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  • 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

    - by user72603
    I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

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  • Large Y-axis tickInterval in high charts does not work

    - by ckovacs
    I have a chart at this JSFiddle to demonstrate a problem where our charts are not respecting the y-axis tick interval for large values: http://jsfiddle.net/z2cDu/1/ var plots = {"usBytePlots":[[1362009600000,143663192997],[1362096000000,110184848742],[1362182400000,97694974247],[1362268800000,90764690805],[1362355200000,112436517747],[1362441600000,113563368701],[1362528000000,139579327454],[1362614400000,118406594506],[1362700800000,125366899935],[1362787200000,134189435596],[1362873600000,132873135854],[1362960000000,121002328604],[1363046400000,123138222001],[1363132800000,115667785553],[1363219200000,103746172138],[1363305600000,108602633473],[1363392000000,89133998142],[1363478400000,92170701458],[1363564800000,86696922873],[1363651200000,80980159054],[1363737600000,97604615694],[1363824000000,108011666339],[1363910400000,124419138381],[1363996800000,121704988344],[1364083200000,124337959109],[1364169600000,137495512348],[1364256000000,136017103319],[1364342400000,60867510427]],"dsBytePlots":[[1362009600000,1734982247336],[1362096000000,1471928923201],[1362182400000,1453869593201],[1362268800000,1411787942581],[1362355200000,1460252447519],[1362441600000,1595590020177],[1362528000000,1658007074783],[1362614400000,1411941908699],[1362700800000,1447659369450],[1362787200000,1643008799861],[1362873600000,1792357973023],[1362960000000,1575173242169],[1363046400000,1565139003978],[1363132800000,1549211975554],[1363219200000,1438411448469],[1363305600000,1380445413578],[1363392000000,1298319283929],[1363478400000,1194578344720],[1363564800000,1211409679299],[1363651200000,1142416351471],[1363737600000,1223822672626],[1363824000000,1267692136487],[1363910400000,1384335759541],[1363996800000,1577205919828],[1364083200000,1675715948928],[1364169600000,1517593781592],[1364256000000,1562183018457],[1364342400000,681007264598]],"aggregatedTotalBytes":43476367948896,"aggregatedUsBytes":3150320403841,"aggregatedDsBytes":40326047545055,"maxTotalBytes":328186292129,"maxTotalBitsPerSecond":30387619.641574074} ; $('#container').highcharts({ yAxis: { tickInterval: 53687091200 // 500 gigabytes. Maximum y-axis value is approx 1.8TB }, series : [ { color: 'rgba(80, 180, 77, 0.7)', type: 'areaspline', name : 'Downstream', data : plots.dsBytePlots, total: plots.aggregatedDsBytes }, { color: 'rgba(33, 143, 197, 0.7)', type: 'areaspline', name : 'Upstream', data : plots.usBytePlots, total: plots.aggregatedUsBytes }] }); In this example we are charting bandwidth utilization in bytes. The chart has a maximum value of about 1.8TB. We set the y-axis tick interval to exactly 500GB but the rendered y-axis ticks don't make any sense for the given interval.

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  • Perl - Read XML

    - by chinna_82
    XML <?xml version='1.0'?> <employee> <name>Smith</name> <age>43</age> <sex>M</sex> <department role='manager'>Operations</department> </employee> Perl use XML::Simple; use Data::Dumper; $xml = new XML::Simple; foreach my $data1 ($data = $xml->XMLin("test.xml")) { print Dumper($data1); } Above code managed to all the xml value like this. Output $VAR1 = { 'department' => { 'content' => 'Operations', 'role' => 'manager' }, 'name' => 'John Doe', 'sex' => 'M', 'age' => '43' }; How do I do, if I only want to get the role value. For this example I need to get Role = manager. Any advice or reference link is highly appreciated.

