downside: You have to put it there before you start the game. Same as the first method, but replacing the DLL in system32 directly. Downside: You cannot add game specific code. You cannot exclude applications where you don't want your DLL to be loaded. Getting the EndScene offset directly from the DLL using tools like IDA Pro 4.9 Free. Since the DLL gets loaded as is, you can just add this offset to the DLL starting address, when it is mapped to the game, to get the actual offset, and then hook it. Downside: The offset is not the same on every system. Hooking Direct3DCreate9 to get the D3D9, then hooking D3D9-CreateDevice to get the device pointer, and then hooking Device-EndScene through the virtual table. Downside: The DLL cannot be injected, when the process is already running. You have to start the process with the CREATE_SUSPENDED flag to hook the initial Direct3DCreate9. Creating a new Device in a new window, as soon as the DLL gets injected. Then, getting the EndScene offset from this device and hooking it, resulting in a hook for the device which is used by the game. Downside: as of some information I have read, creating a second device may interfere with the existing device, and it may bug with windowed vs. fullscreen mode etc. Same as the third method. However, you'll do a pattern scan to get EndScene. Downside: doesn't look that reliable. How can I hook EndScene from an injected DLL, which may be loaded when the game is already running, without having to deal with different d3d9.dll's on other systems, and with a method which is reliable? How does FRAPS for example perform it's DirectX hooks? The DLL should not apply to all games, just to specific processes where I inject it via CreateRemoteThread.

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  • When -exactly- does the Rails3 application get initialized?

    - by bergyman
    I've been fighting left and right with rails 3 and bundler. There are a few gems out there that don't work properly if the rails application hasn't been loaded yet. factory_girl and shoulda are both examples, even on the rails3 branch. Taking shoulda as an example, when trying to run rake test:units I get the following error: DEPRECATION WARNING: RAILS_ROOT is deprecated! Use Rails.root instead. (called from autoload_macros at c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:40) c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'join': can't convert #<Class:0x232b7c0> into String (TypeError) from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'block in autoload_macros' from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'map' from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/autoload_macros.rb:44:in 'autoload_macros' from c:/code/test_harness/vendor/windows_gems/gems/shoulda-2.10.3/lib/shoulda/rails.rb:17:in '<top (required)>' Digging a bit deeper into lib/shoulda/rails, I see this: root = if defined?(Rails.root) && Rails.root Rails.root else RAILS_ROOT end # load in the 3rd party macros from vendorized plugins and gems Shoulda.autoload_macros root, File.join("vendor", "{plugins,gems}", "*") So...what's happening here is while Rails.root is defined, Rails.root == nil, so RAILS_ROOT is used, and RAILS_ROOT==nil, which is then being passed on to Shoulda.autoload_macros. Obviously the rails app has yet to be initialized. With Rails3 using Bundler now, there's been some hubub over on the Bundler side about being able to specify an order in which the gems are required, but I'm not sure whether or not this would solve the problem at hand. Ultimately my questions is this: When exactly does the environment.rb file (which actually initializes the application) get pulled in? Is there any harm to bumping up when the app is initialized and have it happen before the Bundler.require line in config/application.rb? I've tried to hack bundler to specify the order myself, and have the rails gem pulled in first, but it doesn't appear to me that requiring the rails gem actually initializes the application. As this line (in config/application.rb) is being called before the app is initialized, any gem in the bundler Gemfile that requires rails to be initialized is going to tank. # Auto-require default libraries and those for the current Rails environment. Bundler.require :default, Rails.env

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  • Keeping the DI-container usage in the composition root in Silverlight and MVVM

    - by adrian hara
    It's not quite clear to me how I can design so I keep the reference to the DI-container in the composition root for a Silverlight + MVVM application. I have the following simple usage scenario: there's a main view (perhaps a list of items) and an action to open an edit view for one single item. So the main view has to create and show the edit view when the user takes the action (e.g. clicks some button). For this I have the following code: public interface IView { IViewModel ViewModel {get; set;} } Then, for each view that I need to be able to create I have an abstract factory, like so public interface ISomeViewFactory { IView CreateView(); } This factory is then declared a dependency of the "parent" view model, like so: public class SomeParentViewModel { public SomeParentViewModel(ISomeViewFactory viewFactory) { // store it } private void OnSomeUserAction() { IView view = viewFactory.CreateView(); dialogService.ShowDialog(view); } } So all is well until here, no DI-container in sight :). Now comes the implementation of ISomeViewFactory: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = ???? } } The "????" part is my problem, because the view model for the view needs to be resolved from the DI-container so it gets its dependencies injected. What I don't know is how I can do this without having a dependency to the DI-container anywhere except the composition root. One possible solution would be to have either a dependency on the view model that gets injected into the factory, like so: public class SomeViewFactory : ISomeViewFactory { public SomeViewFactory(ISomeViewModel viewModel) { // store it } public IView CreateView() { IView view = new SomeView(); view.ViewModel = viewModel; } } While this works, it has the problem that since the whole object graph is wired up "statically" (i.e. the "parent" view model will get an instance of SomeViewFactory, which will get an instance of SomeViewModel, and these will live as long as the "parent" view model lives), the injected view model implementation is stateful and if the user opens the child view twice, the second time the view model will be the same instance and have the state from before. I guess I could work around this with an "Initialize" method or something similar, but it doesn't smell quite right. Another solution might be to wrap the DI-container and have the factories depend on the wrapper, but it'd still be a DI-container "in disguise" there :) Any thoughts on this are greatly appreciated. Also, please forgive any mistakes or rule-breaking, since this is my first post on stackoverflow :) Thanks! ps: my current solution is that the factories know about the DI-container, and it's only them and the composition root that have this dependency.

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  • How do i rotate a CALayer around a diagonal line?

