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• Difficulty Inserting from HTML form into MySQL (created in Workbench)

  - by Chaya Cooper

  I created a MySQL database in Workbench 5.2.35 for purposes of storing and using information submitted in html forms but I'm having difficulty inserting records from the html form. The relevant SQL script was saved as Demo2.sql, the schema is C2F, and the table is customer_info. I wasn't sure if that was the problem, so I tried replacing the database name (Demo2) with the schema name, but that didn't work either. My html file includes: form action="insert.php" method="post" The insert.php file states: ?php $con = mysql_connect("localhost","root","****"); if (!$con) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } mysql_select_db("Demo2", $con); $sql="INSERT INTO customer_info(fname, lname, user, password, reminder, answer) VALUES ('$_POST[fname]','$_POST[lname]','$_POST[user]','$_POST[password]','$_POST[reminder]','$_POST[answer]')"; if (!mysql_query($sql,$con)) { die('Error: ' . mysql_error()); } echo "1 record added"; mysql_close($con) ? I've also tried INSERT INTO c2f.customer_info(fname, lname, etc. and INSERT INTO 'c2f'.'customer_info'

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• If either one of both equals

  - by user1620028

  I have start and end dates which are stored in a database in this format: start date= 20121004 //4th October 2012 end date= 20121004 //16th November 2012 so I can use date format: $date = date("Ymd"); // returns: 20121004 to determine when to display and not display to repopulate my update input boxes I use: $start=(str_split($stdate,4));// START DATE: splits stored date into 2x4 ie: 20121209 = 2012 1209 $syr = $start[0];// re first half ie: 2012 which is the year $start2 = $start[1];//re second half ie: 1209 $start3=(str_split($start2,2));// splits second half date into 2x2 ie: 1209 = 12 09 $smth = $start3[0]; // first half = month ie: 12 $sday = $start3[1]; // second half = day ie: 09 $expiry=(str_split($exdate,4)); ///SAME AGAIN FOR EXPIRY DATE ... $xyr = $expiry[0]; $expiry2 = $expiry[1]; $expiry3=(str_split($expiry2,2)); $xmth = $expiry3[0]; $xday = $expiry3[1]; which works fine but I need to repopulate the input boxes for the month showing the date in the database like this <option value="01">January</option`> using if ($smth==01):$month='January'; endif; if ($xmth==01):$month='January'; endif; // if the start and/or expiry month number = 01 display $month as January if ($smth==02):$smonth='February'; endif; if ($xmth==02):$smonth='February'; endif; if ($smth==03):$month='March'; endif; <select name="stmonth" class="input"> <option value="<?=$smth?>"><?=$month?></option> ... </select> is there an easier way to display IF EITHER ONE EQUALS rather than having to write the same line twice once for each $smth AND $xmth ? re: if ($smth **and or** $xmth ==01):$month='January'; endif;

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• In sync query calls, one query causing other query to run slower. Why?

  - by Irchi

  Sorry for the long question, but I think this is an interesting situation and I couldn't find any explanations for it: I was involved in optimization of an application that performed a large number of sequential SELECT and INSERT statements on a single dedicated SQL Server database. The process needs to INSERT a large number of records into a table, but for each of them there should be some value mappings, which performed using SELECT statements on another table in the same database. For a specific execution, it took 90 minutes to run. I used a profiler (JProfiler - the application is Java-based) to determine how much time does each part of the application take. It yields that 60% of the time was spent on INSERT method calls, and almost 20% on SELECT calls (the rest distributed in other parts). After some trials, I came to this situation: I commented out the INSERT query that took 60% of the time. I was expecting for the total run time to be around 35 minutes, as I have removed 60% of the 90 minutes. But the whole process took the same 90 minutes (doing only SELECTs and nothing else), but each SELECT took longer this time! Everything was running sync, there were no async calls. And there was only one single thread of execution. SELECT and INSERT queries are very simple, and don't have anything special, and they are on different tables, but on the same DB. I tested with both the DB on the application machine, and on a remote network machine. I can't think of any explanation for this, as the Profiler (Application profiler, not SQL Profiler) reported the changes in the method call times, and by removing INSERT statements SELECT statements took longer to run. Can anyone give me some kind of explanation of what could have happened? (there can't be cache / query optimization stuff, because the queries were run in sync, and in a single thread, and it was far from affecting the cache this much) I should note that the bottleneck of the speed was in SQL server, using most of the CPU time.