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  • desing pattern for related inputs

    - by curiousMo
    My question is a design question : let's say i have a data entry web page with 4 drop down lists, each depending on the previous one, and a bunch of text boxes. country (ddl), state (ddl), city (ddl), boro (ddl), address (txtBox), zipcode(txtbox). and an object that represents a datarow with a value for each. naturally the country, state, city and boro values will be values of primary keys of some lookup tables. when the user chooses to edits that record, i would load it from database and load it into the page. the issue that I have is how to streamline loading the ddls. i have some code that would grab the object, look thru its values and move them to their corresponding input controls in one shot. but in this case i will have to load possible values of country, then assign values, then load values of state, then assign value ans so on. I guess i am looking for an elegant solution. i am using asp.net, but i think it is irrelevant to the question. i am looking more into a design pattern. thanks

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  • [Cocoa] Binding CoreData Managed Object to NSTextFieldCell subclass

    - by ndg
    I have an NSTableView which has its first column set to contain a custom NSTextFieldCell. My custom NSTextFieldCell needs to allow the user to edit a "desc" property within my Managed Object but to also display an "info" string that it contains (which is not editable). To achieve this, I followed this tutorial. In a nutshell, the tutorial suggests editing your Managed Objects generated subclass to create and pass a dictionary of its contents to your NSTableColumn via bindings. This works well for read-only NSCell implementations, but I'm looking to subclass NSTextFieldCell to allow the user to edit the "desc" property of my Managed Object. To do this, I followed one of the articles comments, which suggests subclassing NSFormatter to explicitly state which Managed Object property you would like the NSTextFieldCell to edit. Here's the suggested implementation: @implementation TRTableDescFormatter - (BOOL)getObjectValue:(id *)anObject forString:(NSString *)string errorDescription:(NSString **)error { if (anObject != nil){ *anObject = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:string forKey:@"desc"]; return YES; } return NO; } - (NSString *)stringForObjectValue:(id)anObject { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; return [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]; } - (NSAttributedString*)attributedStringForObjectValue:(id)anObject withDefaultAttributes:(NSDictionary *)attrs { if (![anObject isKindOfClass:[NSDictionary class]]) return nil; NSAttributedString *anAttributedString = [[NSAttributedString alloc] initWithString: [anObject valueForKey:@"desc"]]; return anAttributedString; } @end I assign the NSFormatter subclass to my cell in my NSTextFieldCell subclass, like so: - (void)awakeFromNib { TRTableDescFormatter *formatter = [[[TRTableDescFormatter alloc] init] autorelease]; [self setFormatter:formatter]; } This seems to work, but is extremely patch. On occasion, clicking to edit a row will cause its value to nullify. On other occasions, the value you enter on one row will populate other rows within the table. I've been doing a lot of reading on this subject and would really like to get to the bottom of this. What's more frustrating is that my NSTextFieldCell is rendering exactly how I would like it to. This editing issue is my last obstacle! If anyone can help, that would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Uninitialized array offset

    - by kimmothy16
    Hey everyone, I am using PHP to create a form with an array of fields. Basically you can add an unlimited number of 'people' to the form and each person has a first name, last name, and phone number. The form requires that you add a phone number for the first person only. If you leave the phone number field blank on any others, the handler file is supposed to be programmed to use the phone number from the first person. So, my fields are: person[] - a hidden field with a value that is this person's primary key. fname[] - an input field lname[] - an input field phone[] - an input field My form handler looks like this: $people = $_POST['person'] $counter = 0; foreach($people as $person): if($phone[$counter] == '') { // use $phone[0]'s phone number } else { // use $phone[$counter] number } $counter = $counter + 1; endforeach; PHP doesn't like this though, it is throwing me an Notice: Uninitialized string offset error. I debugged it by running the is_array function on people, fname, lname, and phone and it returns true to being an array. I can also manually echo out $phone[2], etc. and get the correct value. I've also ran is_int on the $counter variable and it returned true, so I'm unsure why this isn't working as intended? Any help would be great!

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  • CustomProfile is not saving?

    - by Xaisoft
    I created a class that extends ProfileBase: public class CustomerProfile : ProfileBase { public int CustomerID { get; set; } public string CustomerName { get; set; } public static CustomerProfile GetProfile() { return Create(Membership.GetUser().UserName) as CustomerProfile; } public static CustomerProfile GetProfile(string userName) { return Create(userName) as CustomerProfile; } } If I do: CustomerProfile p = CustomerProfile.GetProfile(); p.CustomerID = 1; p.Save(); The next time I try to access the value for the current user, it is not 1, it is 0, so it appears it is not saving it in the database. In my web.config file I have the following snippet: <profile inherits="PortalBLL.CustomerProfile"> <providers> <add name="CustomerProfile" type="System.Web.Profile.SqlProfileProvider" applicationName="/" connectionStringName="LocalSqlServer"/> </providers> </profile> I tried the following and it worked, I am curious why it doesn't save it using the automatic properties. [SettingsAllowAnonymous(false)] public int CustomerID { get { return (int)base.GetPropertyValue("CustomerID");} set { base.SetPropertyValue("CustomerID",value);} }

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  • Why do System.IO.Log SequenceNumbers have variable length?