    - by Mattias Wadman
    Hi. I'm trying to implement a flip animation to be used in board game like iPhone-application. The animation is supposed to look like a game piece that rotates and changes to the color of its back (kind of like an Reversi piece). I've managed to create an animation that flips the piece around its orthogonal axis, but when I try to flip it around a diagonal axis by changing the rotation around the z-axis the actual image also gets rotated (not surprisingly). Instead I would like to rotate the image "as is" around a diagonal axis. I have tried to change layer.sublayerTransform but with no success. Here is my current implementation. It works by doing a trick to resolve the issue of getting a mirrored image at the end of the animation. The solution is to not actually rotate the layer 180 degrees, instead it rotates it 90 degrees, changes image and then rotates it back. + (void)flipLayer:(CALayer *)layer toImage:(CGImageRef)image withAngle:(double)angle { const float duration = 0.5f; CAKeyframeAnimation *diag = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"transform.rotation.z"]; diag.duration = duration; diag.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:angle], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], nil]; diag.keyTimes = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:1.0f], nil]; diag.calculationMode = kCAAnimationDiscrete; CAKeyframeAnimation *flip = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"transform.rotation.y"]; flip.duration = duration; flip.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:M_PI / 2], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], nil]; flip.keyTimes = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.5f], [NSNumber numberWithDouble:1.0f], nil]; flip.calculationMode = kCAAnimationLinear; CAKeyframeAnimation *replace = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"contents"]; replace.duration = duration / 2; replace.beginTime = duration / 2; replace.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:(id)image, nil]; replace.keyTimes = [NSArray arrayWithObjects: [NSNumber numberWithDouble:0.0f], nil]; replace.calculationMode = kCAAnimationDiscrete; CAAnimationGroup *group = [CAAnimationGroup animation]; group.removedOnCompletion = NO; group.duration = duration; group.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]; group.animations = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:diag, flip, replace, nil]; group.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; [layer addAnimation:group forKey:nil]; }

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  • Python - calculate multinomial probability density functions on large dataset?

    - by Seafoid
    Hi, I originally intended to use MATLAB to tackle this problem but the inbuilt functions has limitations that do not suit my goal. The same limitation occurs in NumPy. I have two tab-delimited files. The first is a file showing amino acid residue, frequency and count for an in-house database of protein structures, i.e. A 0.25 1 S 0.25 1 T 0.25 1 P 0.25 1 The second file consists of quadruplets of amino acids and the number of times they occur, i.e. ASTP 1 Note, there are 8,000 such quadruplets. Based on the background frequency of occurence of each amino acid and the count of quadruplets, I aim to calculate the multinomial probability density function for each quadruplet and subsequently use it as the expected value in a maximum likelihood calculation. The multinomial distribution is as follows: f(x|n, p) = n!/(x1!*x2!*...*xk!)*((p1^x1)*(p2^x2)*...*(pk^xk)) where x is the number of each of k outcomes in n trials with fixed probabilities p. n is 4 four in all cases in my calculation. I have created three functions to calculate this distribution. # functions for multinomial distribution def expected_quadruplets(x, y): expected = x*y return expected # calculates the probabilities of occurence raised to the number of occurrences def prod_prob(p1, a, p2, b, p3, c, p4, d): prob_prod = (pow(p1, a))*(pow(p2, b))*(pow(p3, c))*(pow(p4, d)) return prob_prod # factorial() and multinomial_coefficient() work in tandem to calculate C, the multinomial coefficient def factorial(n): if n <= 1: return 1 return n*factorial(n-1) def multinomial_coefficient(a, b, c, d): n = 24.0 multi_coeff = (n/(factorial(a) * factorial(b) * factorial(c) * factorial(d))) return multi_coeff The problem is how best to structure the data in order to tackle the calculation most efficiently, in a manner that I can read (you guys write some cryptic code :-)) and that will not create an overflow or runtime error. To data my data is represented as nested lists. amino_acids = [['A', '0.25', '1'], ['S', '0.25', '1'], ['T', '0.25', '1'], ['P', '0.25', '1']] quadruplets = [['ASTP', '1']] I initially intended calling these functions within a nested for loop but this resulted in runtime errors or overfloe errors. I know that I can reset the recursion limit but I would rather do this more elegantly. I had the following: for i in quadruplets: quad = i[0].split(' ') for j in amino_acids: for k in quadruplets: for v in k: if j[0] == v: multinomial_coefficient(int(j[2]), int(j[2]), int(j[2]), int(j[2])) I haven'te really gotten to how to incorporate the other functions yet. I think that my current nested list arrangement is sub optimal. I wish to compare the each letter within the string 'ASTP' with the first component of each sub list in amino_acids. Where a match exists, I wish to pass the appropriate numeric values to the functions using indices. Is their a better way? Can I append the appropriate numbers for each amino acid and quadruplet to a temporary data structure within a loop, pass this to the functions and clear it for the next iteration? Thanks, S :-)

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  • Chaining IQueryables together

    - by Matt Greer
    I have a RIA Services based app that is using Entity Framework on the server side (possibly not relevant). In my real app, I can do something like this. EntityQuery<Status> query = statusContext.GetStatusesQuery().Where(s => s.Description.Contains("Foo")); Where statusContext is the client side subclass of DomainContext that RIA Services was kind enough to generate for me. The end result is an EntityQuery<Status> object who's Query property is an object that implements IQueryable and represents my where clause. The WebDomainClient is able to take this EntityQuery and not just give me back all of my Statuses but also filtered with my where clause. I am trying to implement this in a mock DomainClient. This MockDomainClient accepts an IQueryably<Entity> which it returns when asked for. But what if the user makes the query and includes the ad hoc additional query? How can I merge the two together? My MockDomainClient is (this is modeled after this blog post) ... public class MockDomainClient : LocalDomainClient { private IQueryable<Entity> _entities; public MockDomainClient(IQueryable<Entity> entities) { _entities = entities; } public override IQueryable<Entity> DoQuery(EntityQuery query) { if (query.Query == null) { return _entities; } // otherwise want the union of _entities and query.Query, query.Query is IQueryable // the below does not work and was a total shot in the dark: //return _entities.Union(query.Query.Cast<Entity>()); } } public abstract class LocalDomainClient : System.ServiceModel.DomainServices.Client.DomainClient { private SynchronizationContext _syncContext; protected LocalDomainClient() { _syncContext = SynchronizationContext.Current; } ... public abstract IQueryable<Entity> DoQuery(EntityQuery query); protected override IAsyncResult BeginQueryCore(EntityQuery query, AsyncCallback callback, object userState) { IQueryable<Entity> localQuery = DoQuery(query); LocalAsyncResult asyncResult = new LocalAsyncResult(callback, userState, localQuery); _syncContext.Post(o => (o as LocalAsyncResult).Complete(), asyncResult); return asyncResult; } ... }

