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  • Problem with DSL and Business Rules creation in Drools

    - by jillika iyer
    Hi, I am using Eclipse with the Drools plugin to create rules. I want to create business rules and main aim is to try and provide the user a set of options which he can use to create rules. For eg:If an Apple can have only 3 colors: I want to provide an option like a drop down so that the user can know before hand which are the options he can use in his rules. Is it possible? I am creating a dsl but unable to still provide the above functionality for a business rule. I am having an error implementing a basic dsl also. The code to add the dsl is as follows in my RuleRunner class() InputStream ruleSource = RuleRunner.class.getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream("/Rule1.dslr"); InputStream dslSource = RuleRunner.class.getClassLoader().getResourceAsStream("/sample-dsl.dsl"); //Load the rules , using DSL addRulesToThisPackage.addPackageFromDrl( new InputStreamReader(ruleSource),new InputStreamReader(dslSource)); I have both the sample-dsl .dsl and Rule1.dslr in my working directory. Error encountered at adding the dsl to the package (last line) Error stack: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NullPointerException at java.io.Reader.<init>(Unknown Source) at java.io.InputStreamReader.<init>(Unknown Source) at com.org.RuleRunner.loadRuleFile(RuleRunner.java:96) at com.org.RuleRunner.loadRules(RuleRunner.java:48) at com.org.RuleRunner.runStatelessRules(RuleRunner.java:109) at com.org.RulesTest.main(RulesTest.java:41) my dsl file has basic mapping as per the online documentations. The dsl rule I created is: expander sample-dsl.dsl rule "A status changes B status" when There is an A - has an address There is a B - has name then - print updated A and Aaddress End I have created DSL in eclipse. Is the code I added for it to be loaded to my package correct?? Or am I missing something???? It seems like my program is unable to find the dsl? Please help. Can you point me towards the right direction to create a user friendly business rule ?? Thanks. J

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  • How to select the first property with unknown name and first item from array in JSON

    - by Oscar Godson
    I actually have two questions, both are probably simple, but for some odd reason I cant figure it out... I've worked with JSON 100s of times before too! but here is the JSON in question: {"69256":{ "streaminfo":{ "stream_ID":"1025", "sourceowner_ID":"2", "sourceowner_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/sourceowner_avatar2.jpg", "sourceownertype_ID":"1", "stream_name":"Twitter", "streamtype":"Social media" "appsarray":[] }, "item":{ "headline":"Charboy", "main_image":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg", "summary":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner...", "nozzl_captured":"2010-05-12 23:02:12", "geoarray":[{ "state":"OR", "county":"Multnomah", "city":"Portland", "neighborhood":"Downtown", "zip":"97205", "street":"462 SW 11th Ave", "latitude":"45.5219", "longitude":"-122.682" }], "full_content":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.", "body_text":"ate a tomato and avocado for dinner tonight. such tasty foods. just enjoyable.", "author_name":"Charboy", "author_avatar":"http:\/\/content.nozzlmedia.com\/images\/author_avatar173212.jpg", "fulltext_url":"http:\/\/twitter.com\/charboy\/statuses\/13889868936", "leftovers":{ "twitter_id":"tag:search.twitter.com,2005:13889868936", "date":"2010-05-13T02:59:59Z", "location":"iPhone: 45.521866,-122.682262" }, "wordarray":{ "0":"ate", "1":"tomato", "2":"avocado", "3":"dinner", "4":"tonight", "5":"tasty", "6":"foods", "7":"just", "8":"enjoyable", "9":"Charboy", "11":"Twitter", "13":"state:OR", "14":"county:Multnomah, OR", "15":"city:Portland, OR", "16":"neighborhood:Downtown", "17":"zip:97205" } } } } Question 1: How do I loop through each item (69256) when the number is random? e.g. item 1 is 123, item2 is 646? Like, for example, a normal JSON feed would have something like: {'item':{'blah':'lorem'},'item':{'blah':'ipsum'}} the JS would be like console.log(item.blah) to return lorem then ipsum in a loop How do I do it when i dont know the first item of the object? Question 2: How do I select items from the geoarray object? I tried: json.test.item.geoarray.latitude and json.test.item.geoarray['latitude']

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  • Java: Implement own message queue (threadsafe)

