Search Results

Search found 28627 results on 1146 pages for 'case statement'.

Page 678/1146 | < Previous Page | 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685  | Next Page >

  • grep from a log file to get count

    - by subodh1989
    I have to get certain count from files. The grep statement i am using is like this : counter_pstn=0 completed_count_pstn=0 rec=0 for rec in `(grep "merged" update_completed*.log | awk '{print $1}' | sed 's/ //g' | cut -d':' -f2)` do if [ $counter_pstn -eq 0 ] then completed_count_pstn=$rec else completed_count_pstn=$(($completed_count_pstn+$rec)) fi counter_pstn=$(($counter_pstn+1)) done echo "Completed Orders PSTN Primary " $completed_count_pstn But the log file contains data in this format : 2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged.2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged. 2500 rows merged. As a result , it is missing out the count of one merge(eg on line 4 of output).How do i modify the grep or use another function to get the count. NOTE that the 2500 number maybe for different logs. So we have to use "rows merged" pattern to get the count. i have tried -o ,-w grep options,but it is not working. Expected output from above data: 17500 Actual output showing : 15000

    Read the article

  • modified closure warning in ReSharper

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

    Read the article

  • Creating a join based on data from other tables...

    - by Workshop Alex
    I'm dealing with a database structure that can be defined as "illogical". It has about 100 different schema's with all different table structures per schema. Only one common factor is a "Version" table in each schema containing about 4 fields. (Thus, there are about 100 Version tables in the database.) There's also another table (view, actually) containing a list of all the schema's in the database that have a version table. I need a stored procedure that walks through all the schema's and selects all data from the Version table, adding the schema name as a fifth field to the result. Basically, this stored procedure is to return a list of all version records per schema. My idea: first walk through the schema list to create one new SQL statements that will JOIN all the schema.version tables into one SQL statement. Then I return the result of that query. How to do this? Or does anyone have a better suggestion? (No, redesigning the structure is NOT an option.)

    Read the article

  • Rails - Create if record doesn't exist or else update.....Whats Best way to do this?

    - by ChrisWesAllen
    Hi, I have a create statement for some models but its creating a record within a join table regardless if the record exist. Here is what my code looks like. @user = User.find(current_user) @event = Event.find(params[:id]) for interest in @event.interests @user.choices.create(:interest => interest, :score => 4) end The problem is it creates records no matter what. I would like it to create a record if it doesnt exist, if a record does exist I would just to it to take the attribute of the found record and add or subtract 1. So, I've been looking around and I see something called find_or_create_by. My question is what happens if it finds? Preferably if it finds,I would like to take the current :score attribute and +1. SO is it possible to find or create by id? I'm not sure what attribute I would find by since the model I'm looking at is a join model which only had id foreign keys and the score attribute. I tried @user.choices.find_or_create_by_user(:user => @user.id, :interest => interest, :score => 4) but got "undefined method `find_by_user'".....ANy ideas or help?

    Read the article

  • Optimize Duplicate Detection

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background This is an optimization problem. Oracle Forms XML files have elements such as: <Trigger TriggerName="name" TriggerText="SELECT * FROM DUAL" ... /> Where the TriggerText is arbitrary SQL code. Each SQL statement has been extracted into uniquely named files such as: sql/module=DIAL_ACCESS+trigger=KEY-LISTVAL+filename=d_access.fmb.sql sql/module=REP_PAT_SEEN+trigger=KEY-LISTVAL+filename=rep_pat_seen.fmb.sql I wrote a script to generate a list of exact duplicates using a brute force approach. Problem There are 37,497 files to compare against each other; it takes 8 minutes to compare one file against all the others. Logically, if A = B and A = C, then there is no need to check if B = C. So the problem is: how do you eliminate the redundant comparisons? The script will complete in approximately 208 days. Script Source Code The comparison script is as follows: #!/bin/bash echo Loading directory ... for i in $(find sql/ -type f -name \*.sql); do echo Comparing $i ... for j in $(find sql/ -type f -name \*.sql); do if [ "$i" = "$j" ]; then continue; fi # Case insensitive compare, ignore spaces diff -IEbwBaq $i $j > /dev/null # 0 = no difference (i.e., duplicate code) if [ $? = 0 ]; then echo $i :: $j >> clones.txt fi done done Question How would you optimize the script so that checking for cloned code is a few orders of magnitude faster? System Constraints Using a quad-core CPU with an SSD; trying to avoid using cloud services if possible. The system is a Windows-based machine with Cygwin installed -- algorithms or solutions in other languages are welcome. Thank you!