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  • impersonation and BackgroundWorker

    - by Lucian D
    Hello guys, I have a little bit of a problem when trying to use the BackgroundWorker class with impersonation. Following the answers from google, I got this code to impersonate public class MyImpersonation{ WindowsImpersonationContext impersonationContext; [DllImport("advapi32.dll")] public static extern int LogonUserA(String lpszUserName, String lpszDomain, String lpszPassword, int dwLogonType, int dwLogonProvider, ref IntPtr phToken); [DllImport("advapi32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern int DuplicateToken(IntPtr hToken, int impersonationLevel, ref IntPtr hNewToken); [DllImport("advapi32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] public static extern bool RevertToSelf(); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] public static extern bool CloseHandle(IntPtr handle); public bool impersonateValidUser(String userName, String domain, String password) { WindowsIdentity tempWindowsIdentity; IntPtr token = IntPtr.Zero; IntPtr tokenDuplicate = IntPtr.Zero; if (RevertToSelf()) { if (LogonUserA(userName, domain, password, LOGON32_LOGON_INTERACTIVE, LOGON32_PROVIDER_DEFAULT, ref token) != 0) { if (DuplicateToken(token, 2, ref tokenDuplicate) != 0) { tempWindowsIdentity = new WindowsIdentity(tokenDuplicate); impersonationContext = tempWindowsIdentity.Impersonate(); if (impersonationContext != null) { CloseHandle(token); CloseHandle(tokenDuplicate); return true; } } } } if (token != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(token); if (tokenDuplicate != IntPtr.Zero) CloseHandle(tokenDuplicate); return false; } } It worked really well until I've used it with the BackgroundWorker class. In this case, I've added a impersonation in the the code that runs asynchronously. I have no errors, but the issue I'm having is that the impersonation does not work when it is used in the async method. In code this looks something like this: instantiate a BGWorker, and add an event handler to the DoWork event: _bgWorker = new BackgroundWorker(); _bgWorker.DoWork += new DoWorkEventHandler(_bgWorker_DoWork); in the above handler, a impersonation is made before running some code. private void _bgWorker_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { MyImpersonation myImpersonation = new MyImpersonation(); myImpersonation.impersonateValidUser(user, domain, pass) //run some code... myImpersonation.undoImpersonation(); } the code is launched with BGWorker.RunWorkerAsync(); As I said before, no error is thrown, only that the code acts as if I did't run any impersonation, that is with it's default credentials. Moreover, the impersonation method returns true, so the impersonation took place at a certain level, but probably not on the current thread. This must happen because the async code runs on another thread, so there must be something that needs to be added to the MyImpersonation class. But what?? :) Thanks in advance, Lucian

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  • Visitor pattern and compiler code generation, how to get children attributes?

    - by LeleDumbo
    I'd like to modify my compiler's code generator to use visitor pattern since the current approach must use multiple conditional statement to check the real type of a child before generating the corresponding code. However, I have problems to get children attributes after they're visited. For instance, in binary expression I use this: LHSCode := GenerateExpressionCode(LHSNode); RHSCode := GenerateExpressionCode(RHSNode); CreateBinaryExpression(Self,LHS,RHS); In visitor pattern the visit method is usually void, so I can't get the expression code from LHS and RHS. Keeping shared global variables isn't an option since expression code generation is recursive thus could erase previous values kept in the variables. I'll just show the binary expression as this is the most complicated part (for now): function TLLVMCodeGenerator.GenerateExpressionCode( Expr: TASTExpression): TLLVMValue; var BinExpr: TASTBinaryExpression; UnExpr: TASTUnaryExpression; LHSCode, RHSCode, ExprCode: TLLVMValue; VarExpr: TASTVariableExpression; begin if Expr is TASTBinaryExpression then begin BinExpr := Expr as TASTBinaryExpression; LHSCode := GenerateExpressionCode(BinExpr.LHS); RHSCode := GenerateExpressionCode(BinExpr.RHS); case BinExpr.Op of '<': Result := FBuilder.CreateICmp(ccSLT, LHSCode, RHSCode); '<=': Result := FBuilder.CreateICmp(ccSLE, LHSCode, RHSCode); '>': Result := FBuilder.CreateICmp(ccSGT, LHSCode, RHSCode); '>=': Result := FBuilder.CreateICmp(ccSGE, LHSCode, RHSCode); '==': Result := FBuilder.CreateICmp(ccEQ, LHSCode, RHSCode); '<>': Result := FBuilder.CreateICmp(ccNE, LHSCode, RHSCode); '/\': Result := FBuilder.CreateAnd(LHSCode, RHSCode); '\/': Result := FBuilder.CreateOr(LHSCode, RHSCode); '+': Result := FBuilder.CreateAdd(LHSCode, RHSCode); '-': Result := FBuilder.CreateSub(LHSCode, RHSCode); '*': Result := FBuilder.CreateMul(LHSCode, RHSCode); '/': Result := FBuilder.CreateSDiv(LHSCode, RHSCode); end; end else if Expr is TASTPrimaryExpression then if Expr is TASTBooleanConstant then with Expr as TASTBooleanConstant do Result := FBuilder.CreateConstant(Ord(Value), ltI1) else if Expr is TASTIntegerConstant then with Expr as TASTIntegerConstant do Result := FBuilder.CreateConstant(Value, ltI32) else if Expr is TASTUnaryExpression then begin UnExpr := Expr as TASTUnaryExpression; ExprCode := GenerateExpressionCode(UnExpr.Expr); case UnExpr.Op of '~': Result := FBuilder.CreateXor( FBuilder.CreateConstant(1, ltI1), ExprCode); '-': Result := FBuilder.CreateSub( FBuilder.CreateConstant(0, ltI32), ExprCode); end; end else if Expr is TASTVariableExpression then begin VarExpr := Expr as TASTVariableExpression; with VarExpr.VarDecl do Result := FBuilder.CreateVar(Ident, BaseTypeLLVMTypeMap[BaseType]); end; end; Hope you understand it :)