    - by derMax
    The task is to implement my own messagequeue that is thread safe. My approach: public class MessageQueue { /** * Number of strings (messages) that can be stored in the queue. */ private int capacity; /** * The queue itself, all incoming messages are stored in here. */ private Vector<String> queue = new Vector<String>(capacity); /** * Constructor, initializes the queue. * * @param capacity The number of messages allowed in the queue. */ public MessageQueue(int capacity) { this.capacity = capacity; } /** * Adds a new message to the queue. If the queue is full, it waits until a message is released. * * @param message */ public synchronized void send(String message) { //TODO check } /** * Receives a new message and removes it from the queue. * * @return */ public synchronized String receive() { //TODO check return "0"; } } If the queue is empty and I call remove(), I want to call wait() so that another thread can use the send() method. Respectively, I have to call notifyAll() after every iteration. Question: Is that possible? I mean does it work that when I say wait() in one method of an object, that I can then execute another method of the same object? And another question: Does that seem to be clever?

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  • Return an empty collection when Linq where returns nothing

    - by ahsteele
    I am using the below statement with the intent of getting all of the machine objects from the MachineList collection (type IEnumerable) that have a MachineStatus of i. The MachineList collection will not always contain machines with a status of i. At times when no machines have a MachineStatus of i I'd like to return an empty collection. My call to ActiveMachines (which is used first) works but InactiveMachines does not. public IEnumerable<Machine> ActiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "a"); } } public IEnumerable<Machine> InactiveMachines { get { return Customer.MachineList .Where(m => m.MachineStatus == "i"); } } Edit Upon further examination it appears that any enumeration of MachineList will cause subsequent enumerations of MachineList to throw an exeception: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. Therefore, it doesn't matter if a call is made to ActiveMachines or InactiveMachines as its an issue with the MachineList collection. This is especially troubling because I can break calls to MachineList simply by enumerating it in a Watch before it is called in code. At its lowest level MachineList implements NHibernate.IQuery being returned as an IEnumerable. What's causing MachineList to lose its contents after an initial enumeration?

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  • linux new/delete, malloc/free large memory blocks

    - by brian_mk
    Hi folks, We have a linux system (kubuntu 7.10) that runs a number of CORBA Server processes. The server software uses glibc libraries for memory allocation. The linux PC has 4G physical memory. Swap is disabled for speed reasons. Upon receiving a request to process data, one of the server processes allocates a large data buffer (using the standard C++ operator 'new'). The buffer size varies depening upon a number of parameters but is typically around 1.2G Bytes. It can be up to about 1.9G Bytes. When the request has completed, the buffer is released using 'delete'. This works fine for several consecutive requests that allocate buffers of the same size or if the request allocates a smaller size than the previous. The memory appears to be free'd ok - otherwise buffer allocation attempts would eventually fail after just a couple of requests. In any case, we can see the buffer memory being allocated and freed for each request using tools such as KSysGuard etc. The problem arises when a request requires a buffer larger than the previous. In this case, operator 'new' throws an exception. It's as if the memory that has been free'd from the first allocation cannot be re-allocated even though there is sufficient free physical memory available. If I kill and restart the server process after the first operation, then the second request for a larger buffer size succeeds. i.e. killing the process appears to fully release the freed memory back to the system. Can anyone offer an explanation as to what might be going on here? Could it be some kind of fragmentation or mapping table size issue? I am thinking of replacing new/delete with malloc/free and use mallopt to tune the way the memory is being released to the system. BTW - I'm not sure if it's relevant to our problem, but the server uses Pthreads that get created and destroyed on each processing request. Cheers, Brian.

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  • Raising C# events with an extension method - is it bad?

    - by Kyralessa
    We're all familiar with the horror that is C# event declaration. To ensure thread-safety, the standard is to write something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; protected virtual void OnSomethingHappened(EventArgs e) { var handler = SomethingHappened; if (handler != null) handler(this, e); } Recently in some other question on this board (which I can't find now), someone pointed out that extension methods could be used nicely in this scenario. Here's one way to do it: static public class EventExtensions { static public void RaiseEvent(this EventHandler @event, object sender, EventArgs e) { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } static public void RaiseEvent<T>(this EventHandler<T> @event, object sender, T e) where T : EventArgs { var handler = @event; if (handler != null) handler(sender, e); } } With these extension methods in place, all you need to declare and raise an event is something like this: public event EventHandler SomethingHappened; void SomeMethod() { this.SomethingHappened.RaiseEvent(this, EventArgs.Empty); } My question: Is this a good idea? Are we missing anything by not having the standard On method? (One thing I notice is that it doesn't work with events that have explicit add/remove code.)