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• EF4 querying through the generations

  - by Hans Kesting

  I have a model withs Parents, Children and Grandchildren, in a many-to-many relationship. Using this article I created POCO classes that work fine, except for one thing I can't yet figure out. When I query the Parents or Children directly using LINQ, the SQL reflects the LINQ query (a .Count() executes a COUNT in the database and so on) - fine. The Parent class has a Children property, to access it's children. But (and now for the problem) this doesn't expose an IQueryable interface but an ICollection. So when I access the Children property on a particular parent all the Parent's Children are read. Even worse, when I access the Grandchildren (theParent.Children.SelectMany(child => child.GrandChildren).Count()) then for each and every child a separate request is issued to select it's grandchildren. Changing the type of the Children property from ICollection to IQueryable doesn't solve this. Apart from missing needed methods like Add() and Remove(), EF just doesn't recognize the property then. Are there correct ways (as in: low database interaction) of querying through children (and what are they)? Or is this just not possible?

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• How to create reference tables using fluent nhibernate

  - by Akk

  How can i create a 3 table schema from the following model classes. public class Product { public int Id {get; set;} public string Name {get; set;} public IList<Photo> Photos {get; set;} } public class Photo { public int Id {get; set;} public string Path {get; set;} } I want to create the following table structure in the database: Product ------- Id Name ProductPhotos ------------- ProductId (FK Products.Id) PhotoId (FK Photos.Id) Photos ------ Id Path How i can express the above Database Schema using Fluent NHibernate? I could only manage the following the Mapping but this does not get me the 3rd Photo ref table. public class ProductMap : ClassMap<Product> { public CityMap() { Id(x => x.Id); Map(x => x.Name); Table("Products"); HasMany(x => x.Photos).Table("ProductPhotos").KeyColumn("ProductId"); } }

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• can't create partial objects with accepts_nested_attributes_for

  - by Isaac Cambron

  I'm trying to build a form that allows users to update some records. They can't update every field, though, so I'm going to do some explicit processing (in the controller for now) to update the model vis-a-vis the form. Here's how I'm trying to do it: Family model: class Family < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :people, dependent: :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :people, allow_destroy: true, reject_if: ->(p){p[:name].blank?} end In the controller def check edited_family = Family.new(params[:family]) #compare to the one we have in the db #update each person as needed/allowed #save it end Form: = form_for current_family, url: check_rsvp_path, method: :post do |f| = f.fields_for :people do |person_fields| - if person_fields.object.user_editable = person_fields.text_field :name, class: "person-label" - else %p.person-label= person_fields.object.name The problem is, I guess, that Family.new(params[:family]) tries to pull the people out of the database, and I get this: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in RsvpsController#check Couldn't find Person with ID=7 for Family with ID= That's, I guess, because I'm not adding a field for family id to the nested form, which I suppose I could do, but I don't actually need it to load anything from the database for this anyway, so I'd rather not. I could also hack around this by just digging through the params hash myself for the data I need, but that doesn't feel a slick. It seems nicest to just create an object out of the params hash and then work with it. Is there a better way? How can I just create the nested object?

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• creating tables in ruby-on-rails 3 through migrations?

  - by fayer

  im trying to understand the process of creating tables in ruby-on-rails 3. i have read about migrations. so i am supposed to create tables by editing in the files in: Database Migrations/migrate/20100611214419_create_posts Database Migrations/migrate/20100611214419_create_categories but they were generated by: rails generate model Post name:string description:text rails generate model Category name:string description:text does this mean i have to use "rails generate model" command everytime i want to create a table? what if i create a migration file but want to add columns. do i create another migration file for adding those or do i edit the existing migration file directly? the guide told me to add a new one, but here is the part i dont understand. why would i add a new one? cause then the new state will be dependent of 2 migration files. in symfony i just edit a schema.yml file directly, there are no migration files with versioning and so on. im new to RoR and want to get the picture of creating tables. thanks

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• Why is it possible to enumerate a LinqToSql query after calling Dispose() on the DataContext?

