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  • Bing Maps - Auto update location binding of pushpins

    - by abp
    Hi I'm using the Bing Maps control to display a series of custom pushpins, representing objects which are constantly moving around and changing state. Using databinding the various properties for the objects are being updated as they should, but for some reason this doesn't apply to their locations. I have the map bound to an ObservableCollection as such: <UserControl.Resources> <DataTemplate x:Key="PushpinTemplate"> <v:CustomPushpin /> </DataTemplate> </UserControl.Resources> ... <m:Map Name="map"> <m:MapItemsControl ItemTemplate="{StaticResource PushpinTemplate}" ItemsSource="{Binding Objects}" /> </m:Map> ...and in CustomPushpin: <UserControl ... m:MapLayer.Position="{Binding Location}" m:MapLayer.PositionOrigin="BottomCenter" mc:Ignorable="d" d:DesignHeight="126" d:DesignWidth="85"> Like all other properties, the Location of the individual objects are implemented using INotifyPropertyChanged. private Location _location; public Location Location { get { return _location; } set { _location = value; OnPropertyChanged("Location"); } } When the map is moving, either because of panning or zooming, the objects move, but othersize not. I can't quite figure if I'm doing something wrong here, or if it's a problem with the Bing Maps control. Any thought?

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  • Managed bean property value not set to null

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I'm new to JSF, so this question might be strange. I have an inputText component's value bound to managed bean's property of type Float. I need to set property to null when inputText field is empty, not to 0 value. It's not done by default, so I added converter with the following method implemented: public Object getAsObject(FacesContext arg0, UIComponent arg1, String arg2) throws ConverterException { if (StringUtils.isEmpty(arg2)) { return null; } float result = Float.parseFloat(arg2); if (result == 0) { return null; } return result; } I registered converter, and assigned it to inputText component. I logged arg2 argument, and also logged return value from getAsObject method. By my log I can see that it returns null value. But, I also log setter property on backing bean and argument is 0 value, not null as expected. To be more precise, it is setter property is called twice, once with null argument, second time with 0 value argument. It still sets backing bean value to 0. How can I set value to null? Thanks in advance.

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  • Java: how to have try-catch as conditional in for-loop?

    - by HH
    I know how to solve the problem by comparing size to an upper bound but I want a conditional that look for an exception. If an exception occur in conditinal, I want to exit. import java.io.*; import java.util.*; public class listTest{ public static void main(String[] args){ Stack<Integer> numbs=new Stack<Integer>(); numbs.push(1); numbs.push(2); for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& !numbs.isEmpty(); ){ System.out.println(j); } // I waited for 1 to be printed, not 2. } } Some Errors javac listTest.java listTest.java:10: illegal start of expression for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& ^ listTest.java:10: illegal start of expression for(int count=0,j=0;try{((j=numbs.pop())<999)}catch(Exception e){break;}&& ^

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  • [Cocoa] Placing an NSTimer in a separate thread

    - by ndg
    I'm trying to setup an NSTimer in a separate thread so that it continues to fire when users interact with the UI of my application. This seems to work, but Leaks reports a number of issues - and I believe I've narrowed it down to my timer code. Currently what's happening is that updateTimer tries to access an NSArrayController (timersController) which is bound to an NSTableView in my applications interface. From there, I grab the first selected row and alter its timeSpent column. From reading around, I believe what I should be trying to do is execute the updateTimer function on the main thread, rather than in my timers secondary thread. I'm posting here in the hopes that someone with more experience can tell me if that's the only thing I'm doing wrong. Having read Apple's documentation on Threading, I've found it an overwhelmingly large subject area. NSThread *timerThread = [[[NSThread alloc] initWithTarget:self selector:@selector(startTimerThread) object:nil] autorelease]; [timerThread start]; -(void)startTimerThread { NSAutoreleasePool *pool = [[NSAutoreleasePool alloc] init]; NSRunLoop *runLoop = [NSRunLoop currentRunLoop]; activeTimer = [[NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1.0 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer:) userInfo:nil repeats:YES] retain]; [runLoop run]; [pool release]; } -(void)updateTimer:(NSTimer *)timer { NSArray *selectedTimers = [timersController selectedObjects]; id selectedTimer = [selectedTimers objectAtIndex:0]; NSNumber *currentTimeSpent = [selectedTimer timeSpent]; [selectedTimer setValue:[NSNumber numberWithInt:[currentTimeSpent intValue]+1] forKey:@"timeSpent"]; } -(void)stopTimer { [activeTimer invalidate]; [activeTimer release]; }