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  • latin1/unicode conversion problem with ajax request and special characters

    - by mfn
    Server is PHP5 and HTML charset is latin1 (iso-8859-1). With regular form POST requests, there's no problem with "special" characters like the em dash (–) for example. Although I don't know for sure, it works. Probably because there exists a representable character for the browser at char code 150 (which is what I see in PHP on the server for a literal em dash with ord). Now our application also provides some kind of preview mechanism via ajax: the text is sent to the server and a complete HTML for a preview is sent back. However, the ordinary char code 150 em dash character when sent via ajax (tested with GET and POST) mutates into something more: %E2%80%93. I see this already in the apache log. According to various sources I found, e.g. http://www.tachyonsoft.com/uc0020.htm , this is the UTF8 byte representation of em dash and my current knowledge is that JavaScript handles everything in Unicode. However within my app, I need everything in latin1. Simply said: just like a regular POST request would have given me that em dash as char code 150, I would need that for the translated UTF8 representation too. That's were I'm failing, because with PHP on the server when I try to decode it with either utf8_decode(...) or iconv('UTF-8', 'iso-8859-1', ...) but in both cases I get a regular ? representing this character (and iconv also throws me a notice: Detected an illegal character in input string ). My goal is to find an automated solution, but maybe I'm trying to be überclever in this case? I've found other people simply doing manual replacing with a predefined input/output set; but that would always give me the feeling I could loose characters. The observant reader will note that I'm behind on understanding the full impact/complexity with things about Unicode and conversion of chars and I definitely prefer to understand the thing as a whole then a simply manual mapping. thanks

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  • How can I check if a user has written his username and password correctly?

    - by Sergio Tapia
    I'm using a Linq-to-SQL class called Scans.dbml. In that class I've dragged a table called Users (username, password, role) onto the graphic area and now I can access User object via a UserRepository class: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; namespace Scanner.Classes { public class UserRepository { private ScansDataContext db = new ScansDataContext(); public User getUser(string username) { return db.Users.SingleOrDefault(x => x.username == username); } public bool exists(string username) { } } } Now in my Login form, I want to use this Linq-to-SQL goodness to do all the data related activities. UserRepository users = new UserRepository(); private void btnLogin_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { loginToSystem(); } private void loginToSystem() { if (users.getUser(txtUsername.Text)) { } //If txtUsername exists && User.password == Salt(txtPassword) //then Show.MainForm() with User.accountType in constructor to set permissions. } I need help with verifying that a user exists && that that users.password is equal to SALT(txtpassword.text). Any guidance please?

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  • desing pattern for related inputs

    - by curiousMo
    My question is a design question : let's say i have a data entry web page with 4 drop down lists, each depending on the previous one, and a bunch of text boxes. country (ddl), state (ddl), city (ddl), boro (ddl), address (txtBox), zipcode(txtbox). and an object that represents a datarow with a value for each. naturally the country, state, city and boro values will be values of primary keys of some lookup tables. when the user chooses to edits that record, i would load it from database and load it into the page. the issue that I have is how to streamline loading the ddls. i have some code that would grab the object, look thru its values and move them to their corresponding input controls in one shot. but in this case i will have to load possible values of country, then assign values, then load values of state, then assign value ans so on. I guess i am looking for an elegant solution. i am using asp.net, but i think it is irrelevant to the question. i am looking more into a design pattern. thanks

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  • Translating Where() to sql