    Read the article

  • How to prevent onclick statements from being executed?

    - by ryanli
    I want to use an event listener for preventing the onclick statement of a submit button, however, using event.preventDefault() doesn't work as intended. The code is like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script type="application/x-javascript"> function addListener() { document.getElementById("submit").addEventListener("click", function(ev) { alert("listener"); ev.preventDefault(); }, false); } </script> <title></title> </head> <body onload="addListener();"> <form id="form" method="post" target=""> <input type="submit" id="submit" onclick="alert('onclick')" value="test" /> </form> </body> </html> The expected behaviour is only "listener" will be alerted, but in practice (Firefox 3.7a5pre), "onclick" and "listener" are both alerted, in the given order. It seems that onclick is being executed before the listener, so event.preventDefault() doesn't work. Is there a way to prevent onclick from being executed?

    Read the article

  • How do I select column(s) by their "numeric" position in a table?

    - by DulcimerDude
    I am trying to select columns by their "x" position in the table. DBI my $example = $hookup->prepare(qq{SELECT This,That,Condition,"I also want COLUMN-10" FROM tbl LIMIT ? ?}); ###column_number=10 ordinal_position?? $example->execute('2','10') or die "Did not execute"; Is this possible or do I need to run another single select to just that column? One problem I encountered was with a col named "Condition". For some reason, when I tried to select Condition the execute would die. I never attempted but, What if the column name was SELECT? Another note is the table is 75 cols wide and I only need 50 of them. The Col names are pretty verbose so, I would like to just call them by their "position". This would also allow the col names to be changed in the future without having to change the select statement. I am quite the newbie so please explain any answers down to my level. Thanks for any assistance..

    Read the article

  • How to structure code with 2 methods, one after another, which throw the same two exceptions?

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, I have two methods, one called straight after another, which both throw the exact same 2 exceptions (IF an erroneous condition occurs, not stating that I'm getting exceptions). For this, should I write seperate try and catch blocks with the one statement in each try block and catch both exceptions (Both of which I can handle as I checked MSDN class library reference and there is something I can do, eg, re-open SqlConnection or run a query and not a stored proc which does not exist). So code like this: try { obj.Open(); } catch (SqlException) { // Take action here. } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // Take action here. } And likewise for the other method I call straight after. This seems like a very messy way of coding. The other way is to code with the exception variable (that is ommited as I am using AOP to log the exception details, using a class-level attribute). Doing this, this could aid me in finding out which method caused an exception and then taking action accordingly. Is this the best approach or is there another best practise altogether? I also assume that, as only these two methods are thrown, I do not need to catch Exception as that would be for an exception I cannot handle (causes way out of my control). Thanks

    Read the article

  • Redirection Still not working (updated on earlier question)

    - by NoviceCoding
    So earlier I asked this question: JQuery Login Redirect. Code Included The php file is sending the following: $return['error'] = false; $return['msg'] = 'You have successfully logged in!!'; I've tried all the suggestions, quoting the error on php and ajax end, 2 equals instead of 3, I've also tried DNE true which should be the same as an else statement: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#submit').click(function() { $('#waiting').show(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#reg').hide(0); $('#message').hide(0); $.ajax({ type : 'POST', url : 'logina.php', dataType : 'json', data: { type : $('#typeof').val(), login : $('#login').val(), pass : $('#pass').val(), }, success : function(data){ $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#empty').show(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass((data.error === true) ? 'error' : 'success') .text(data.msg).show(500) if(data.error != true) window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php"); if (data.error === true) $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide() }, error : function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown) { $('#waiting').hide(500); $('#message').removeClass().addClass('error') .text("There was an Error. Please try again.").show(500); $('#reg').show(500); $('#empty').hide(); Recaptcha.reload(); } }); return false; }); And it still wont work. Any ideas on how to make a redirection work if login is successful and error returns false? Also while I am asking, can I put a .delay(3000) 3s at the end of window.location.replace("http://blahblah.com/usercp.php")?