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  • WPF : Command routing for Keyboard shortcuts.

    - by Sprotty
    Basically I want to create a keyboard shortcut which is valid within the scope of a window, and not just enabled when focus is within the control that binds it. in more detail.... I have a window which has 3 controls a toolbar textbox Custom Control The toolbar has a button bound to the Command CustomCommands.CmdA and linked to 'Ctrl-T'. My Custom Control can process CmdA. When I run the app and click on my custom control CmdA is enabled and works fine. Also Ctrl-T cause the command to fire. However when I select the text box, my custom command CmdA becomes disabled. I can rectify this by setting the command target for CmdA's button. Now when I select the textBox, CmdA is still enabled. But the Keyboard shortcut Ctrl-T does nothing. Is there any easy way to change the scope of keyboard shortcuts? Or do I need to catch the keypress somewhere lower down, and work out which Command it relates to and route it myself (if so is there a framework within which to do this?) Many Thanks Simon

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  • How to (unit-)test data intensive PL/SQL application

    - by doom2.wad
    Our team is willing to unit-test a new code written under a running project extending an existing huge Oracle system. The system is written solely in PL/SQL, consists of thousands of tables, hundreds of stored procedures packages, mostly getting data from tables and/or inserting/updating other data. Our extension is not an exception. Most functions return data from a quite complex SELECT statementa over many mutually bound tables (with a little added logic before returning them) or make transformation from one complicated data structure to another (complicated in another way). What is the best approach to unit-test such code? There are no unit tests for existing code base. To make things worse, only packages, triggers and views are source-controlled, table structures (including "alter table" stuff and necessary data transformations are deployed via channel other than version control). There is no way to change this within our project's scope. Maintaining testing data set seems to be impossible since there is new code deployed to the production environment on weekly basis, usually without prior notice, often changing data structure (add a column here, remove one there). I'd be glad for any suggestion or reference to help us. Some team members tend to be tired by figuring out how to even start for our experience with unit-testing does not cover PL/SQL data intensive legacy systems (only those "from-the-book" greenfield Java projects).

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  • jQuery: bind generated elements

    - by superUntitled
    Hello, thank you for taking time to look at this. I am trying to code my very first jQuery plugin and have run into my first problem. The plugin is called like this <div id="kneel"></div> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#kneel").zod(1, { }); </script> It takes the first option (integer), and returns html content that is dynamically generated by php. The content that is generated needs to be bound by a variety of functions (such as disabling form buttons and click events that return ajax data. The plugin looks like this (I have included the whole plugin in case that matters)... (function( $ ){ $.fn.zod = function(id, options ) { var settings = { 'next_button_text': 'Next', 'submit_button_text': 'Submit' }; return this.each(function() { if ( options ) { $.extend( settings, options ); } // variables var obj = $(this); /* these functions contain html elements that are generated by the get() function below */ // disable some buttons $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', true); // once an option is selected, enable the button $('input[type="radio"]').live('click', function(e) { $('div.bario').children('.button').attr('disabled', false); }) // when a button is clicked, return some data $('.button').bind('click', function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $.getJSON('/returnSomeData.php, function(data) { $('.text').html('<p>Hello: ' + data + '</p>'); }); // generate content, this is the content that needs binding... $.get('http://example.com/script.php?id='+id, function(data) { $(obj).html(data); }); }); }; })( jQuery ); The problem I am having is that the functions created to run on generated content are not binding to the generated content. How do I bind the content created by the get() function?