  - by DanM

  I'm using the Repository Pattern with some LinqToSql objects. My repository objects all implement IDisposable, and the Dispose() method does only thing--calls Dispose() on the DataContext. Whenever I use a repository, I wrap it in a using person, like this: public IEnumerable<Person> SelectPersons() { using (var repository = _repositorySource.GetNew<Person>(dc => dc.Person)) { return repository.GetAll(); } } This method returns an IEnumerable<Person>, so if my understanding is correct, no querying of the database actually takes place until Enumerable<Person> is traversed (e.g., by converting it to a list or array or by using it in a foreach loop), as in this example: var persons = gateway.SelectPersons(); // Dispose() is fired here var personViewModels = ( from b in persons select new PersonViewModel { Id = b.Id, Name = b.Name, Age = b.Age, OrdersCount = b.Order.Count() }).ToList(); // executes queries In this example, Dispose() gets called immediately after setting persons, which is an IEnumerable<Person>, and that's the only time it gets called. So, a couple questions: How does this work? How can a disposed DataContext still query the database for results when I walk the IEnumerable<Person>? What does Dispose() actually do? I've heard that it is not necessary (e.g., see this question) to dispose of a DataContext, but my impression was that it's not a bad idea. Is there any reason not to dispose of it?

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• PHP login, getting wrong count value from query / fetch array

  - by Chris

  Hello, *EDIT*Thanks to the comments below it has been figured out that the problem lies with the md5, without everything works as it should. But how do i implent the md5 then? I am having some troubles with the following code below to login. The database and register system are already working. The problem lies that it does not find any result at all in the query. IF the count is 0 it should redirect the user to a secured page. But this only works if i write count = 0, but this should be 0 , only if the user name and password is found he should be directed to the secure (startpage) of the site after login. For example root (username) root (password) already exists but i cannot seem to properly login with it. <?php session_start(); if (!empty($_POST["send"])) { $username = ($_POST["username"]); $password = (md5($_POST["password"])); $count = 0; $con = mysql_connect("localhost" , "root", ""); mysql_select_db("testdb", $con); $result = mysql_query("SELECT name, password FROM user WHERE name = '".$username."' AND password = '".$password."' ") or die("Error select statement"); $count = mysql_num_rows($result); if($count > 0) // always goes the to else, only works with >=0 but then the data is not found in the database, hence incorrect { $row = mysql_fetch_array($result); $_SESSION["username"] = $row["name"]; header("Location: StartPage.php"); } else { echo "Wrong login data, please try again"; } mysql_close($con); } ?>

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• WPF Databinding With A Collection Object

  - by Randster

  Argh, although I've been googling, I really would appreciate it if someone could break my problem down as all the code examples online are confusing me more than assisting (perhaps it's just late)... I have a simple class as defined below: public class Person { int _id; string _name; public Person() { } public int ID { get { return _id; } set { _id = value; } } public string Name { get { return _name; } set { _name = value; } } } that is stored in a database, and thru a bit more code I put it into an ObservableCollection object to attempt to databind in WPF later on: public class People : ObservableCollection<Person> { public People() : base() { } public void Add(List<Person> pListOfPeople) { foreach (Person p in pListOfPeople) this.Add(p); } } In XAML, I have myself a ListView that I would like to populate a ListViewItem (consisting of a textblock) for each item in the "People" object as it gets updated from the database. I would also like that textblock to bind to the "Name" property of the Person object. I thought at first that I could do this: lstPeople.DataContext = objPeople; where lstPeople is my ListView control in my XAML, but that of course does nothing. I've found TONS of examples online where people through XAML create an object and then bind to it through their XAML; but not one where we bind to an instantiated object and re-draw accordingly. Could someone please give me a few pointers on: A) How to bind a ListView control to my instantiated "People" collection object? B) How might I apply a template to my ListView to format it for the objects in the collection? Even links to a decent example (not one operating on an object declared in XAML please) would be appreciated. Thanks for your time.