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  • Get UiBinder widget to display inline instead of block

    - by Steve Armstrong
    I'm trying to get my UiBinder-defined widget to display inline, but I can't. My current code is: <ui:UiBinder xmlns:ui='urn:ui:com.google.gwt.uibinder' xmlns:g='urn:import:com.google.gwt.user.client.ui'> <ui:style> .section { border: 1px solid #000000; width: 330px; padding: 5px; display: run-in; } </ui:style> <g:HTMLPanel> <div class="{style.section}"> <div ui:field="titleSpan" class="{style.title}" /> <div class="{style.contents}"> <g:VerticalPanel ui:field="messagesPanel" /> </div> </div> </g:HTMLPanel> </ui:UiBinder> This works fine in terms of how the widget looks internally, but I want to throw a bunch of these widgets into a FlowPanel and have them flow when the window is resized. The HTMLPanel is a div, but I can't get the display attribute to assign. I can't force the style name, since the following throws an error: <g:HTMLPanel styleNames="{style.section}"> And I can assign an additional style, but it doesn't apply the display setting. <g:HTMLPanel addStyleNames="{style.section}"> This displays the border and sets the size, as expected, but it doesn't flow. Firebug shows the styles on the div are border, width, and padding, but no display. Is there a way to make a widget in UiBinder so that it'll display inline instead of block? And if so, can I make it compatible with having a VerticalPanel inside (can I do it without making the entire widget pure HTML without any GWT widgets)? PS: I saw question 2257924 but it hasn't had any answers lately, and he seems to be focused on getting a tag, not specifically getting inline layout. I don't care directly about , if I can just get the top-level tag for my widget to flow inline, I'm happy.

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  • Another design-related C++ question

    - by Kotti
    Hi! I am trying to find some optimal solutions in C++ coding patterns, and this is one of my game engine - related questions. Take a look at the game object declaration (I removed almost everything, that has no connection with the question). // Abstract representation of a game object class Object : public Entity, IRenderable, ISerializable { // Object parameters // Other not really important stuff public: // @note Rendering template will never change while // the object 'lives' Object(RenderTemplate& render_template, /* params */) : /*...*/ { } private: // Object rendering template RenderTemplate render_template; public: /** * Default object render method * Draws rendering template data at (X, Y) with (Width, Height) dimensions * * @note If no appropriate rendering method overload is specified * for any derived class, this method is called * * @param Backend & b * @return void * @see */ virtual void Render(Backend& backend) const { // Render sprite from object's // rendering template structure backend.RenderFromTemplate( render_template, x, y, width, height ); } }; Here is also the IRenderable interface declaration: // Objects that can be rendered interface IRenderable { /** * Abstract method to render current object * * @param Backend & b * @return void * @see */ virtual void Render(Backend& b) const = 0; } and a sample of a real object that is derived from Object (with severe simplifications :) // Ball object class Ball : public Object { // Ball params public: virtual void Render(Backend& b) const { b.RenderEllipse(/*params*/); } }; What I wanted to get is the ability to have some sort of standard function, that would draw sprite for an object (this is Object::Render) if there is no appropriate overload. So, one can have objects without Render(...) method, and if you try to render them, this default sprite-rendering stuff is invoked. And, one can have specialized objects, that define their own way of being rendered. I think, this way of doing things is quite good, but what I can't figure out - is there any way to split the objects' "normal" methods (like Resize(...) or Rotate(...)) implementation from their rendering implementation? Because if everything is done the way described earlier, a common .cpp file, that implements any type of object would generally mix the Resize(...), etc methods implementation and this virtual Render(...) method and this seems to be a mess. I actually want to have rendering procedures for the objects in one place and their "logic implementation" - in another. Is there a way this can be done (maybe alternative pattern or trick or hint) or this is where all this polymorphic and virtual stuff sucks in terms of code placement?

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  • UIWebView leak? Can someone confirm?

    - by Shaggy Frog
    I was leak-testing my current project and I'm stumped. I've been browsing like crazy and tried everything except chicken sacrifice. I just created a tiny toy project app from scratch and I can duplicate the leak in there. So either UIWebView has a leak or I'm doing something really silly. Essentially, it boils down to a loadRequest: call to a UIWebView object, given an URLRequest built from an NSURL which references a file URL, for a file in the app bundle, which lives inside a folder that Xcode is including by reference. Phew. The leak is intermittent but still happens ~75% of the time (in about 20 tests it happened about 15 times). It only happens on the device -- this does not leak in the simulator. I am testing targeting both iPhone OS 3.1.2 and 3.1.3, on an original (1st Gen) iPod Touch that is using iPhone OS 3.1.3. To reproduce, just create a project from scratch. Add a UIWebView to the RootViewController's .xib, hook it up via IBOutlet. In the Finder, create a folder named "html" inside your project's folder. Inside that folder, create a file named "dummy.html" that has the word "Test" in it. (Does not need to be valid HTML.) Then add the html folder to your project in Xcode by choosing "Create Folder References for any added folders" Add the following to viewDidLoad NSString* resourcePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] resourcePath]; NSString* filePath = [[resourcePath stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"html"] stringByAppendingPathComponent:@"dummy.html"]; NSURL* url = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath:filePath]; NSURLRequest* request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; // <-- this creates the leak! [browserView loadRequest:request]; [url release]; I've tried everything from setting delegate for the UIWebView and implementing UIWebViewDelegate, to not setting a delegate in IB, to not setting a delegate in IB and explicitly setting the web view's delegate property to nil, to using alloc/init instead of getting autoreleased NSURLRequests (and/or NSURLs)... I tried the answer to a similar question (setting the shared URL cache to empty) and that did not help. Can anyone help?