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  • Closures in Ruby

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I'm kind of new to Ruby and some of the closure logic has me a confused. Consider this code: array = [] for i in (1..5) array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] This makes sense to me because i is bound outside the loop, so the same variable is captured by each trip through the loop. It also makes sense to me that using an each block can fix this: array = [] (1..5).each{|i| array << lambda {i}} array.map{|f| f.call} => [1, 2, 3, 4, 5] ...because i is now being declared separately for each time through. But now I get lost: why can't I also fix it by introducing an intermediate variable? array = [] for i in 1..5 j = i array << lambda {j} end array.map{|f| f.call} => [5, 5, 5, 5, 5] Because j is new each time through the loop, I'd think a different variable would be captured on each pass. For example, this is definitely how C# works, and how -- I think-- Lisp behaves with a let. But in Ruby not so much. It almost looks like = is aliasing the variable instead of copying the reference, but that's just speculation on my part. What's really happening?

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  • HTML5 audio object doesn't play on iPad (when called from a setTimeout)

    - by Dan Halliday
    I have a page with a hidden <audio> object which is being started and stopped using a custom button via javascript. (The reason being I want to customise the button, and that drawing an audio player seems to destroy rendering performance on iPad anyway). A simplified example (in coffeescript): // Works fine on all browsers constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element The audio plays fine when triggered from a function bound to a click event, but I actually want an animation to complete before the file plays so I put .play() inside a setTimeout. However I just can't get this to work: // Will not play on iPad constructor: (@_button, @_audio) -> @_button.on 'click', @_play // Bind button's click event with jQuery _play: (e) => setTimeout (=> // Declare a 300ms timeout @_audio[0].play() // Call play() on audio element ), 300 I've checked that @_audio (this._audio) is in scope and that its play() method exists. Why doesn't this work on iPad?

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  • Conditional column values in NSTableView?

    - by velocityb0y
    I have an NSTableView that binds via an NSArrayController to an NSMutableArray. What's in the array are derived classes; the first few columns of the table are bound to properties that exist on the base class. That all works fine. Where I'm running into problem is a column that should only be populated if the row maps to one specific subclass. The property that column is meant to display only exists in that subclass, since it makes no sense in terms of the base class. The user will know, from the first two columns, why the third column's cell is populated/editable or not. The binding on the third column's value is on arrangedObjects, with a model path of something like "foo.name" where foo is the property on the subclass. However, this doesn't work, as the other subclasses in the hierarchy are not key-value compliant for foo. It seems like my only choice is to have foo be a property on the base class so everybody responds to it, but this clutters up the interfaces of the model objects. Has anyone come up with a clean design for this situation? It can't be uncommon (I'm a relative newcomer to Cocoa and I'm just learning the ins and outs of bindings.)

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  • How can I get a iterable resultset from the database using pdo, instead of a large array?

    - by Tchalvak
    I'm using PDO inside a database abstraction library function query. I'm using fetchAll(), which if you have a lot of results, can get memory intensive, so I want to provide an argument to toggle between a fetchAll associative array and a pdo result set that can be iterated over with foreach and requires less memory (somehow). I remember hearing about this, and I searched the PDO docs, but I couldn't find any useful way to do that. Does anyone know how to get an iterable resultset back from PDO instead of just a flat array? And am I right that using an iterable resultset will be easier on memory? I'm using Postgresql, if it matters in this case. . . . The current query function is as follows, just for clarity. /** * Running bound queries on the database. * * Use: query('select all from players limit :count', array('count'=>10)); * Or: query('select all from players limit :count', array('count'=>array(10, PDO::PARAM_INT))); **/ function query($sql_query, $bindings=array()){ DatabaseConnection::getInstance(); $statement = DatabaseConnection::$pdo->prepare($sql_query); foreach($bindings as $binding => $value){ if(is_array($value)){ $statement->bindParam($binding, $value[0], $value[1]); } else { $statement->bindValue($binding, $value); } } $statement->execute(); // TODO: Return an iterable resultset here, and allow switching between array and iterable resultset. return $statement->fetchAll(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC); }