    Read the article

  • C# Linq Select Problem in Method Chain.

    - by Gnought
    Note that the _src inherit IQueryable<U> and V inherit new(); I wrote the following statement, there is no syntax error. IQueryable<V> a = from s in _src where (s.Right - 1 == s.Left) select new V(); But if i re-wrote it as follows, the Visual Studio editor complains an error in the "Select" IQueryable<V> d = _src.Where(s => s.Right - 1 == s.Left).Select(s=> new V()); The Error is: The type arguments cannot be inferred from the usage. Try specifying the type arguments explicitly. Candidates are: System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Collections.Generic.IEnumerable<U>, System.Func<U,V>) (in class Enumerable) System.Linq.IQueryable<V> Select<U,V>(this System.Linq.IQueryable<U>, System.Linq.Expressions.Expression<System.Func<U,V>>) (in class Queryable) Could anyone explain this phenomenon, and what the solution is to fix the error?

    Read the article

  • Creating a sort function for a generic list

    - by Andrey
    I have a method for sorting generic lists by the object fields: public static IQueryable<T> SortTable<T>(IQueryable<T> q, string sortfield, bool ascending) { var p = Expression.Parameter(typeof(T), "p"); if (typeof(T).GetProperty(sortfield).PropertyType == typeof(int?)) { var x = Expression.Lambda<Func<T, int?>>(Expression.Property(p, sortfield), p); if (ascending) q = q.OrderBy(x); else q = q.OrderByDescending(x); } else if (typeof(T).GetProperty(sortfield).PropertyType == typeof(int)) { var x = Expression.Lambda<Func<T, int>>(Expression.Property(p, sortfield), p); if (ascending) q = q.OrderBy(x); else q = q.OrderByDescending(x); } else if (typeof(T).GetProperty(sortfield).PropertyType == typeof(DateTime)) { var x = Expression.Lambda<Func<T, DateTime>>(Expression.Property(p, sortfield), p); if (ascending) q = q.OrderBy(x); else q = q.OrderByDescending(x); } // many more for every type return q; } Is there any way I can collapse those ifs to a single generic statement? The main problem is that for the part Expression.Lambda<Func<T, int>> I am not sure how to write it generically.

    Read the article

  • Pass the return type as a parameter in java?

    - by jonderry
    I have some files that contain logs of objects. Each file can store objects of a different type, but a single file is homogeneous -- it only stores objects of a single type. I would like to write a method that returns an array of these objects, and have the array be of a specified type (the type of objects in a file is known and can be passed as a parameter). Roughly, what I want is something like the following: public static <T> T[] parseLog(File log, Class<T> cls) throws Exception { ArrayList<T> objList = new ArrayList<T>(); FileInputStream fis = new FileInputStream(log); ObjectInputStream in = new ObjectInputStream(fis); try { Object obj; while (!((obj = in.readObject()) instanceof EOFObject)) { T tobj = (T) obj; objList.add(tobj); } } finally { in.close(); } return objList.toArray(new T[0]); } The above code doesn't compile (there's an error on the return statement, and a warning on the cast), but it should give you the idea of what I'm trying to do. Any suggestions for the best way to do this?

    Read the article

  • How to reserve public API to internal usage in .NET?