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  • Semi-complex aggregate select statement confusion

    - by Ian Henry
    Alright, this problem is a little complicated, so bear with me. I have a table full of data. One of the table columns is an EntryDate. There can be multiple entries per day. However, I want to select all rows that are the latest entry on their respective days, and I want to select all the columns of said table. One of the columns is a unique identifier column, but it is not the primary key (I have no idea why it's there; this is a pretty old system). For purposes of demonstration, say the table looks like this: create table ExampleTable ( ID int identity(1,1) not null, PersonID int not null, StoreID int not null, Data1 int not null, Data2 int not null, EntryDate datetime not null ) The primary key is on PersonID and StoreID, which logically defines uniqueness. Now, like I said, I want to select all the rows that are the latest entries on that particular day (for each Person-Store combination). This is pretty easy: --Figure 1 select PersonID, StoreID, max(EntryDate) from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) Where dbo.dayof() is a simple function that strips the time component from a datetime. However, doing this loses the rest of the columns! I can't simply include the other columns, because then I'd have to group by them, which would produce the wrong results (especially since ID is unique). I have found a dirty hack that will do what I want, but there must be a better way -- here's my current solution: select cast(null as int) as ID, PersonID, StoreID, cast(null as int) as Data1, cast(null as int) as Data2, max(EntryDate) as EntryDate into #StagingTable from ExampleTable group by PersonID, StoreID, dbo.dayof(EntryDate) update Target set ID = Source.ID, Data1 = Source.Data1, Data2 = Source.Data2, from #StagingTable as Target inner join ExampleTable as Source on Source.PersonID = Target.PersonID and Source.StoreID = Target.StoreID and Source.EntryDate = Target.EntryDate This gets me the correct data in #StagingTable but, well, look at it! Creating a table with null values, then doing an update to get the values back -- surely there's a better way to do this? A single statement that will get me all the values the first time? It is my belief that the correct join on that original select (Figure 1) would do the trick, like a self-join or something... but how do you do that with the group by clause? I cannot find the right syntax to make the query execute. I am pretty new with SQL, so it's likely that I'm missing something obvious. Any suggestions? (Working in T-SQL, if it makes any difference)

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  • Need help implementing simple socket server using GIOService (GLib, Glib-GIO)

    - by Mark Renouf
    I'm learning the basics of writing a simple, efficient socket server using GLib. I'm experimenting with GSocketService. So far I can only seem to accept connections but then they are immediately closed. From the docs I can't figure out what step I am missing. I'm hoping someone can shed some light on this for me. When running the following: # telnet localhost 4000 Trying 127.0.0.1... Connected to localhost. Escape character is '^]'. Connection closed by foreign host. # telnet localhost 4000 Trying 127.0.0.1... Connected to localhost. Escape character is '^]'. Connection closed by foreign host. # telnet localhost 4000 Trying 127.0.0.1... Connected to localhost. Escape character is '^]'. Connection closed by foreign host. Output from the server: # ./server New Connection from 127.0.0.1:36962 New Connection from 127.0.0.1:36963 New Connection from 127.0.0.1:36965 Current code: /* * server.c * * Created on: Mar 10, 2010 * Author: mark */ #include <glib.h> #include <gio/gio.h> gchar *buffer; gboolean network_read(GIOChannel *source, GIOCondition cond, gpointer data) { GString *s = g_string_new(NULL); GError *error; GIOStatus ret = g_io_channel_read_line_string(source, s, NULL, &error); if (ret == G_IO_STATUS_ERROR) g_error ("Error reading: %s\n", error->message); else g_print("Got: %s\n", s->str); } gboolean new_connection(GSocketService *service, GSocketConnection *connection, GObject *source_object, gpointer user_data) { GSocketAddress *sockaddr = g_socket_connection_get_remote_address(connection, NULL); GInetAddress *addr = g_inet_socket_address_get_address(G_INET_SOCKET_ADDRESS(sockaddr)); guint16 port = g_inet_socket_address_get_port(G_INET_SOCKET_ADDRESS(sockaddr)); g_print("New Connection from %s:%d\n", g_inet_address_to_string(addr), port); GSocket *socket = g_socket_connection_get_socket(connection); gint fd = g_socket_get_fd(socket); GIOChannel *channel = g_io_channel_unix_new(fd); g_io_add_watch(channel, G_IO_IN, (GIOFunc) network_read, NULL); return TRUE; } int main(int argc, char **argv) { g_type_init(); GSocketService *service = g_socket_service_new(); GInetAddress *address = g_inet_address_new_from_string("127.0.0.1"); GSocketAddress *socket_address = g_inet_socket_address_new(address, 4000); g_socket_listener_add_address(G_SOCKET_LISTENER(service), socket_address, G_SOCKET_TYPE_STREAM, G_SOCKET_PROTOCOL_TCP, NULL, NULL, NULL); g_object_unref(socket_address); g_object_unref(address); g_socket_service_start(service); g_signal_connect(service, "incoming", G_CALLBACK(new_connection), NULL); GMainLoop *loop = g_main_loop_new(NULL, FALSE); g_main_loop_run(loop); }

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  • Auto-scaffolding an "index" view in ASP.NET MVC

    - by DanM
    I'm trying to write an auto-scaffolder for Index views. I'd like to be able to pass in a collection of models or view-models (e.g., IQueryable<MyViewModel>) and get back an HTML table that uses the DisplayName attribute for the headings (th elements) and Html.Display(propertyName) for the cells (td elements). Each row should correspond to one item in the collection. Here's what I have so far: <%@ Control Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewUserControl" %> <% var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; // Should be generic! var properties = items.First().GetMetadata().Properties .Where(pm => pm.ShowForDisplay && !ViewData.TemplateInfo.Visited(pm)); %> <table> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <th> <%= property.DisplayName %> </th> <% } %> </tr> <% foreach(var item in items) { %> <tr> <% foreach(var property in properties) { %> <td> <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> // This doesn't work! </td> <% } %> </tr> <% } %> </table> Two problems with this: I'd like it to be generic. So, I'd like to replace var items = (IQueryable<TestProj.ViewModels.TestViewModel>)Model; with var items = (IQueryable<T>)Model; or something to that effect. The <td> elements are not working because the Html in <%= Html.Display(property.DisplayName) %> contains the model for the view, which is a collection of items, not the item itself. Somehow, I need to obtain an HtmlHelper object whose Model property is the current item, but I'm not sure how to do that. How do I solve these two problems?

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  • Which version of MSXML should I use?