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  • WPF Usercontrol with textboxes

    - by benPearce
    I have a WPF user control with a number of textboxes, this is hosted on a WPF window. The textboxes are not currently bound but I cannot type into any of them. I have put a breakpoint in the KeyDown event of one of the textboxes and it hits it fine and I can see the key I pressed. The textboxes are declared as <TextBox Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="4" x:Name="PostcodeSearch" Style="{StaticResource SearchTextBox}" KeyDown="PostcodeSearch_KeyDown"/> The style is implemented as <Style x:Key="SearchTextBox" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Setter Property="Control.Margin" Value="2"/> <Setter Property="Height" Value="20"/> <Setter Property="Width" Value="140"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Left"/> </Style> I am hoping I have overlooked something obvious. EDIT: I only added the KeyDown and KeyUp events just to prove that the keys presses were getting through. I do not have any custom functionality.

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  • problem configure JBoss to work with JNDI(2)

    - by Spiderman
    in continuation to the question from last week: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2828237/problem-configure-jboss-to-work-with-jndi I'm trying to bind datasource in JBoss and use it in my application. In my struggling, I already managed to avoid the javax.naming.NameNotFoundException by: 1. using in java new InitialContext().lookup(connection); instead of new JndiObjectFactoryBean().setJndiName(connection); 2. changing the connection name from: 'jndi-name' to 'java:jndi-name' Now the problem is that the datasouce that I get from the lookup is null. I created the datsource file: <datasources> <local-tx-datasource> <jndi-name>bilby</jndi-name> <connection-url>jdbc:oracle:myURL</connection-url> <driver-class>oracle.jdbc.OracleDriver </driver-class> <user-name>myUsername</user-name> <password>myPassword</password> <exception-sorter-class- name>org.jboss.resource.adapter.jdbc.vendor.OracleExceptionSorter</exception-sorter-class-name> <metadata> <type-mapping>Oracle9i</type-mapping> </metadata> </local-tx-datasource> </datasources> and put it under \server\default\deploy\oracle-ds.xml I get during runtime the line: 18:37:56,560 INFO [ConnectionFactoryBindingService] Bound ConnectionManager 'jb oss.jca:service=DataSourceBinding,name=bilby' to JNDI name 'java:bilby' So my question is - why do I get null as my datasource???

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  • Including partial views when applying the Mode-View-ViewModel design pattern

    - by Filip Ekberg
    Consider that I have an application that just handles Messages and Users I want my Window to have a common Menu and an area where the current View is displayed. I can only work with either Messages or Users so I cannot work simultaniously with both Views. Therefore I have the following Controls MessageView.xaml UserView.xaml Just to make it a bit easier, both the Message Model and the User Model looks like this: Name Description Now, I have the following three ViewModels: MainWindowViewModel UsersViewModel MessagesViewModel The UsersViewModel and the MessagesViewModel both just fetch an ObserverableCollection<T> of its regarding Model which is bound in the corresponding View like this: <DataGrid ItemSource="{Binding ModelCollection}" /> The MainWindowViewModel hooks up two different Commands that have implemented ICommand that looks something like the following: public class ShowMessagesCommand : ICommand { private ViewModelBase ViewModel { get; set; } public ShowMessagesCommand (ViewModelBase viewModel) { ViewModel = viewModel; } public void Execute(object parameter) { var viewModel = new ProductsViewModel(); ViewModel.PartialViewModel = new MessageView { DataContext = viewModel }; } public bool CanExecute(object parameter) { return true; } public event EventHandler CanExecuteChanged; } And there is another one a like it that will show Users. Now this introduced ViewModelBase which only holds the following: public UIElement PartialViewModel { get { return (UIElement)GetValue(PartialViewModelProperty); } set { SetValue(PartialViewModelProperty, value); } } public static readonly DependencyProperty PartialViewModelProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("PartialViewModel", typeof(UIElement), typeof(ViewModelBase), new UIPropertyMetadata(null)); This dependency property is used in the MainWindow.xaml to display the User Control dynamicly like this: <UserControl Content="{Binding PartialViewModel}" /> There are also two buttons on this Window that fires the Commands: ShowMessagesCommand ShowUsersCommand And when these are fired, the UserControl changes because PartialViewModel is a dependency property. I want to know if this is bad practice? Should I not inject the User Control like this? Is there another "better" alternative that corresponds better with the design pattern? Or is this a nice way of including partial views?