    - by mark
    Dear ladies and sirs. Let me first present the case, which will explain my question. This is going to be a bit long, so I apologize in advance :-). I have objects and collections, which should support the Merge API (it is my custom API, the signature of which is immaterial for this question). This API must be internal, meaning only my framework should be allowed to invoke it. However, derived types should be able to override the basic implementation. The natural way to implement this pattern as I see it, is this: The Merge API is declared as part of some internal interface, let us say IMergeable. Because the interface is internal, derived types would not be able to implement it directly. Rather they must inherit it from a common base type. So, a common base type is introduced, which would implement the IMergeable interface explicitly, where the interface methods delegate to respective protected virtual methods, providing the default implementation. This way the API is only callable by my framework, but derived types may override the default implementation. The following code snippet demonstrates the concept: internal interface IMergeable { void Merge(object obj); } public class BaseFrameworkObject : IMergeable { protected virtual void Merge(object obj) { // The default implementation. } void IMergeable.Merge(object obj) { Merge(obj); } } public class SomeThirdPartyObject : BaseFrameworkObject { protected override void Merge(object obj) { // A derived type implementation. } } All is fine, provided a single common base type suffices, which is usually true for non collection types. The thing is that collections must be mergeable as well. Collections do not play nicely with the presented concept, because developers do not develop collections from the scratch. There are predefined implementations - observable, filtered, compound, read-only, remove-only, ordered, god-knows-what, ... They may be developed from scratch in-house, but once finished, they serve wide range of products and should never be tailored to some specific product. Which means, that either: they do not implement the IMergeable interface at all, because it is internal to some product the scope of the IMergeable interface is raised to public and the API becomes open and callable by all. Let us refer to these collections as standard collections. Anyway, the first option screws my framework, because now each possible standard collection type has to be paired with the respective framework version, augmenting the standard with the IMergeable interface implementation - this is so bad, I am not even considering it. The second option breaks the framework as well, because the IMergeable interface should be internal for a reason (whatever it is) and now this interface has to open to all. So what to do? My solution is this. make IMergeable public API, but add an extra parameter to the Merge method, I call it a security token. The interface implementation may check that the token references some internal object, which is never exposed to the outside. If this is the case, then the method was called from within the framework, otherwise - some outside API consumer attempted to invoke it and so the implementation can blow up with a SecurityException. Here is the modified code snippet demonstrating this concept: internal static class InternalApi { internal static readonly object Token = new object(); } public interface IMergeable { void Merge(object obj, object token); } public class BaseFrameworkObject : IMergeable { protected virtual void Merge(object obj) { // The default implementation. } public void Merge(object obj, object token) { if (!object.ReferenceEquals(token, InternalApi.Token)) { throw new SecurityException("bla bla bla"); } Merge(obj); } } public class SomeThirdPartyObject : BaseFrameworkObject { protected override void Merge(object obj) { // A derived type implementation. } } Of course, this is less explicit than having an internally scoped interface and the check is moved from the compile time to run time, yet this is the best I could come up with. Now, I have a gut feeling that there is a better way to solve the problem I have presented. I do not know, may be using some standard Code Access Security features? I have only vague understanding of it, but can LinkDemand attribute be somehow related to it? Anyway, I would like to hear other opinions. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • mod_rewrite failing on uppercase dir

    - by user1855277
    I have a very basic mod_rewrite in a .htaccess file which I'm sure worked last time I looked at it, but now it is doing strange things with the case of the REQUEST_URI. It's intended purpose is to rewrite sub-domains to a given file, passing the subdomain as a php var of bnurl. Here is my code: RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI}= "RSDEV/location/" [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} . RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} !^www\. [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.co\.uk(:80)? [NC] RewriteRule ^RSDEV/location/$ RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=%1&accesstype=new [NC,L] Now, typing joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/RSDEV/location/ into my web browser comes back with the response "The requested URL /RSDEV/location/ was not found on this server" which is a correct statement because /RSDEV/location/ is not a real directory, but why did it not rewrite to RSDEV/newmain.php?bnurl=joebloggs&accesstype=new as expected? Now, the really strange thing here is that if I enter joebloggs.mydomain.co.uk/rsdev/location/ into my browser (note rsdev is now lowercase), it correctly rewrites as expected. The script newmain.php is in dir RSDEV (uppercase) so if it was going to fail, I would have expected it to fail the other way round with the lowercase rsdev. As you can see, I have [NC] on each line. Is this my mod_rewrite code failing or some other mystical server force keeping me up all night?

    Read the article

  • Consecutive calls/evaulations in a form?