    - by MBoros
    Hi. I saw DamienG's article (http://damieng.com/blog/2009/06/24/client-side-properties-and-any-remote-linq-provider) in how to map client properties to sql. i ran throgh this article, and i saw great potential in it. Definitely mapping client properties to SQL is an awesome idea. But i wanted to use this for something a bit more complicated then just concatenating strings. Atm we are trying to introduce multilinguality to our Business objects, and i hoped we could leave all the existing linq2sql queries intact, and just change the code of the multilingual properties, so they would actually return the given property in the CurrentUICulture. The first idea was to change these fields to XMLs, and then try the Object.Property.Elements().Where(...), but it got stuck on the Elements(), as it couldnt translate it to sql. I read somewhere that XML fields are actually regarded as strings, and only on the app server they become XElements, so this way the filtering would be on the app server anyways, not the DB. Fair point, it wont work like this. Lets try something else... SO the second idea was to create a PolyGlots table (name taken from http://weblogic.sys-con.com/node/102698?page=0,1), a PolyGlotTranslations table and a Culture table, where the PolyGlots would be referenced from each internationalized property. This way i wanted to say for example: private static readonly CompiledExpression<Announcement, string> nameExpression = DefaultTranslationOf<Announcement> .Property(e => e.Name) .Is(e=> e.NamePolyGlot.PolyGlotTranslations .Where(t=> t.Culture.Code == Thread.CurrentThread.CurrentUICulture.Name) .Single().Value ); now unfortunately here i get an error that the Where() function cannot be translated to sql, what is a bit disappointing, as i was sure it will go through. I guess it is failing, cause the IEntitySet is basically an IEnumerable, not IQueryable, am i right? Is there another way to use the compiledExpressions class to achieve this goal? Any help appreciated.

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  • How to create a semi transparent window in WPF that allows mouse events to pass through

    - by RMK
    I am trying to create an effect similar to the Lights out /lights dim feature in Adobe Lightroom (http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=87hNd3vaENE) except in WPF. What I tried was to create another window over-top of my existing window, make it transparent and put a semi transparent Path geometry on it. But I want mouse events to be able to pass through this semi transparent window (on to windows below). This is a simplified version of what I have: <Window x:Class="LightsOut.MaskWindow" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" AllowsTransparency="True" WindowStyle="None" ShowInTaskbar="False" Topmost="True" Background="Transparent"> <Grid> <Button HorizontalAlignment="Left" Height="20" Width="60">click</Button> <Path IsHitTestVisible="False" Stroke="Black" Fill="Black" Opacity="0.3"> <Path.Data> <RectangleGeometry Rect="0,0,1000,1000 "/> </Path.Data> </Path> </Grid> The window is fully transparent, so on places where the Path doesn't cover, mouse events pass right through. So far so good. The IsHitTestvisible is set to false on the path object. So mouse events will pass through it to other controls on the same form (ie you can click on the Button, because it is on the same form). But mouse events wont pass through the Path object onto windows that are below it. Any ideas? Or better ways to solve this problem? Thanks.

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  • Using ember-resource with couchdb - how can i save my documents?

    - by Thomas Herrmann
    I am implementing an application using ember.js and couchdb. I choose ember-resource as database access layer because it nicely supports nested JSON documents. Since couchdb uses the attribute _rev for optimistic locking in every document, this attribute has to be updated in my application after saving the data to the couchdb. My idea to implement this is to reload the data right after saving to the database and get the new _rev back with the rest of the document. Here is my code for this: // Since we use CouchDB, we have to make sure that we invalidate and re-fetch // every document right after saving it. CouchDB uses an optimistic locking // scheme based on the attribute "_rev" in the documents, so we reload it in // order to have the correct _rev value. didSave: function() { this._super.apply(this, arguments); this.forceReload(); }, // reload resource after save is done, expire to make reload really do something forceReload: function() { this.expire(); // Everything OK up to this location Ember.run.next(this, function() { this.fetch() // Sub-Document is reset here, and *not* refetched! .fail(function(error) { App.displayError(error); }) .done(function() { App.log("App.Resource.forceReload fetch done, got revision " + self.get('_rev')); }); }); } This works for most cases, but if i have a nested model, the sub-model is replaced with the old version of the data just before the fetch is executed! Interestingly enough, the correct (updated) data is stored in the database and the wrong (old) data is in the memory model after the fetch, although the _rev attribut is correct (as well as all attributes of the main object). Here is a part of my object definition: App.TaskDefinition = App.Resource.define({ url: App.dbPrefix + 'courseware', schema: { id: String, _rev: String, type: String, name: String, comment: String, task: { type: 'App.Task', nested: true } } }); App.Task = App.Resource.define({ schema: { id: String, title: String, description: String, startImmediate: Boolean, holdOnComment: Boolean, ..... // other attributes and sub-objects } }); Any ideas where the problem might be? Thank's a lot for any suggestion! Kind regards, Thomas