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  • How to add Flex 4 spark List Item custom properties

    - by maik3l
    I'm trying to make a simple flash application providing interface for taking tests as a high school assignment. One of the requirements is to use an XML file as data source.Now, having a List component bound to the XML file with questions consisting of data such as question body, question type (ie. single choice, multiple choice, open, image etc.) and possible answers (where applicable), I was wondering if I could add some additional data (and what is the best possible way to do so) to each question upon its transfer to the List component. I am trying to achieve two main goals with this: firstly, to mark the questions to which an answer has already been given, like with such code in ItemRenderer class: <s:Label color="{data.color}" text="{data.label}"/> where data.color would be set whenever the user gives an answer to a question. Secondly, while at it, I thought of such possibility as a great way to store answers given to particular questions. In this case, the Class of the answer object would have been Object, since there has to be many type of questions (where the answer could also be a Bitmap for example). This is a question of both how to do it and if it seems a good idea at all (and if no, if there is a better way?), because I am quite new to the whole Flash Builder and Flex thing and I am not really accustomed to all the possibilities and best practices. Thanks!

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  • Hi, how can I use the check box group in JSF to select the items of database and generate a list in

    - by Alexzzy
    I am using netbean and JSF to do my project, recently I encountered a problem that confused me. The question: There is a set of check box groups that identify the artifacts from the nature, creator, period and school. And all the artifacts are stored in a table of database. I would like to select the items by nature or creator or something like that, and generate a list for the items selected in the next page. There are some tables of database for artifacts, nature, creators and school, and the type_ID(this is the nature), creator_ID, school_ID are the foreign keys in artifacts table. I have bound the tables with respective check boxes. For example, if I want to select nature is painting, creator is Davinci, school is Italian Renaissance, and then I click Search button. It will go to next page that generate a list of artifacts about all Italian Renaissance paintings created by Davinci. How can I do that? I was confused by JSF, but I have to use JSF to do my project. Anyone can help me plz??? Thank you very very much !!!!!!!

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  • File not found - MOSS 2007

    - by isimple
    i received the following error on some Sharepoint Pages File Not Found. at System.Reflection.Assembly._nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.nLoad(AssemblyName fileName, String codeBase, Evidence assemblySecurity, Assembly locationHint, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean throwOnFileNotFound, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(AssemblyName assemblyRef, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.InternalLoad(String assemblyString, Evidence assemblySecurity, StackCrawlMark& stackMark, Boolean forIntrospection) at System.Reflection.Assembly.Load(String assemblyString) at System.Web.Configuration.CompilationSection.LoadAssembly(String assemblyName, Boolean throwOnFail) at System.Web.UI.TemplateParser.LoadAssembly(String assemblyName, Boolean throwOnFail) at System.Web.UI.MainTagNameToTypeMapper.ProcessTagNamespaceRegistrationCore(TagNamespaceRegisterEntry nsRegisterEntry) at System.Web.UI.MainTagNameToTypeMapper.ProcessTagNamespaceRegistration(TagNamespaceRegisterEntry nsRegisterEntry) at System.Web.UI.BaseTemplateParser.ProcessDirective(String directiveName, IDictionary directive) at System.Web.UI.TemplateControlParser.ProcessDirective(String directiveName, IDictionary directive) at System.Web.UI.PageParser.ProcessDirective(String directiveName, IDictionary directive) at System.Web.UI.TemplateParser.ParseStringInternal(String text, Encoding fileEncoding) I used Assembly Binding Log Viewer Tool (fuslogvw.exe) to locate the assembly which is not bound and the assembly seems to be Microsoft.Sharepoint.Intl.Resources.dll. This assemlby is not being located by the application resulting in 'File not Found' error. Can anyone guide me how to solve this?