    - by Dave
    Hey guys, simple question... Working with XLISP to write a program, but I've seemed to run into a simple fundamental problem that I can't seem to work around: perhaps someone has a quick fix. I'm trying to write an if statement who's then-clause evaluates multiple forms and returns the value of the last. In example: (setq POSITION 'DINING-ROOM) (defun LOOK (DIRECTION ROOM) ... ) (defun SETPOS (ROOM) ... ) (defun WHERE () ... ) (defun MOVE (DIRECTION) (if (not(equal nil (LOOK DIRECTION POSITION))) ; If there is a room in that direction ( ; Then-block: Go to that room. Return where you are. (SETPOS (LOOK DIRECTION ROOM)) (WHERE) ) ( ; Else-block: Return error (list 'CANT 'GO 'THERE) ) ) The logical equivalent intended is: function Move (Direction) { if(Look(Direction, Room) != null) { SetPos(Look(Direction,Room)); return Where(); } else { return "Can't go there"; } } (Apologies for the poor web-formatting.) The problem I have is with: ( (SETPOS (LOOK DIRECTION ROOM)) (WHERE) ) I simply want to return the evaluation of WHERE, but I need to execute the SETPOS function first. XLISP doesn't like the extra parentheses: if I remove the outer set, my WHERE list becomes my else (I don't want that). If I remove the sets around SETPOS and WHERE, it treats WHERE like an argument for SETPOS; I also don't want that. So, how do I simply evaluate the first, then the second and then return the values of the last evaluated?

    Read the article

  • ref and out parameters in C# and cannot be marked as variant.

    - by Water Cooler v2
    What does the statement mean? From here ref and out parameters in C# and cannot be marked as variant. 1) Does it mean that the following can not be done. public class SomeClass<R, A>: IVariant<R, A> { public virtual R DoSomething( ref A args ) { return null; } } 2) Or does it mean I cannot have the following. public delegate R Reader<out R, in A>(A arg, string s); public static void AssignReadFromPeonMethodToDelegate(ref Reader<object, Peon> pReader) { pReader = ReadFromPeon; } static object ReadFromPeon(Peon p, string propertyName) { return p.GetType().GetField(propertyName).GetValue(p); } static Reader<object, Peon> pReader; static void Main(string[] args) { AssignReadFromPeonMethodToDelegate(ref pReader); bCanReadWrite = (bool)pReader(peon, "CanReadWrite"); Console.WriteLine("Press any key to quit..."); Console.ReadKey(); } I tried (2) and it worked.

    Read the article

  • LINQ To SQL Dynamic Select

    - by mcass20
    Can someone show me how to indicate which columns I would like returned at run-time from a LINQ To SQL statement? I am allowing the user to select items in a checkboxlist representing the columns they would like displayed in a gridview that is bound to the results of a L2S query. I am able to dynamically generate the WHERE clause but am unable to do the same with the SELECT piece. Here is a sample: var query = from log in context.Logs select log; query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp > CustomReport.ReportDateStart); query = query.Where(Log => Log.Timestamp < CustomReport.ReportDateEnd); query = query.Where(Log => Log.ProcessName == CustomReport.ProcessName); foreach (Pair filter in CustomReport.ExtColsToFilter) { sExtFilters = "<key>" + filter.First + "</key><value>" + filter.Second + "</value>"; query = query.Where(Log => Log.FormattedMessage.Contains(sExtFilters)); }

    Read the article

  • How to output multiple rows from an SQL query using the mysqli object

    - by Jonathan
    Assuming that the mysqli object is already instantiatied (and connected) with the global variable $mysql, here is the code I am trying to work with. class Listing { private $mysql; function getListingInfo($l_id = "", $category = "", $subcategory = "", $username = "", $status = "active") { $condition = "`status` = '$status'"; if (!empty($l_id)) $condition .= "AND `L_ID` = '$l_id'"; if (!empty($category)) $condition .= "AND `category` = '$category'"; if (!empty($subcategory)) $condition .= "AND `subcategory` = '$subcategory'"; if (!empty($username)) $condition .= "AND `username` = '$username'"; $result = $this->mysql->query("SELECT * FROM listing WHERE $condition") or die('Error fetching values'); $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; return $info; } } there are several hundred listings in the db and when I call $result-fetch_array() it places in an array the first row in the db. however when I try to call the object, I can't seem to access more than the first row. for instance: $listing_row = new Listing; while ($listing = $listing_row-getListingInfo()) { echo $listing[0]; } this outputs an infinite loop of the same row in the db. Why does it not advance to the next row? if I move the code: $this->listing = $result->fetch_array() or die('could not create object'); foreach ($this->listing as $key => $value) : $info[$key] = stripslashes(html_entity_decode($value)); endforeach; if I move this outside the class, it works exactly as expected outputting a row at a time while looping through the while statement. Is there a way to write this so that I can keep the fetch_array() call in the class and still loop through the records?