    - by Doug McClean
    I'm trying to use the System.IO.Log features to build a recoverable transaction system. I understand it to be implemented on top of the Common Log File System. The usual ARIES approach to write-ahead logging involves persisting log record sequence numbers in places other than the log (for example, in the header of the database page modified by the logged action). Interestingly, the documentation for CLFS says that such sequence numbers are always 64-bit integers. Confusingly, however, the .Net wrapper around those SequenceNumbers can be constructed from a byte[] but not from a UInt64. It's value can also be read as a byte[], but not as a UInt64. Inspecting the implementation of SequenceNumber.GetBytes() reveals that it can in fact return arrays of either 8 or 16 bytes. This raises a few questions: Why do the .Net sequence numbers differ in size from the CLFS sequence numbers? Why are the .Net sequence numbers variable in length? Why would you need 128 bits to represent such a sequence number? It seems like you would truncate the log well before using up a 64-bit address space (16 exbibytes, or around 10^19 bytes, more if you address longer words)? If log sequence numbers are going to be represented as 128 bit integers, why not provide a way to serialize/deserialize them as pairs of UInt64s instead of rather-pointlessly incurring heap allocations for short-lived new byte[]s every time you need to write/read one? Alternatively, why bother making SequenceNumber a value type at all? It seems an odd tradeoff to double the storage overhead of log sequence numbers just so you can have an untruncated log longer than a million terabytes, so I feel like I'm missing something here, or maybe several things. I'd much appreciate it if someone in the know could set me straight.

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  • i386 assembly question: why do I need to meddle with the stack pointer?

    - by zneak
    Hello everyone, I decided it would be fun to learn x86 assembly during the summer break. So I started with a very simple hello world program, borrowing on free examples gcc -S could give me. I ended up with this: HELLO: .ascii "Hello, world!\12\0" .text .globl _main _main: pushl %ebp # 1. puts the base stack address on the stack movl %esp, %ebp # 2. puts the base stack address in the stack address register subl $20, %esp # 3. ??? pushl $HELLO # 4. push HELLO's address on the stack call _puts # 5. call puts xorl %eax, %eax # 6. zero %eax, probably not necessary since we didn't do anything with it leave # 7. clean up ret # 8. return # PROFIT! It compiles and even works! And I think I understand most of it. Though, magic happens at step 3. Would I remove this line, my program would die between the call to puts and the xor from a misaligned stack error. And would I change $20 to another value, it'd crash too. So I came to the conclusion that this value is very important. Problem is, I don't know what it does and why it's needed. Can anyone explain me? (I'm on Mac OS, would it ever matter.)

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  • Dynamic checkboxlist

    - by Steve
    Hi, I am currently building a dynamic url tab system that user can say what urls they want to be displayed on a tabpage control. In the database i have the following columns. userID, int URLName var Enabled bit I am pulling the data back ok but what i am trying do is populate a checkbox list with the urlname and its status on a user options page so they can say what tabs they want displayed. I have wrote the following methods to get the urls and create the checkboxes however i keep getting the following error. ex = {"InvalidArgument=Value of '1' is not valid for 'index'.\r\nParameter name: index"} It reads the first row ok but when it hits the 2nd row that is being returned i get that error. Has anyone got any ideas? Thanks private void GetUserURLS() { db.initiateCommand("[Settings].[LoadAllUserURLS]", CommandType.StoredProcedure); sqlp = db.addParameter("@UserID", _UserID, SqlDbType.Int, ParameterDirection.Input); sqlp = db.addParameter("@spErrorID", DBNull.Value, SqlDbType.Int, ParameterDirection.InputOutput); db.executeCommand(); CreateCheckBoxes(db.getTable(0).Rows); db.releaseCommand(); } private void CreateCheckBoxes(DataRowCollection rows) { try { int i = 0; foreach (DataRow row in rows) { //Gets the url name and path when the status is enabled. The status of Enabled / Disabled is setup in the users option page string URLName = row["URLName"].ToString(); bool enabled = Convert.ToBoolean(row["Enabled"]); CheckedListBox CB = new CheckedListBox(); CB.Items.Insert(i, URLName); CB.Tag = "CB" + i.ToString(); checkedListBox1.Items.Add(CB); i++; } } catch (Exception ex) { //Log error Functionality func = new Functionality(); func.LogError(ex); //Error message the user will see string FriendlyError = "There has been populating checkboxes with the urls - A notification has been sent to development"; Classes.ShowMessageBox.MsgBox(FriendlyError, "There has been an Error", MessageBoxButtons.OK, MessageBoxIcon.Error); } }