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  • Modify request querystring paramaters to build a new link without resorting to string manipulation

    - by Andrew M
    Hi All, I want to dynamically populate a link with the URI of the current request, but set one specific query string parameter. All other querystring paramaters (if there are any) should be left untouched. And I don't know in advance what they might be. Eg, imagine I want to build a link back to the current page, but with the querystring parameter "valueOfInterest" always set to be "wibble" (I'm doing this from the code-behind of an aspx page, .Net 3.5 in C# FWIW). Eg, a request for either of these two: /somepage.aspx /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=sausages would become: /somepage.aspx?valueOfInterest=wibble And most importantly (perhaps) a request for: /somepage.aspx?boring=something /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=sausages would preserve the boring params to become: /somepage.aspx?boring=something&valueOfInterest=wibble Caveats: I'd like to avoid string manipulation if there's something more elegant in asp.net that is more robust. However if there isn't something more elegant, so be it. I've done (a little) homework: I found a blog post which suggested copying the request into a local HttpRequest object, but that still has a read-only collection for the querystring params. I've also had a look at using a URI object, but that doesn't seem to have a querystring

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  • GCC/X86, Problems with relative jumps

    - by Ian Kelly
    I'm trying to do a relative jump in x86 assembly, however I can not get it to work. It seems that for some reason my jump keeps getting rewritten as an absolute jump or something. A simple example program for what I'm trying to do is this: .global main main: jmp 0x4 ret Since the jmp instruction is 4 bytes long and a relative jump is offset from the address of the jump + 1, this should be a fancy no-op. However, compiling and running this code will cause a segmentation fault. The real puzzler for me is that compiling it to the object level and then disassembling the object file shows that it looks like the assembler is correctly doing a relative jump, but after the file gets compiled the linker is changing it into another type of jump. For example if the above code was in a file called asmtest.s: $gcc -c asmtest.s $objdump -D asmtest.o ... Some info from objdump 00000000 <main>: 0: e9 00 00 00 00 jmp 5 <main+0x5> 5: c3 ret This looks like the assembler correctly made a relative jump, although it's suspicious that the jmp instruction is filled with 0s. I then used gcc to link it then disassembled it and got this: $gcc -o asmtest asmtest.o $objdump -d asmtest ...Extra info and other disassembled functions 08048394 <main>: 8048394: e9 6b 7c fb f7 jmp 4 <_init-0x8048274> 8048399: c3 ret This to me looks like the linker rewrote the jmp statement, or substituted the 5 in for another address. So my question comes down to, what am I doing wrong? Am I specifying the offset incorrectly? Am I misunderstanding how relative jumps work? Is gcc trying to make sure I don't do dangerous things in my code?

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  • linq - how to sort a list

    - by Billy Logan
    Hello everyone, I have a linq query that populates a list of designers. since i am using the filters below my sorting is not functioning properly. My question is with the given code below how can i best sort this List after the fact or sort while querying? I have tried to sort the list after the fact using the following script but i receive a compiler error: List<TBLDESIGNER> designers = new List<TBLDESIGNER>(); designers = 'calls my procedure below and comes back with an unsorted list of designers' designers.Sort((x, y) => string.Compare(x.FIRST_NAME, y.LAST_NAME)); Query goes as follows: List<TBLDESIGNER> designer = null; using (SOAE strikeOffContext = new SOAE()) { //Invoke the query designer = AdminDelegates.selectDesignerDesigns.Invoke(strikeOffContext).ByActive(active).ByAdmin(admin).ToList(); } Delegate: public static Func<SOAE, IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER>> selectDesignerDesigns = CompiledQuery.Compile<SOAE, IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER>>( (designer) => from c in designer.TBLDESIGNER.Include("TBLDESIGN") orderby c.FIRST_NAME ascending select c); Filter ByActive: public static IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> ByActive(this IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> qry, bool active) { //Return the filtered IQueryable object return from c in qry where c.ACTIVE == active select c; } Filter ByAdmin: public static IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> ByAdmin(this IQueryable<TBLDESIGNER> qry, bool admin) { //Return the filtered IQueryable object return from c in qry where c.SITE_ADMIN == admin select c; } Thanks in advance, Billy