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  • Request-local storage in ASP.NET (accessible to the code from IHttpModule implementation)

    - by IgorK
    I need to have some object hanging around between two events I'm interested in: PreRequestHandlerExecute (where I create an instance of my object and want to save it) and PostRequestHandlerExecute (where I want to get to the object). After the second event the object is not needed for my purposes and should be discarded either by storage or my explicit action. So the ideal context where my object should be stored is per request (with guaranteed no sharing issues when different threads are serving requests... or processes/servers :) ) Take into account that actual implementation I can do is being made from a HttpModule and is supposed to be a pluggable solution for already written web apps (so the option to provide some state using static/instance variables in Global.asax doesn't look good - I will have to modify Global.asax on every web application). Cache seems to be too broad for this use. I tried to see whether httpContext.Application (of type HttpApplicationState) is good for me or not, but cannot get whether it is exactly per HttpApplication instance or not (AFAIK you can have several instances of HttpApplications used on different threads and therefore serving several requests simultaneously - then using storage shared between threads will not work correctly; otherwise I would use it because one HttpApplication instance serves exactly one request at a time). Something could be done with storing state on the HttpModule instances if I know for sure that it's exactly bound 1-to-1 with every HttpApplication instance running (but again I need a proof that HttpApplication instance is 1-to-1 with my HttpModule's instance). Any valuable and reputable links on these topics are much appreciated... Would be great to find something particularly well-suited for per request situation (because otherwise I may end up with something ulgy... probably either some 'broader' scoped storage and some hacks to have different keys in the storage for different requests, OR using a thread-local thing and in this way commit to the theory that IIS/ASP.NET will not ever serve first event from one thread and the second event from the other thread and so on)

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  • Internal loop only runs once, containing loop runs endlessly

    - by Mark
    noob question I'm afraid. I have a loop that runs and rotates the hand of a clock and an internal loop that checks the angle of the hand if it is 90, 180, 270 and 360. On these 4 angles the corresponding div is displayed and its siblings removed. The hand loops and loops eternally, which is what I want, but the angle check only runs the loop once through the whole 360. As the hand passes through the angles it is correctly displaying and removing divs but is doesn't continue after the first revolution of the clock. I've obviously messed up somewhere and there is bound to be a more efficient way of doing all this. I am using jQueryRotate.js for my rotations. Thanks for your time. jQuery(document).ready(function(){ var angle = 0; setInterval(function(){ jQuery("#hand").rotate(angle); function movehand(){ if (angle == 90) { jQuery("#intervention").fadeIn().css("display","block").siblings().css("display","none"); } else if (angle == 180) { jQuery("#management").fadeIn().css("display","block").siblings().css("display","none"); } else if (angle == 270) { jQuery("#prevention").fadeIn().css("display","block").siblings().css("display","none"); } else if (angle == 360) { jQuery("#reaction").fadeIn().css("display","block").siblings().css("display","none"); } else {movehand;} }; movehand(); angle+=1; },10); });

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  • Can I change the binding source to another source in XAML?

    - by No hay Problema
    Hi guys, I want to do a very simple thing, can you point me on the right direction? I want to change the source in XAML to another object source, let me put you an example: I have a Listview, bound to a "Model A", it has many properties, but one is called "Total". This property is not shown on the View Each ListviewItem has its own source (ItemsSource), BUT, one of the fields should show "Total" from "Model A" Caveat: I am implementing MVVM, so the "Model A" is assigned as a VM DataSource, XAML knows nothing about it. So, in my perfect world the XAML should look like this: <GridViewColumn Header="Total" Width="150"> <GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Label Content="{Binding Source=<The source of LISTVIEW> Path=Total}"/> </DataTemplate> </GridViewColumn.CellTemplate> </GridViewColumn> I have tried RelativeSource but that points me to the XAML object, I want the source of it, is it possible? Thanks

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  • SQLAlchemy sessions - DetachedInstanceError?