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  • launch two actions in one button ASP.NET

    - by AZIRAR
    Hey, I'm developing a comment page in asp.net, this my page : <form action="#"> <p><textarea id="textArea" rows="5" cols="30"></textarea></p> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> <p>Add some comments to the page</p> And this is my javascript code : window.onload = initAll; function initAll() { document.getElementsByTagName("form")[0].onsubmit = addNode; } function addNode() { var inText = document.getElementById("textArea").value; var newText = document.createTextNode(inText); var newGraf = document.createElement("p"); newGraf.appendChild(newText); var docBody = document.getElementsByTagName("body")[0]; docBody.appendChild(newGraf); return false; } Until then, everything is fine, but I want when the user clicks the submit button, the button will trigger another action that will save the comment in the database. How can I do this thing ?

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  • Convert JavaScript to jQuery

    - by bloggerious
    I have the following JavaScript code which I like to convert to jQuery but has no luck. I would like to convert it to jQuery specifically beginning from this: <?php if(Voting_Method == 2){ if (mnmxmlhttp[htmlid].readyState == 4) { xvotesString[htmlid] = mnmxmlhttp[htmlid].responseText; if (xvotesString[htmlid].match (errormatch)) { xvotesString[htmlid] = xvotesString[htmlid].substring (6, xvotesString[htmlid].length); <?php if(Voting_Method == 1){ echo "changemnmvalues (htmlid, value, true);"; }?> } else { <?php if(Voting_Method == 2){ echo "var mySplitResult = xvotesString[htmlid].split('~');\n"; echo "target3 = document.getElementById ('xvote-' + htmlid);\n"; echo "target3.style.width = mySplitResult[0] + 'px';\n"; echo "if (target4 = document.getElementById ('mnma-' + htmlid))"; echo " target4.innerHTML = mySplitResult[1];\n"; echo "if (target5 = document.getElementById ('mnmb-' + htmlid))"; echo " target5.innerHTML = mySplitResult[2];\n"; echo "if (target6 = document.getElementById ('mnmc-' + htmlid))"; echo " target6.style.display='none'; \n"; echo "if (target6 = document.getElementById ('mnmd-' + htmlid))"; echo " target6.style.display='block'; \n"; echo "target7 = document.getElementById ('xvotes-' + htmlid);\n"; echo "target7.className = 'star-rating-noh';\n"; }?> <?php if(Voting_Method == 1){ echo 'if (xvotesString[htmlid].substring (1, 6) == "ERROR") { '; echo "alert(xvotesString[htmlid]); } else {"; echo "changemnmvalues (htmlid, value, false); } "; }?> } Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • Javascript Object.Watch for all browsers?

    - by SeanW
    Hey all, I was looking for an easy way to monitor an object or variable for changes, and I found Object.Watch that's supported in Mozilla browsers, but not IE. So I started searching around to see if anyone had written some sort of equivalent. About the only thing I've found has been a jQuery plugin (http://plugins.jquery.com/files/jquery-watch.js.txt), but I'm not sure if that's the best way to go. I certainly use jQuery in most of my projects, so I'm not worried about the jQuery aspect... Anyway, the question: can someone show me a working example of that jQuery plugin? I'm having problems making it work... Or, does anyone know of any better alternatives that would work cross browser? Thanks! Update after answers: Thanks everyone for the responses! I tried out the code posted here: http://webreflection.blogspot.com/2009/01/internet-explorer-object-watch.html But I couldn't seem to make it work with IE. The code below works fine in FireFox, but does nothing in IE. In Firefox, each time watcher.status is changed, the document.write in watcher.watch is called and you can see the output on the page. In IE, that doesn't happen, but I can see that watcher.status is updating the value, because the last document.write shows the correct value (in both IE and FF). But, if the callback function isn't called, then that's kind of pointless... :) Am I missing something? var options = {'status': 'no status'}, watcher = createWatcher(options); watcher.watch("status", function(prop, oldValue, newValue) { document.write("old: " + oldValue + ", new: " + newValue + "<br>"); return newValue; }); watcher.status = 'asdf'; watcher.status = '1234'; document.write(watcher.status + "<br>");