    - by Cheeso
    Seems like this would be a common question, though I could not find it on SO. Which version of MSXML should I use in my applications, and more importantly, how should I decide? There is MSXML3, 4, 5 and 6. I recently posted some code in calling-wcf-service-by-vbscript that used MSXML v4. AnthonyWJones posted that I shouldn't use 4, but instead 3 or 6, but probably 3. Certainly not v5! Why? I'd like to know more about the criteria for selecting the version of MSXML to use in my apps. Bonus question: Does anyone have a summary of the differences between the various versions of MSXML over time? Summary so far: MSXML6 Should be first choice. was released in 2006, and includes perf and compliance fixes. Use this if you can. It's good. There are no merge modules; to bundle the MSXML6 runtime with your app, MS suggests packaging the MSXML6 msi file. MSXML6 is an upgrade from MSXML3/4 but does not replace them, because it discontinues some features. You can get the MSI here. MSXML3 Second choice. Most widely deployed version. Originally shipped in March 2000. Actively maintained, no new features. Currently supported, if you are on SP5 (shipped in 2005) or later. SP7 is current (also from 2005). MSXML5 was released only as part of MS-Office. Currently supported by Microsoft, but only as part of Office, not for building apps. Don't build apps that depend on MSXML5: Verboten. MSXML4 originally shipped? Currently in "maintenance mode". Microsoft is encouraging people to move off MSXML4 to MSXML6. Currently supported if you are on MSXML4SP2 or later, which shipped in 2003. download MSXML4SP2 here. Can be redisributed. Using the right version of MSXML in Internet Explorer is a good entry on the blog from Microsoft's xmlteam.

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  • I keep on getting "save operation failure" after any change on my XCode Data Model

    - by Philip Schoch
    I started using Core Data for iPhone development. I started out by creating a very simple entity (called Evaluation) with just one string property (called evaluationTopic). I had following code for inserting a fresh string: - (void)insertNewObject { // Create a new instance of the entity managed by the fetched results controller. NSManagedObjectContext *context = [fetchedResultsController managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [[fetchedResultsController fetchRequest] entity]; NSManagedObject *newManagedObject = [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:[entity name] inManagedObjectContext:context]; // If appropriate, configure the new managed object. [newManagedObject setValue:@"My Repeating String" forKey:@"evaluationTopic"]; // Save the context. NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { // Handle the error... } [self.tableView reloadData]; } This worked perfectly fine and by pushing the +button a new "My Repeating String" would be added to the table view and be in persistent store. I then pressed "Design - Add Model Version" in XCode. I added three entities to the existing entity and also added new properties to the existing "Evaluation" entity. Then, I created new files off the entities by pressing "File - New File - Managed Object Classes" and created a new .h and .m file for my four entities, including the "Evaluation" entity with Evaluation.h and Evaluation.m. Now I changed the model version by setting "Design - Data Model - Set Current Version". After having done all this, I changed my insertMethod: - (void)insertNewObject { // Create a new instance of the entity managed by the fetched results controller. NSManagedObjectContext *context = [fetchedResultsController managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [[fetchedResultsController fetchRequest] entity]; Evaluation *evaluation = (Evaluation *) [NSEntityDescription insertNewObjectForEntityForName:[entity name] inManagedObjectContext:context]; // If appropriate, configure the new managed object. [evaluation setValue:@"My even new string" forKey:@"evaluationSpeechTopic"]; // Save the context. NSError *error; if (![context save:&error]) { // Handle the error... } [self.tableView reloadData]; } This does not work though! Every time I want to add a row the simulator crashes and I get the following: "NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'This NSPersistentStoreCoordinator has no persistent stores. It cannot perform a save operation.'" I had this error before I knew about creating new version after changing anything on the datamodel, but why is this still coming up? Do I need to do any mapping (even though I just added entities and properties that did not exist before?). In the Apple Dev tutorial it sounds very easy but I have been struggling with this for long time, never worked after changing model version.

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  • Tridion Installation

    - by Kevin Brydon
    I am currently upgrading an installation of Tridion from 5.3 to 2011 starting almost from scratch (aside from migrating the database), brand new virtual servers. I just want to ask for some advice on my current server setup... a sanity check. All servers are running Windows Server 2008. The pages on our website are all classic ASP. Database SQL Server cluster. The 5.3 database has been migrated using the DatabaseManager. This is pretty standard and works well (in test anyway). Content Manager A single server to run the Content Manager and the Publisher. There are around 10 people using it at any one time so not under a particularly heavy load. Content Data Store Filesystem located somewhere on the network. One directory for live and one for staging. Content Delivery Two servers (cd1 and cd2) each with the the following server roles installed. cd1 writes to a filesystem content data store for the live website, cd2 writes to the content data store for the staging website. Presentation Two public facing web servers (web1 and web2) serving both the live and staging websites. The web servers read directly from the content data store as its a filesystem. Each of the web servers have the Content Delivery Server installed so that I can use dynamic linking (and other features?). I've so far set up everything but the web servers. Any thoughts? edit Thanks to Ram S who linked me to a decent walkthrough, upvoted. I suppose I should have posed some questions as I didn't really ask a question. I guess I'm a little confused over the content deliver aspect. I have the Content Delivery split in two separate parts. cd1 and cd2 do the work of shifting information from the Content Manager to the Staging/Live web directories. web1 and web2 should do the work of serving the web pages to the outside world and will interact with the content data store (file system). Is this a correct setup? I need some parts of the Content Delivery on my web servers right? Theoretically I could get rid of the cd1 and cd2 servers and use web1 and web2 to do the deployment right? But I suspect this will put the web servers under unnecessary strain should there ever be a big publish. I've been reading the 2011 Installation Manual, Content Delivery section, and I'm finding it quite hard to get my head around!