    Read the article

  • Fade in an HTML element with raw javascript over 500 miliseconds.

    - by Juan C. Rois
    Hello everybody, Once again I find myself stuck by something that I just don't understand. Any help would be appreciated. I'm working on a modal window, you click something and the background is masked and a modal window shows some content. I have a div with "display:none" and "opacity:0", and when the user triggers the modal, this div will overlay everything and have certain transparency to it. In my mind, what I need to do is: Set the opacity Perform a "for" loop that will check if the opacity is less than the desired value. Inside this loop, perform a "setInterval" to gradually increment the value of the opacity until it reaches the desired value. When the desired value has been reached, perform an "if" statement to "clearInterval". My code so far is as follows: var showMask = document.getElementById('mask'); function fireModal(){ showMask.style.opacity = 0; showMask.style.display = 'block'; var getCurrentOpacity = showMask.style.opacity; var increaseOpacity = 0.02; var finalOpacity = 0.7; var intervalIncrement = 20; var timeLapse = 500; function fadeIn(){ for(var i = getCurrentOpacity; i < finalOpacity; i++){ setInterval(function(){ showMask.style.opacity = i; }, intervalIncrement) } if(getCurrentOpacity == finalOpacity){ clearInterval(); } } fadeIn(); } As you all can guess, this is not working, all it does is set the opacity to "1" without gradually fade it in. Thanks in advance for your help.

    Read the article

  • How to analyze evenness/oddness of numbers in Java

    - by appreciation
    I have to write a program which reads in 3 numbers (using input boxes), and depending on their values it should write one of these messages: All 3 numbers are odd OR All 3 numbers are even OR 2 numbers are odd and 1 is even OR 1 number is odd and 2 are even This is what I have so far: import javax.swing.JOptionPane; class program3 { public static void main(String[] args) { String num1 = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter first number."); String num2 = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter second number."); String num3 = JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Enter third number."); boolean newnum1 = Integer.parseInt(num1); boolean newnum2 = Integer.parseInt(num2); boolean newnum3 = Integer.parseInt(num3); } } This is where I am stuck. I am not sure how to use the MOD to display the messages. I think I have to also use an IF Statement too...But I'm not too sure. Please help! :D

    Read the article

  • In RoR, is there an easy way to prevent the view from outputting <p> tags?

    - by dt
    I'm new to Ruby and Rails and I have a simple controller that shows an item from the database in a default view. When it is displaying in HTML it is outputting <p> tags along with the text content. Is there a way to prevent this from happening? I suppose if there isn't, is there at least a way to set the default css class for the same output in a statement such as this: <% @Items.each do |i| %> <%= i.itemname %> <div class="menu_body"> <a href="#">Link-1</a> </div> <% end %> So the problem is with the <%= i.itemname %> part. Is there a way to stop it from wrapping it in its own <p> tags? Or set the css class for the output? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Prevent empty form input array from being posted?

    - by user355295
    Sorry if this has been answered somewhere; I'm not quite sure how to phrase the problem to even look for help. Anyway, I have a form with three text input boxes, where the user will input three song titles. I have simple PHP set up to treat those input boxes as an array (because I may want, say, 100 song titles in the future) and write the song titles to another document. <form method="post"> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <input type="text" name="songs[]" value="" /> <button type="submit" name="submit" value="submit">Submit</button> </form> <?php if (isset($_POST['submit'])) { $open = fopen("test.html", "w"); if(empty($_POST['songs'])) { } else { $songs = $_POST['songs']; foreach($songs as $song) { fwrite($open, $song."<br />"); }; }; }; ?> This correctly writes the song titles to an external file. However, even when the input boxes are empty, the external file will still be written to (just with the <br />'s). I'd assumed that the if statement would ensure nothing would happen if the boxes were blank, but that's obviously not the case. I guess the array's not really empty like I thought it was, but I'm not really sure what implications that comes with. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? (And again, I am clueless when it comes to PHP, so forgive me if this has been answered a million times before, if I described it horribly, etc.)