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  • Why can't I wrap the ServletRequest when trying to capture JSP Output

    - by Patrick Cornelissen
    I am trying to dispatch in a servlet request handler to the JSP processor and capture the content of it. I am providing wrapper instances for the ServletRequest and ServletResponse, they implement the corresponding HTTPServletRequest/-Response interfaces, so they should be drop-in replacements. All methods are currently passed to the original Servlet Request object (I am planning to modify some of them soon). Additionally I have introduced some new methods. (If you want to see the code: http://code.google.com/p/gloudy/source/browse/trunk/gloudyPortal/src/java/org/gloudy/gloudlet/impl/RenderResponseImpl.java) The HttpServletResponse uses it's own output streams to capture the output. When I try to call request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request, response); With my request and response wrappers the method returns and no content has been captured. When I tried to pass the original request object it worked! But that's not what I need in the long run... request.getRequestDispatcher("/WEB-INF/views/test.jsp").include(request.getServletRequest(), response); This works. getservletRequest() returns the original Request, given by the servlet container. Does anyone know why this is not working with my wrappers?

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  • What is the best way in assigning foreign key when using entity framework & LINQ to Entities?

    - by Abdel Olakara
    Hi all, I need to know the best practice of creating an entity object and assigning the foreign key. Here is my scenario. I have a Product table with pid,name,unit_price etc.. I also have a Rating table with pid (foregin key),rate,votes etc... Currently i am doing the following to create the rating object: var prod = entities.Product.First(p => p.product_id == pid); prod.Rating.Load(); if (prod.Rating != null) { log.Info("Rating already exists!"); // set values and Calcuate the score } else { log.Info("New Rating!!!"); Rating rating = new Rating(); // set values and do inital calculation prod.Rating = rating; } entities.SaveChanges(); Even though this works fine, i would like to know the best practice in doing these kind of assignment. Thanks for your suggestions and info. Best Regards, Abdel Olakara

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  • Trying to insert a row using stored procedured with a parameter binded to an expression.

    - by Arvind Singh
    Environment: asp.net 3.5 (C# and VB) , Ms-sql server 2005 express Tables Table:tableUser ID (primary key) username Table:userSchedule ID (primary key) thecreator (foreign key = tableUser.ID) other fields I have created a procedure that accepts a parameter username and gets the userid and inserts a row in Table:userSchedule Problem: Using stored procedure with datalist control to only fetch data from the database by passing the current username using statement below works fine protected void SqlDataSourceGetUserID_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CurrentUserName"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } But while inserting using DetailsView it shows error Procedure or function OASNewSchedule has too many arguments specified. I did use protected void SqlDataSourceCreateNewSchedule_Selecting(object sender, SqlDataSourceSelectingEventArgs e) { e.Command.Parameters["@CreatedBy"].Value = Context.User.Identity.Name; } DetailsView properties: autogen fields: off, default mode: insert, it shows all the fields that may not be expected by the procedure like ID (primary key) not required in procedure and CreatedBy (user id ) field . So I tried removing the 2 fields from detailsview and shows error Cannot insert the value NULL into column 'CreatedBy', table 'D:\OAS\OAS\APP_DATA\ASPNETDB.MDF.dbo.OASTest'; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails. The statement has been terminated. For some reason parameters value is not being set. Can anybody bother to understand this and help?

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  • iPhone Core Data does not refresh table

    - by Brian515
    Hi all, I'm trying to write an application with Core Data, and I have been able to successfully read and write to the core data database. However, if I write to the database in one view controller, my other view controllers will not see the change until the app is closed then reopened again. This is really frustrating. I'm not entirely sure how to get the refresh - (void)refreshObject:(NSManagedObject *)object mergeChanges:(BOOL)flag method to work. How do I get a reference to my managed object? Anyways, here's the code I'm using to read the data back. This is in the viewDidLoad method. NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Website" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [request setEntity:entity]; NSSortDescriptor *sortDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"siteName" ascending:NO]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortDescriptor, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [sortDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; NSError *error = nil; NSMutableArray *mutableFetchResults = [[managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error] mutableCopy]; if(mutableFetchResults == nil) { //Handle the error } [self setNewsTitlesArray:mutableFetchResults]; [mutableFetchResults release]; [request release]; [newsSourcesTableView reloadData]; Thanks for help in advance!