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  • UITableView having one Cell with multiple UITextFields (some of them in one row) scrolling crazy

    - by Allisone
    I have a UITableView (grouped). In that tableview I have several UITableViewCells, some custom with nib, some default. One Cell (custom) with nib has several UITextfields for address information, thus also one row has zip-code and city in one row. When I get the keyboard the tableview size seems to be adjusted automatically (vs. another viewController in the app with just a scrollview where I had to code this functionality on my own) so that i can scroll to the bottom of my tableview (and see it) even though the keyboard is up. That's good. BUT when I click on a textfield the tableview gets either scrolled up, or down, I can't figure out the logic. It seems to be rather random up/down scrolling / contentOffset setting. So I have bound the Editing Did Begin events of the textfields to a function that has this code. - (IBAction)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { CGPoint pt; CGRect rc = [textField bounds]; rc = [textField convertRect:rc toView:self.tableView]; pt = rc.origin; pt.x = 0; [self.tableView setContentOffset:pt animated:YES]; ... } This, well, it seems to work most of the time, BUT it doesn't work if I click the first textfield (the view jumps so that the second row gets to the top and the first row is out of the current visible view frame) AND it also doesn't work if I first select the zip textfield and next the city textfield (both in one row) or vice versa. If I do so, the tableview seems to jump to the (grouped tableview) top of my viewForHeaderInSection(this section with this mentioned cell with all my textfields) What is is going on ? Why is this happening ? How to fix this ? Edit This on the other hand behaves as expected (for the two Textviews wit same origin.y) if (self.tableView.contentOffset.y == pt.y) { pt.y = pt.y + 1; [self.tableView setContentOffset:pt animated:YES]; }else { [self.tableView setContentOffset:pt animated:YES]; } But this is a stupid solution. I wouldn't like to keep it that way. And this also doesn't fix the wrong jumping, when clicking the first textfield at first.

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  • CSS Rollover button bug

    - by Nick
    Hi Everyone, I'm trying to create a drop down button and its almost working except one little bug. I have several big buttons that change background color when the user hovers over them and one of them, the language button, displays several suboptions inside itself when the user hovers over it. That all works fine except the language button doesn't change its background color when the user hovers over it. It does change its color if the cursor is just inside the button but not if it touches the 3 sub options. What i need is a technique or a rule that states that the button will change background color if user hovers over it or if the user hovers over one of its children elements. How do I achieve this? Here's the markup: <ul> <li><a href="/home/" title="Go to the Home page" class="current"><span>Home</span></a></li> <li><a href="/about-us/" title="Go to the About Us page" class="link"><span>About us</span></a></li> <li><a href="/products/" title="Go to the Products page" class="link"><span>Products</span></a></li> <li><a href="/services/" title="Go to the Services page" class="link"><span>Services</span></a></li> <li><a href="/news/" title="Go to the News page" class="link"><span>News</span></a></li> <li><a href="/dealers/" title="Go to the Dealers page" class="link"><span>Dealers</span></a></li> <li id="Rollover"><a href="" title="select language" class="link"><span>Language</span></a> <ul> <li><a href="/english/">English</a></li> <li><a href="/french/">French</a></li> <li><a href="/spanish/">Spanish</a></li> </ul> </li> <li><a href="/contact-us/" title="Go to the contacts page" class="link"><span>Contact us</span></a></li> </ul> Thanks in advance!

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  • Nhibernate: One-To-Many mapping problem - Cannot cascade delete without inverse. Set NULL error

    - by KnaveT
    Hi, I have the current scenario whereby an Article has only 1 Outcome each. Each Article may or may not have an Outcome. In theory, this is a one-to-one mapping, but since NHibernate does not really support one-to-one, I used a One-To-Many to substitute. My Primary Key on the child table is actually the ArticleID (FK). So I have the following setup: Classes public class Article { public virtual Int32 ID { get;set;} private ICollection<ArticleOutcome> _Outcomes {get;set;} public virtual ArticleOutcome Outcome { get { if( this._Outcomes !=null && this._Outcomes.Count > 0 ) return this._Outcomes.First(); return null; } set { if( value == null ) { if( this._Outcomes !=null && this._Outcomes.Count > 0 ) this._Outcomes.Clear(); } else { if( this._Outcomes == null ) this._Outcomes = new HashSet<ArticleOutcome>(); else if ( this._Outcomes.Count >= 1 ) this._Outcomes.Clear(); this._Outcomes.Add( value ); } } } } public class ArticleOutcome { public virtual Int32 ID { get;set; } public virtual Article ParentArticle { get;set;} } Mappings public class ArticleMap : ClassMap<Article> { public ArticleMap() { this.Id( x=> x.ID ).GeneratedBy.Identity(); this.HasMany<ArticleOutcome>( Reveal.Property<Article>("_Outcomes") ) .AsSet().KeyColumn("ArticleID") .Cascade.AllDeleteOrphan() //Cascade.All() doesn't work too. .LazyLoad() .Fetch.Select(); } } public class ArticleOutcomeMap : ClassMap<ArticleOutcome> { public ArticleOutcomeMap(){ this.Id( x=> x.ID, "ArticleID").GeneratedBy.Foreign("ParentArticle"); this.HasOne( x=> x.ParentArticle ).Constrained (); //This do not work also. //this.References( x=> x.ParentArticle, "ArticleID" ).Not.Nullable(); } } Now my problem is this: It works when I do an insert/update of the Outcome. e.g. var article = new Article(); article.Outcome = new ArticleOutcome { xxx = "something" }; session.Save( article ); However, I encounter SQL errors when attempting to delete via the Article itself. var article = session.Get( 123 ); session.Delete( article ); //throws SQL error. The error is something to the like of Cannot insert NULL into ArticleID in ArticleOutcome table. The deletion works if I place Inverse() to the Article's HasMany() mapping, but insertion will fail. Does anyone have a solution for this? Or do I really have to add a surrogate key to the ArticleOutcome table?