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• JPA 2.0 Provider Hibernate Spring MVC 3.0

  - by user558019

  Dear All i have very strange problem we are using jpa 2.0 with hibernate and spring 3.0 mvc annotations based Database generated through JPA DDL is true and MySQL as Database; i will provide some refference classes and then my porblem. public abstract class Common implements serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; @ManyToOne @JoinColumn private Address address; //with all getter and setters //as well equal and hashCode } public class Parent extends Common{ private String name; @OneToMany(cascade = {CascadeType.MERGE,CascadeType.PERSIST}, mappedBy = "parent") private List<Child> child; //setters and rest of class } public class child extends Common{ //some properties with getter/setters } public class Address implements Serializable{ @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "id", updatable = false) private Long id; private String street; //rest of class with get/setter } as in code you can see that parents and child classes extends Common class so both have address property and id , the problem occurs when change the address refference in parent class it reflect same change in all child objects in list and if change address refference in child class then on merge it will change address refference of parent as well i am not able to figure out is it is problem of jpa or hibernate or spring thanks in advance

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• Generating a zend form with dynamic data?

  - by meder

  I need to access my session and based on the session property I need to grab stuff from the database to use as options in my dropdown. $_SESSION is: [sess_name] => Array( [properties] => Array( 1=> Hotel A, 2=> Hotel B ), [selected] => 1 ) I need to grab Hotel A from selected, and then access all accounts under Hotel A from the database: id title hotel_id ------------------------------ 1 Hotel A Twitter Account 1 2 Hotel B Facebook Account 2 3 Hotel A Facebook Account 1 I need ids 1 and 3 because my hotel_id is 1 in the context of: $this->addElement( 'select', 'account', array( 'multioptions' => $NEED_IT_HERE )); Here's my query / session grabbing code: $cs = new Zend_Session_Namespace( SESS_NAME ); $model = new Model_DbTable_Social; $s = " SELECT social_accounts.* FROM social_accounts LEFT JOIN social_media_outlets ON social_media_outlets.id = social_accounts.property WHERE social_accounts.property=".(int)$cs->selectedclient; I have this code in my form page, but I need to move it into my model now.

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• PHP Session doesn't get read in next page after login validation, Why?

  - by NetStar

  I have a web site and when my users login it takes them to verify.php (where it connects to the DataBase and matches email and password to the user input and if OK puts client data into sessions and take the client to /memberarea/index.php ELSE back to login page with message "Invalid Email or password!") <?php ob_start(); session_start(); $email=$_POST['email']; $pass=md5($_POST['pass']); include("conn.php"); // connects to Database $sql="SELECT * FROM `user` WHERE email='$email' AND pass='$pass'"; $result=mysql_query($sql); $new=mysql_fetch_array($result); $_SESSION['fname']=$new['fname']; $_SESSION['lname']=$new['lname']; $_SESSION['email1']=$new['email1']; $_SESSION['passwrd']=$new['passwrd']; $no=mysql_num_rows($result); if ($no==1){ header('Location:memberarea/index.php'); }else { header("Location:login.php?m=$msg"); //msg="Invalid Login" } ?> then after email id and password is verified it takes them to ` /memberarea/index.php (This is where the problem happens.) where in index.php it checks if a session has been created in-order to block hackers to enter member area and sends them back to the login page. <? session_start(); isset($_SESSION['email'])` && `isset($_SESSION['passwrd'])` The problem is the client gets verified in verify.php (the code is above) In varify.php only after I put ob_start(); ontop of session_start(); It moves on to /memberarea/index.php , If I remove ob_start() It keeps the client on the verify.php page and displays error header is alredy SENT. after I put ob_start() it goes in to /memberarea/index.php but the session is blank, so it goes back to the login page and displays the error ($msg) "Invalid Login" which I programed to display. Can anyone tell me why the session cant pass values from verify.php to /memberarea/index.php

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• login/logout problem in PHP

  - by user356170

  i have a question. I have a website in which i am giving security like login id and password( as usual). No what i want is that, 1) I don't want to allow a single user to login in different machine at the same time. 2) For this i am using a column in database which is keeping the current status of user(i.e. loging/logout). I am allowing user to login only when has session has not closed and status is login. 3) So my problem is that when i am logging out manually. it is closing the session as well as updating the database with status "logout". 4) but when i am closing the window from Cross buttonat top right corner. it is closing the ssion but table data is still "login". so later on i can't be able to login into the same user. 5) So how could i solve this problem. Please help me!