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  • ajax to populate an input type text

    - by kawtousse
    hi, I have an input type text that i want to populate it with a value from data base using the ajax technique. first i define my text zone like the following: <td><input type=text id='st' value=" " name='stname' onclick="donnom();" /></td> in javascript i do the following: xhr5.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(xhr5.readyState == 4 && xhr5.status == 200) { selects5 = xhr5.responseText; // On se sert de innerHTML pour rajouter les options a la liste document.getElementById('st').innerHTML = selects5; } }; xhr5.open("POST","ajaxIDentifier5.jsp",true); xhr5.setRequestHeader('Content-Type','application/x-www-form-urlencoded'); id=document.getElementById(idIdden).value; xhr5.send("id="+id); in IDentifier5.jsp i put the next code: '<%String id=request.getParameter("id"); System.out.println("idDailyTimeSheet ajaxIDentifier5 as is:"+id); Session s = null; Transaction tx; try { s= HibernateUtil.currentSession(); tx=s.beginTransaction(); Query query = s.createQuery("select from Dailytimesheet dailytimesheet where dailytimesheet.IdDailyTimeSheet="+id+" " ); for(Iterator it=query.iterate();it.hasNext();) { if(it.hasNext()) { Dailytimesheet object=(Dailytimesheet)it.next(); out.print( "<input type=\"text\" id=\"st1\" value=\""+object.getTimeFrom()+"\" name=\"starting\" onclick=\"donnom()\" ></input>"); } } }catch (HibernateException e) { e.printStackTrace();} %> i want to get only the value in the input type text populated from database because after that i will be able to change it . thanks for help.

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  • vector::erase with pointer member

    - by matt
    I am manipulating vectors of objects defined as follow: class Hyp{ public: int x; int y; double wFactor; double hFactor; char shapeNum; double* visibleShape; int xmin, xmax, ymin, ymax; Hyp(int xx, int yy, double ww, double hh, char s): x(xx), y(yy), wFactor(ww), hFactor(hh), shapeNum(s) {visibleShape=0;shapeNum=-1;}; //Copy constructor necessary for support of vector::push_back() with visibleShape Hyp(const Hyp &other) { x = other.x; y = other.y; wFactor = other.wFactor; hFactor = other.hFactor; shapeNum = other.shapeNum; xmin = other.xmin; xmax = other.xmax; ymin = other.ymin; ymax = other.ymax; int visShapeSize = (xmax-xmin+1)*(ymax-ymin+1); visibleShape = new double[visShapeSize]; for (int ind=0; ind<visShapeSize; ind++) { visibleShape[ind] = other.visibleShape[ind]; } }; ~Hyp(){delete[] visibleShape;}; }; When I create a Hyp object, allocate/write memory to visibleShape and add the object to a vector with vector::push_back, everything works as expected: the data pointed by visibleShape is copied using the copy-constructor. But when I use vector::erase to remove a Hyp from the vector, the other elements are moved correctly EXCEPT the pointer members visibleShape that are now pointing to wrong addresses! How to avoid this problem? Am I missing something?

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  • Thread safe lazy contruction of a singleton in C++

    - by pauldoo
    Is there a way to implement a singleton object in C++ that is: Lazily constructed in a thread safe manner (two threads might simultaneously be the first user of the singleton - it should still only be constructed once). Doesn't rely on static variables being constructed beforehand (so the singleton object is itself safe to use during the construction of static variables). (I don't know my C++ well enough, but is it the case that integral and constant static variables are initialized before any code is executed (ie, even before static constructors are executed - their values may already be "initialized" in the program image)? If so - perhaps this can be exploited to implement a singleton mutex - which can in turn be used to guard the creation of the real singleton..) Excellent, it seems that I have a couple of good answers now (shame I can't mark 2 or 3 as being the answer). There appears to be two broad solutions: Use static initialisation (as opposed to dynamic initialisation) of a POD static varible, and implementing my own mutex with that using the builtin atomic instructions. This was the type of solution I was hinting at in my question, and I believe I knew already. Use some other library function like pthread_once or boost::call_once. These I certainly didn't know about - and am very grateful for the answers posted.