    - by benjaminhkaiser
    I have a function that attempts to take a list of usernames, look each one up in a user table, and then add them to a membership table. If even one username is invalid, I want the entire list to be rolled back, including any users that have already been processed. I thought that using sessions was the best way to do this but I'm running into a DetachedInstanceError: DetachedInstanceError: Instance <Organization at 0x7fc35cb5df90> is not bound to a Session; attribute refresh operation cannot proceed Full stack trace is here. The error seems to trigger when I attempt to access the user (model) object that is returned by the query. From my reading I understand that it has something to do with there being multiple sessions, but none of the suggestions I saw on other threads worked for me. Code is below: def add_members_in_bulk(organization_eid, users): """Add users to an organization in bulk - helper function for add_member()""" """Returns "success" on success and id of first failed student on failure""" session = query_session.get_session() session.begin_nested() users = users.split('\n') for u in users: try: user = user_lookup.by_student_id(u) except ObjectNotFoundError: session.rollback() return u if user: membership.add_user_to_organization( user.entity_id, organization_eid, '', [] ) session.flush() session.commit() return 'success' here's the membership.add_user_to_organization: def add_user_to_organization(user_eid, organization_eid, title, tag_ids): """Add a User to an Organization with the given title""" user = user_lookup.by_eid(user_eid) organization = organization_lookup.by_eid(organization_eid) new_membership = OrganizationMembership( organization_eid=organization.entity_id, user_eid=user.entity_id, title=title) new_membership.tags = [get_tag_by_id(tag_id) for tag_id in tag_ids] crud.add(new_membership) and here is the lookup by ID query: def by_student_id(student_id, include_disabled=False): """Get User by RIN""" try: return get_query_set(include_disabled).filter(User.student_id == student_id).one() except NoResultFound: raise ObjectNotFoundError("User with RIN %s does not exist." % student_id)

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  • Regarding some Update Stored procedure

    - by Serenity
    I have two Tables as follows:- Table1:- ------------------------------------- PageID|Content|TitleID(FK)|LanguageID ------------------------------------- 1 |abc |101 |1 2 |xyz |102 |1 -------------------------------------- Table2:- ------------------------- TitleID|Title |LanguageID ------------------------- 101 |Title1|1 102 |Title2|1 ------------------------ I don't want to add duplicates in my Table1(Content Table). Like..there can be no two Pages with the same Title. What check do I need to add in my Insert/Update Stored Procedure ? How do I make sure duplicates are never added. I have tried as follows:- CREATE PROC InsertUpdatePageContent ( @PageID int, @Content nvarchar(2000), @TitleID int ) AS BEGIN IF(@PageID=-1) BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN INSERT INTO Table1(Content,TitleID) VALUES(@Content,@TitleID) END END ELSE BEGIN IF(NOT EXISTS(SELECT TitleID FROM Table1 WHERE LANGUAGEID=@LANGUAGEID)) BEGIN UPDATE Table1 SET Content=@Content,TitleID=@TitleID WHERE PAGEID=@PAGEID END END END Now what is happening is that it is inserting new records alright and won't allow duplicates to be added but when I update its giving me problem. On my aspx Page I have a drop down list control that is bound to DataSource that returns Table 2(Title Table) and I have a text box in which user types Page's content to be stored. When I update, like lets say I have a row in my Table 1 as shown above with PageID=1. Now when I am updating this row, like I didn't change the Title from the drop down and only changed Content in the text box, its not updating the record ..and when Stored procedure's Update Query does not execute it displays a Label that says "Page with this title exists already." So whenever I am updating an existing record that label is displayed on screen.How do I change that IF condition in my Update Stored procedure?? EDIT:- @gbn :: Will that IF condition work in case of update? I mean lets say I am updating the Page with TitleID=1, I changed its content, then when I update, it's gonna execute that IF condition and it still won't update coz TitleID=1 already exits!It will only update if TitleID=1 is not there in Table1. Isn't it? Guess I am getting confused. Please answer.Thanks.