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• Need help managing MySql connections

  - by David Jenings

  I'm having trouble finding a clear explanation of connection pooling. I'm building an app using the .NET connector I downloaded from mysql.com. The app only needs one db connection but will be running simultaneously on about 6 machines on my network. Normally, I'd create the connection at startup and just leave it. But I'm seeing lots of posts from people who say that's bad practice. Also I'm concerned about timeouts. My app will run 24/7 and there may be extended periods without database activity. I'm leaning toward the following: using (MySqlConnection conn = new MySqlConnection(connStr)) { conn.Open(); // use connection } But I'm not sure I understand what's going on in the background. Is this actually closing the connection and allowing gc to kill the object, or is there a built in pooling behavior that preserves the object and redelivers it the next time I try to create one? I certainly don't want the app reauthenticating across the network every time I hit the database. Can anyone offer me some advise?

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• Create 2nd tables and add data

  - by Tyler Matema

  I have this task from school, and I am confuse and lost on how I got to do this. So basically I have to create 2 tables to the database but I have to created from php. I have created the first table, but not the second one for some reason. And then, I have to populate first and second tables with 10 and 20 sample records respectively, populate, does it mean like adding more fake users? if so is it like the code shown below? *I got error on the populating second part as well Thank you so much for the help. <?php $host = "host"; $user = "me"; $pswd = "password"; $dbnm = "db"; $conn = @mysqli_connect($host, $user, $pswd, $dbnm); if (!$conn) die ("<p>Couldn't connect to the server!<p>"); $selectData = @mysqli_select_db ($conn, $dbnm); if(!$selectData) { die ("<p>Database Not Selected</p>"); } //1st table $sql = "CREATE TABLE IF NOT EXISTS `friends` ( `friend_id` INT NOT NULL auto_increment, `friend_email` VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, `password` VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL, `profile_name` VARCHAR(30) NOT NULL, `date_started` DATE NOT NULL, `num_of_friends` INT unsigned, PRIMARY KEY (`friend_id`) )"; //2nd table $sqlMyfriends = "CREATE TABLE `myfriends` ( `friend_id1` INT NOT NULL, `friend_id2` INT NOT NULL, )"; $query_result1 = @mysqli_query($conn, $sql); $query_result2 = @mysqli_query($conn, $sqlMyfriends); //populating 1st table $sqlSt3="INSERT INTO friends (friend_id, friend_email, password, profile_name, date_started, num_of_friends) VALUES('NULL','[email protected]','123','abc','2012-10-25', 5)"; $queryResult3 = @mysqli_query($dbConnect,$sqlSt3) //populating 2nd table $sqlSt13="INSERT INTO myfriends VALUES(1,2)"; $queryResult13=@mysqli_query($dbConnect,$sqlSt13); mysqli_close($conn); ?>

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• Access to SQL Server 2005 from a non-domain machine using Windows authentication

  - by user304582

  Hi, I have a Windows domain within which a machine is running SQL Server 2005 and which is configured to support only Windows authentication. I would like to run a C# client application on a machine on the same network, but which is NOT on the domain, and access a database on the SQL Server 2005 instance. I thought that it would be a simple matter of doing something like this: string connectionString = "Data Source=server;Initial Catalog=database;User Id=domain\user;Password=password"; SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(connectionString); connection.Open(); However, this fails: the client-side error is: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Login failed for user 'domain\user' and the server-side error is: Error 18456, Severity 14, State 5 I have tried various things including setting integrated security to true and false, and \ instead of \ in the User Id, but without success. In general, I know that it possible to connect to the SQL Server 2005 instance from a non-domain machine (for example, I am working with a Linux-based application which happily does this), but I don't seem to be able to work out how to do it from a Windows machine. Help would be appreciated! Thanks, Martin