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  • Inode to device information

    - by Methos
    I have 3 questions: I want to figure out if a file belongs to a USB device given the file inode. By looking in the latest kernel sources (2.6.33) on LXR, I think one can find that information by following pointers as follows: inode-super_block-block_device-backing_dev_info-device-device_driver(or device_type). However, the kernel that I am working with - 2.6.22.14 - does not have struct device pointer in the backing_dev_info object. So how can I figure out to which device does a file belong to from just the inode? I see that each of the inode, super_block and block_device contain an object of type 'dev_t'. But even after searching a lot, I could not find out how to convert 'dev_t' into struct device *. Is there any way to get that infomation? I tried to print device major and minor numbers using imajor(inode) and iminor(inode). However, for every file - belonging to hdd or usb - it always prints major and minor number as zero. Why would that be happening? I searched online for USB major numbers and I found out that major number for a USB is 180. However, on multiple machines, it showed me the major number associated with the USB dev as 253. $ ls -ltr /dev/usb* crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 4 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon4 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 3 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon3 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 8 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon8 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 5 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon5 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 1 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon1 crw-rw---- 1 root root 253, 7 2010-04-13 17:20 /dev/usbmon7 Why is that so?

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  • Understanding Java Wait and Notify methods

    - by Maddy
    Hello all: I have a following program: import java.util.concurrent.ExecutorService; import java.util.concurrent.Executors; public class SimpleWaitNotify implements Runnable { final static Object obj = new Object(); static boolean value = true; public synchronized void flag() { System.out.println("Before Wait"); try { obj.wait(); } catch (InterruptedException e) { System.out.println("Thread interrupted"); } System.out.println("After Being Notified"); } public synchronized void unflag() { System.out.println("Before Notify All"); obj.notifyAll(); System.out.println("After Notify All Method Call"); } public void run() { if (value) { flag(); } else { unflag(); } } public static void main(String[] args) throws InterruptedException { ExecutorService pool = Executors.newFixedThreadPool(4); SimpleWaitNotify sWait = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sWait); SimpleWaitNotify.value = false; SimpleWaitNotify sNotify = new SimpleWaitNotify(); pool.execute(sNotify); pool.shutdown(); } } When I wait on obj, I get the following exception Exception in thread "pool-1-thread-1" java.lang.IllegalMonitorStateException: current thread not owner for each of the two threads. But if I use SimpleWaitNotify's monitor then the program execution is suspended. In other words, I think it suspends current execution thread and in turn the executor. Any help towards understanding what's going on would be duly appreciated. This is an area1 where the theory and javadoc seem straightforward, and since there aren't many examples, conceptually left a big gap in me.

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  • Passing an ActionScript JPG Byte Array to Javscript (and eventually to PHP)

    - by Gus
    Our web application has a feature which uses Flash (AS3) to take photos using the user's web cam, then passes the resulting byte array to PHP where it is reconstructed and saved on the server. However, we need to be able to take this web application offline, and we have chosen Gears to do so. The user takes the app offline, performs his tasks, then when he's reconnected to the server, we "sync" the data back with our central database. We don't have PHP to interact with Flash anymore, but we still need to allow users to take and save photos. We don't know how to save a JPG that Flash creates in a local database. Our hope was that we could save the byte array, a serialized string, or somehow actually persist the object itself, then pass it back to either PHP or Flash (and then PHP) to recreate the JPG. We have tried: - passing the byte array to Javascript instead of PHP, but javascript doesn't seem to be able to do anything with it (the object seems to be stripped of its methods) - stringifying the byte array in Flash, and then passing it to Javascript, but we always get the same string: ÿØÿà Now we are thinking of serializing the string in Flash, passing it to Javascript, then on the return route, passing that string back to Flash which will then pass it to PHP to be reconstructed as a JPG. (whew). Since no one on our team has extensive Flash background, we're a bit lost. Is serialization the way to go? Is there a more realistic way to do this? Does anyone have any experience with this sort of thing? Perhaps we can build a javascript class that is the same as the byte array class in AS?

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