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  • Why do .NET developers offer 32-bit/64-bit versions of .NET assemblies?

    - by Tyler
    Evey now and then I see both x86 and x64 versions of a .NET assembly. Consider the following web part for SharePoint. Why wouldn't the developer just offer a single version and have let the JIT compiler sort out the rest? When I see these kinds offering is it just that the developer decided to create a native image using a tool like ngen in order to avoid a JIT? Someone please help me out here, I feel like I'm missing something of note. Updated From what I got below, both x86 and x64 builds are offered because one or more of the following reasons: The developer wanted to avoid JITing and created a native image of his code, targeting a given architecture using a tool like ngen.exe. The assembly contains platform specific COM calls and so it makes no point to build it as AnyCPU. In these cases builds that target different platforms may contain different code. The assembly may contain Win32 calls using pinvoke which won't get remapped by a JIT and so the build should target the platform it is bound to.

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  • WPF - Extend ListView with checkable AND selectable ListViewItems

    - by Marks
    Hi there. I already read many examples on extending ListViews with checkboxes bound with IsSelected. But I want something more. I want a seperation between the checked and selected state, so i get a ListBox that has a single selected item, but can have multiple checked items. Unfortunately ListViewItem does not have a property for checked and I dont see a possibility to get the ListView to work with a custom CheckableListViewItem. Of course i could use a List of objects with a checked property as ItemSource, but I dont think thats a good way to go. Checked or not is a matter of the list or item-container, not of the object listed in it. Beside that I dont want all my classes like user, role, group to have counterparts like checkableUser, checkableRole and checkableGroup. The behaviour i want can be easyly accomblished for the UI with a <DataTemplate x:Key="CheckBoxCell"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <CheckBox /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> and a <GridViewColumn CellTemplate="{StaticResource CheckBoxCell}" Width="30"/> But without a binding on the checkbox i cant check if it is checked or not. Is there any way to accomplish something like that? The perfect solution for me would be to have listView1.SelectedItem, listView1.CheckedItems and maybe a listView1.UncheckedItems and of course listView1.CheckItem and listView1.UncheckItem. Thanks for any help.

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  • jQuery's draggable grid

    - by Art
    It looks like that the 'grid' option in the constructor of Draggable is relatively bound to the original coordinates of the element being dragged - so simply put, if you have three draggable divs with their top set respectively to 100, 200, 254 pixels relative to their parent: <div class="parent-div" style="position: relative;"> <div id="div1" class="draggable" style="top: 100px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div2" class="draggable" style="top: 200px; position: absolute;"></div> <div id="div3" class="draggable" style="top: 254px; position: absolute;"></div> </div> Adn all of them are getting enabled for dragging with 'grid' set to [1, 100]: draggables = $('.draggable'); $.each(draggables, function(index, elem) { $(elem).draggable({ containment: $('#parent-div'), opacity: 0.7, revert: 'invalid', revertDuration: 300, grid: [1, 100], refreshPositions: true }); }); Problem here is that as soon as you drag div3, say, down, it's top is increased by 100, moving it to 354px instead of being increased by just mere 46px (254 + 46 = 300), which would get it to the next stop in the grid - 300px, if we are looking at the parent-div as a point of reference and "grid holder". I had a look at the draggable sources and it seem to be an in-built flaw - they just do all the calculations relative to the original position of the draggable element. I would like to avoid monkey-patching the code of draggable library and what I am really looking for here is the way how to make the Draggable calculate the grid positions relative to containing parent. However if monkey-patching is unavoidable, I guess I'll have to live with it. Thanks!

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