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• TV Guide script - getting current date programmes to show

  - by whitstone86

  This is part of my TV guide script: //Connect to the database mysql_connect("localhost","root","PASSWORD"); //Select DB mysql_select_db("mytvguide"); //Select only results for today and future $result = mysql_query("SELECT programme, channel, episode, airdate, expiration, setreminder FROM mediumonair where airdate >= now()"); The episodes show up, so there are no issues there. However, it's getting the database to find data that's the issue. If I add a record for a programme that airs today this should show: Medium showing on TV4 8:30pm "Episode" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 6:25pm "Episode 2" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 10:25pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 19th - 7:30pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 1:25am "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 6:25pm "Episode 4" Set Reminder but this shows instead: Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 6:25pm "Episode 2" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 18th - 10:25pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 19th - 7:30pm "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 1:25am "Episode 3" Set Reminder Medium showing on TV4 May 20th - 6:25pm "Episode 4" Set Reminder I almost have the SQL working; just not sure what the right code is here, to avoid the second mistake showing - as the record (which indicates a show currently airing) does not seem to work at present. Please can anyone help me with this? Thanks

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• Write out to text file using T-SQL

  - by sasfrog

  I am creating a basic data transfer task using TSQL where I am retrieving certain records from one database that are more recent than a given datetime value, and loading them into another database. This will happen periodically throughout the day. It's such a small task that SSIS seems like overkill - I want to just use a scheduled task which runs a .sql file. Where I need guidance is that I need to persist the datetime from the last run of this task, then use this to filter the records next time the task runs. My initial thought is to just store the datetime in a text file, and update (overwrite) it as part of the task each time it runs. I can read the file in without problems using T-SQL, but writing back out has got me stuck. I've seen plenty of examples which make use of a dynamically-built bcp command, which is then executed using xp_cmdshell. Trouble is, security on the server I'm deploying to precludes the use of xp_cmdshell. So, my question is, are there other ways to simply write a datetime value to a file using TSQL, or should I be thinking about a different approach? EDIT: happy to be corrected about SSIS being "overkill"...

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• Is MySQL caching occurring, how to fix it?

  - by rlb.usa

  I think that MySQL or ASP.NET is caching my queries. I edited my MySQL sproc to remove some parameters but it keeps saying that those parameters are missing. Here is what happens: ASP.NET app calls a MySQL stored procedure. Everything works perfect. I delete some parameters from the sproc and ASP.NET parameter list accordingly. All parameters exactly match in case and order from the new ASP.NET and MySQL sproc code Upon execution, it fails, saying : System.ArgumentException: Parameter 'deleted_parameter_foo_bar' not found in the collection. at MySql.Data.MySqlClient.MySqlParameterCollection ... I delete the sproc from the database, restart my browser, and reexecute the ASP.NET page. It says the same error, that the parameter is missing - but the sproc itself doesn't exist anymore. ( I know 100% that I am editing/deleting from the right database. ) How do I fix this or make it work again; I want it to use my new sproc instead of the old one ? _o

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• PHP foreach help

  - by sea_1987

  Hello I have an array that looks like this, Array ( [cfi_title] => Mr [cfi_firstname] => Firstname [cfi_surname] => Lastname [cfi_email] => [email protected] [cfi_subscribe_promotional] => [cfi_tnc] => [friendsName] => Array ( [0] => Firstname 1 [1] => Firstname 2 [2] => Firstname 3 ) [friendsEmail] => Array ( [0] => [email protected] [1] => [email protected] [2] => [email protected] ) [submit_form] => Submit ) My dilema is I need to save the values from the friendsName and friendsEmail arrays into a database, I know I can loop through them but how can I send the matching data, for example I need to save [friendsName][0] and friendsEmail][0] on the same row of database? I know I need to use a foreach but I just cannot figure out the logic.