    Read the article

  • how to change the image on click from database

    - by iosdev
    In my application i having multiple image in sq lite database,Since i want to change to the next image on button click,Here my code, -(void)Readthesqlitefile:(NSInteger *)sno { sqlite3 *database;//database object NSString *docpath=[self doccumentspath];//get sqlite path const char *ch=[docpath UTF8String];//string to constant char UTF8string main part to connect DB if (sqlite3_open(ch, &database)==SQLITE_OK) { const char *chstmt="SELECT * FROM animal where rowid= = %d",sno; sqlite3_stmt *sqlstmt;//to execute the above statement if (sqlite3_prepare_v2(database, chstmt, -1, &sqlstmt, NULL)==SQLITE_OK) { while (sqlite3_step(sqlstmt)==SQLITE_ROW) { const char *Bname=(char *)sqlite3_column_text(sqlstmt, 0); //converting const char to nsstring NSString *Bndname=[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%s",Bname]; NSLog(@"Brand Names=%@",Bndname); lb1.text=[NSString stringWithFormat:Bndname]; NSUInteger legnt=sqlite3_column_bytes(sqlstmt, 1); if (legnt>0) { NSData *dt=[NSData dataWithBytes:sqlite3_column_blob(sqlstmt, 1) length:legnt]; clsimg=[UIImage imageWithData:dt];//converting data to image imager.image=clsimg; } else { clsimg=nil; } } } sqlite3_finalize(sqlstmt); } sqlite3_close(database); } Button click function -(IBAction)changenext { int j; for (j=1; j<10; j++) { [self Readthesqlitefile:j]; } } its is not working pls help me to solve it out?

    Read the article

  • IS operator behaving a bit strangely

    - by flockofcode
    1) According to my book, IS operator can check whether expression E (E is type) can be converted to the target type only if E is either a reference conversion, boxing or unboxing. Since in the following example IS doesn’t check for either of the three types of conversion, the code shouldn’t work, but it does: int i=100; if (i is long) //returns true, indicating that conversion is possible l = i; 2) a) B b; A a = new A(); if (a is B) b = (B)a; int i = b.l; class A { public int l = 100; } class B:A { } The above code always causes compile time error “Use of unassigned variable”. If condition a is B evaluates to false, then b won’t be assigned a value, but if condition is true, then it will. And thus by allowing such a code compiler would have no way of knowing whether the usage of b in code following the if statement is valid or not ( due to not knowing whether a is b evaluates to true or false) , but why should it know that? Intsead why couldn’t runtime handle this? b) But if instead we’re dealing with non reference types, then compiler doesn’t complain, even though the code is identical.Why? int i = 100; long l; if (i is long) l = i; thank you

    Read the article

  • Rails exit controller after rendering

    - by codysehl
    I have an action in my controller that I am having trouble with. This is my first rails app, so I'm not sure of the best practices surrounding rails. I have a model called Group and a few actions that go in it's controller. I have written a test that should cause the controller to render an error in JSON because of an invalid Group ID. Instead of rendering and exiting, it looks like the controller is rendering and continuing to execute. Test test 'should not remove group because of invalid group id' do post(:remove, {'group_id' => '3333'}) response = JSON.parse(@response.body) assert_response :success assert_equal 'Success', response['message'] end Controller action # Post remove # group_id def remove if((@group = Group.find_by_id(params[:group_id])) == nil) render :json => { :message => "group_id not found" } end @group.destroy if(!Group.exists?(@group)) render :json => { :message => "Success" } else render :json => { :errors => @group.errors.full_messages } end end In the controller, the first if statement executes: render :json => { :message => "group_id not found" } but @group.destroy is still being executed. This seems counter-intuitive to me, I would think that the render method should exit the controller. Why is the controller not exiting after render is called? The purpose of this block of code is to recover gracefully when no record can be found with the passed in ID. Is this the correct way of doing something like this?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 674 675 676 677 678 679 680 681 682 683 684 685  | Next Page >