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  • html widget communicating with server

    - by Nikita Rybak
    I'm making html widget for websites. Let's say, it will display current stock indexes. In short, arbitrary website owner takes code snippet from me and includes it on his webpage http://website.com/index.html. When arbitrary user opens http://website.com/index.html, my code sends request to my server (provider.com), which performs necessary operations and returns information to user's browser. When response has arrived, user will see relevant stock value on http://website.com/index.html. In index.html service could be called like this <script type="text/javascript" src="provider.com/service.js"> </script> <div id="target_area"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> service.show("target_area", options); </script> Now, the problem is in the same origin policy: I can't just send ajax request from website.com to provided.com and return html to embed in client's webpage. I see several solutions, which I list below, but none quite satisfy me. I wonder, if you could suggest something, especially if you had some relevant experience. 1) iframe, plain and simple. Disadvantage: must have fixed dimensions + stupid scroll bars appearing in some browsers. Can be fixed with javascript, but all this browser-specific tinkering doesn't sound good to me. 2) JSONP. Problem: can't return whole chunk of html, must return only data. Then, on browser side, I'll have to use javascript to embed data into html snippet placed statically in index.html. Doesn't sound nice, because data format is not very simple and may even change later. 3) Use hidden iframe to do ajax requests. A bit tricky, but sounds like a way to go. Well, that's my thoughts on the subject. Are there any better ways? BTW, I tried to check some existing widgets too, but didn't find much useful information. All domain names used in this text are fictional and any resemblance is purely coincidental :)

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  • jQuery show/hide menu problem

    - by jerrygarciuh
    Hi folks, I am encountering an odd behavior using jQuery to show/hide a menu. I have an absolutely positioned div which contains an "activator " div (relatively positioned) which I want to reveal a menu on moseover. Menu div is contained by the activator div and is also relatively positioned. I was working on assumption that since it would be contained by the activator that rolloff would not be triggered when the mouse travels over into the reveled menu. When you roll onto the revealed menu however show/hide starts pulsing and does so a second or so even after the mouse clears the area. CSS looks like this #myAbsolutePos { position:absolute; height:335px; width:213px; top:508px; left:0; z-index:2; } #activator { position:relative; height:35px; margin-top:95px; text-align:center; width:inherit; cursor:pointer; } #menu { position:relative; height:255px; width:243px; top:-45px; left:190px; padding:20px 25px 20px 25px; } #menuContents { width:190px; } jQuery funcs: $('#activator').mouseover(function () { $('#menu').show('slow'); }); $('#activator').mouseout(function () { $('#menu').hide('slow'); }); HTML: <div id="myAbsolutePos"> <div id="activator"> // content <div id="menu" style="display:none"> <div id="menuContents"> // content </div> </div> </div> </div> To see problem in action roll over the current weather location (Thunder Horse) in the lower left here: http://www.karlsenner.dreamhosters.com/index.php Any advice is most appreciated! JG

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  • How to make custom WCF error handler return JSON response with non-OK http code?

    - by John
    I'm implementing a RESTful web service using WCF and the WebHttpBinding. Currently I'm working on the error handling logic, implementing a custom error handler (IErrorHandler); the aim is to have it catch any uncaught exceptions thrown by operations and then return a JSON error object (including say an error code and error message - e.g. { "errorCode": 123, "errorMessage": "bla" }) back to the browser user along with an an HTTP code such as BadRequest, InteralServerError or whatever (anything other than 'OK' really). Here is the code I am using inside the ProvideFault method of my error handler: fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with Content-Type: application/json, however the status code is 'OK' instead of 'InternalServerError'. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var rmp = new HttpResponseMessageProperty(); rmp.StatusCode = System.Net.HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; //rmp.Headers.Add(HttpRequestHeader.ContentType, "application/json"); fault.Properties.Add(HttpResponseMessageProperty.Name, rmp); -- This returns with the correct status code, however the content-type is now XML. fault = Message.CreateMessage(version, "", errorObject, new DataContractJsonSerializer(typeof(ErrorMessage))); var wbf = new WebBodyFormatMessageProperty(WebContentFormat.Json); fault.Properties.Add(WebBodyFormatMessageProperty.Name, wbf); var response = WebOperationContext.Current.OutgoingResponse; response.ContentType = "application/json"; response.StatusCode = HttpStatusCode.InternalServerError; -- This returns with the correct status code and the correct content-type! The problem is that the http body now has the text 'Failed to load source for: http://localhost:7000/bla..' instead of the actual JSON data.. Any ideas? I'm considering using the last approach and just sticking the JSON in the HTTP StatusMessage header field instead of in the body, but this doesn't seem quite as nice?

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  • Running a Java daemon with a GWT front-end served by embedded Jetty

    - by BinaryMuse
    Greetings, coders, Background Info and Code I am trying to create a daemon-type program (e.g., it runs constantly, polling for things to do) that is managed by a GWT application (servlets in a WAR) which is in turn served by an embedded Jetty server (using a WebAppContext). I'm having problems making the GWT application aware of the daemon object. For testing things, I currently have two projects: The daemon and embedded Jetty server in one (EmbJetTest), and the GWT application in another (DefaultApp). This is the current state of the code: First, EmbJetTest creates an embedded Jetty server like so, using a ServletContextListener to inject the daemon object into the web application context: EmbJetTest.server = new Server(8080); // Create and start the daemon Daemon daemon = new Daemon(); Thread thread = new Thread(daemon); thread.start(); // war handler WebAppContext waContext = new WebAppContext(); waContext.setContextPath("/webapp"); waContext.setWar("./apps/DefaultApp.war"); waContext.addEventListener(new DaemonLoader(daemon)); // Add it to the server EmbJetTest.server.setHandler(waContext); EmbJetTest.server.setThreadPool(new QueuedThreadPool(10)); // Start the server; join() blocks until we shut down EmbJetTest.server.start(); EmbJetTest.server.join(); // Stop the daemon thread daemon.stopLoop(); Daemon is a very simple object with a couple properties, at the moment. DaemonLoader is the following ServletContextListener implementation: private Daemon daemon; public DaemonLoader(Daemon daemon) { this.daemon = daemon; } @Override public void contextDestroyed(ServletContextEvent arg0) { } @Override public void contextInitialized(ServletContextEvent arg0) { arg0.getServletContext().setAttribute("daemon", this.daemon); } Then, in one of my servlets in the GWT application, I have the following code: Daemon daemon = (Daemon) this.getServletContext().getAttribute("daemon"); However, when I visit localhost:8080/webapp/* and invoke the servlet, this code throws a ClassCastException, even though the classes are of the same type. This StackOverflow answer indicates that this is because the two classes are loaded with different classloaders. Question My question is twofold. Am I even on the right track here? Am I going about this completely the wrong way? Something tells me I am, but I can't think of another way to make the daemon available to both applications. Is there a better way to communicate with the daemon from the GWT application? Should the GWT app own the daemon and somehow start the daemon itself? The daemon needs to run even if no one visits the one of the GWT app's servlets--how could I do this? If I am on the right track, how can I get around the classloader issue? Thanks in advance.

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