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• WP_Insert_Post and GUID Issue [Wordpress]

  - by morningglory

  Hello, I have a posting form at my theme. I used wp_insert_post there. My code looks like this $post = array( 'ID' => '', 'post_author' => $post_author, 'post_category' => $post_category, 'post_content' => $post_content, 'post_title' => $post_title, 'post_status' => 'publish', ); $post_id = wp_insert_post($post); $fullpost = get_post($post_id); wp_redirect($fullpost->guid); Everything works fine. But when it's inserted to the database, at the GUID field, the entry format is like this permalinks_structure/id. So if my permalinks_structure is like /category/id , it become like http://www.example.com/uncategorized/1. So the problem is, if i post through wordpress admin panel, GUID of the post is http://www.example.com?p=1 . So my post database GUID become mess, because if i want to change permalinks_structure , the post which becomes from outside form will follow the structure. What I want to do is, I want to get the GUID like that I posted through admin panel which is http://www.example.com?p=1 How can i do it ? Please point me out. Thank you.

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• UIDs for data objects in MySQL

  - by Callash

  Hi there, I am using C++ and MySQL. I have data objects I want to persist to the database. They need to have a unique ID for identification purposes. The question is, how to get this unique ID? Here is what I came up with: 1) Use the auto_increment feature of MySQL. But how to get the ID then? I am aware that MySQL offers this "SELECT LAST_INSERT_ID()" feature, but that would be a race condition, as two objects could be inserted quite fast after each other. Also, there is nothing else that makes the objects discernable. Two objects could be created pretty much at the same time with exactly the same data. 2) Generate the UID on the C++ side. No dice, either. There are multiple programs that will write to and read from the database, who do not know of each other. 3) Insert with MAX(uid)+1 as the uid value. But then, I basically have the same problem as in 1), because we still have the race condition. Now I am stumped. I am assuming that this problem must be something other people ran into as well, but so far, I did not find any answers. Any ideas?

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• strange doctrine update problem

  - by larryzhao

  Hi, guys, I have a simple table like following: class SnookerCurrentInfo extends Doctrine_Record { public function setTableDefinition() { $this->hasColumn('current_frame_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_player_id', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score1', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); $this->hasColumn('current_score2', 'integer', 4, array('notnull' => 'false')); } public function setUp(){ $this->setTableName('snooker_current_info'); } } and I would like to keep only one entry in this table. So every time the value is changed I read the entry with id = 1 out and change the object and execute save. like the following: $info = Doctrine::getTable('SnookerCurrentInfo')->find(1); $info->current_frame_id = $jsonInfo['current_frame_id']; $info->current_player_id = $jsonInfo['current_player_id']; $info->current_score1 = $jsonInfo['current_score1']; $info->current_score2 = $jsonInfo['current_score2']; $info->save(); but the strange thing is, I try to make it clear. Let's say at first, the entry is (30, 1, 1, 0) and I switch player, so update the entry to (30, 2, 1, 0). and I switch the player back again, so the entry should be updated to (30, 1, 1, 0), but this is not affected to the database!! In the database, the entry still remains as (30, 2, 1, 0)!!!! But if after (30, 2, 1, 0), I update the score to (30, 2, 1, 1) and then switch the player back (30, 1, 1, 1) then this is ok. What's that? How should I deal with it? Thanks for a lot helping, really urgent!!

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• Data base design with Blob

  - by mmuthu

  Hi, I have a situation where i need to store the binary data into database as blob column. There are three different table exists in my database where in i need to store a blob data for each record. Not every record will have the blob data all the time. It is time and user based. The table one will have to store the *.doc files almost for all the record The table two will have to store the *.xml optionally. The table three will have to store images (not sure what is frequency, etc) Now my questions is whether it is a good idea to maintain a separate table to store the blob data pointing it to the respective table PK's (Yes, there will be no FK's and assuming program will maintain it). It will be some thing like below, BLOB|PK_ID|TABLE_NAME Alternatively, is it a good idea to keep the blob column in respective tables. As for as my application runtime is concerned, The table 2 will be read very frequently. Though the blob column will not be required. The table 2 record will gets deleted frequently. Similarly other blob data in respective table will not be accessed frequently. All of the blob content will be read on-demand basis. I'm thinking first approach will work better for me. What do you guys think? Btw, I'm using Oracle.

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