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  • Problem with Spring security's logout

    - by uther-lightbringer
    Hello, I've got a problem logging out in Spring framework. First when I want j_spring_security_logout to handle it for me i get 404 j_spring_security_logout not found: sample-security.xml: <http> <intercept-url pattern="/messageList.htm*" access="ROLE_USER,ROLE_GUEST" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messagePost.htm*" access="ROLE_USER" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messageDelete.htm*" access="ROLE_ADMIN" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp" default-target-url="/messageList.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.jsp?error=true" /> <logout/> </http> Sample url link to logout in JSP page: <a href="<c:url value="/j_spring_security_logout" />">Logout</a> When i try to use a custom JSP page i.e. I use login form for this purpose then I get better result at least it gets to login page, but another problem is that you dont't get logged off as you can diretcly type url that should be guarded buy you get past it anyway. Slightly modified from previous listings: <http> <intercept-url pattern="/messageList.htm*" access="ROLE_USER,ROLE_GUEST" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messagePost.htm*" access="ROLE_USER" /> <intercept-url pattern="/messageDelete.htm*" access="ROLE_ADMIN" /> <form-login login-page="/login.jsp" default-target-url="/messageList.htm" authentication-failure-url="/login.jsp?error=true" /> <logout logout-success-url="/login.jsp" /> </http> <a href="<c:url value="/login.jsp" />">Logout</a> Thank you for help

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  • Adding Css class to all <input type'text'> elements? Javascript / Css?

    - by Kohan
    I want to apply a CSS class to every textbox in my site: <div class="editor-label"> <label for="FoodType">FoodType</label> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <input id="HelpText" name="FoodType" type="text" value="" /> </div> <p> <input type="submit" value="Create" /> </p> And I thought, Hey! Easy. I'll add a jquery function to find them all in the masterpage. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('input').addClass('textbox'); } </script> Unfortunately this will also select the submit button. How can i only select input elements that have a text type attribute? Alternativly is this possible using entirely CSS? If both these methods are not possible, i guess i will just have to manually add the class to every textbox i make? Cheers, Kohan.

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  • Getting size of a specific byte array from an array of pointers to bytes

    - by Pat James
    In the following example c code, used in an Arduino project, I am looking for the ability to get the size of a specific byte array within an array of pointers to bytes, for example void setup() { Serial.begin(9600); // for debugging byte zero[] = {8, 169, 8, 128, 2,171,145,155,141,177,187,187,2,152,2,8,134,199}; byte one[] = {8, 179, 138, 138, 177 ,2,146, 8, 134, 8, 194,2,1,14,199,7, 145, 8,131, 8,158,8,187,187,191}; byte two[] = {29,7,1,8, 169, 8, 128, 2,171,145,155,141,177,187,187,2,152,2,8,134,199, 2, 2, 8, 179, 138, 138, 177 ,2,146, 8, 134, 8, 194,2,1,14,199,7, 145, 8,131, 8,158,8,187,187,191}; byte* numbers[3] = {zero, one, two }; function(numbers[1], sizeof(numbers[1])/sizeof(byte)); //doesn't work as desired, always passes 2 as the length function(numbers[1], 25); //this works } void loop() { } void function( byte arr[], int len ) { Serial.print("length: "); Serial.println(len); for (int i=0; i<len; i++){ Serial.print("array element "); Serial.print(i); Serial.print(" has value "); Serial.println((int)arr[i]); } } In this code, I understand that sizeof(numbers1)/sizeof(byte)) doesn't work because numbers1 is a pointer and not the byte array value. Is there a way in this example that I can, at runtime, get at the length of a specific (runtime-determined) byte array within an array of pointers to bytes? Understand that I am limited to developing in c (or assembly) for an Arduino environment. Also open to other suggestions rather than the array of pointers to bytes. The overall objective is to organize lists of bytes which can be retrieved, with length, at runtime.

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  • servlet resopnse data for autocomplete

    - by shams haque
    Hello experts, Following code is in php. i want to do same in java. Please tell me how do i generate this type of array or collection in java. I need this to response to json autocomplete. <?php $q = strtolower($_GET["q"]); if (!$q) return; $items = array( "Peter Pan"=>"[email protected]", "Molly"=>"[email protected]", "Forneria Marconi"=>"[email protected]", "Master Sync"=>"[email protected]", "Dr. Tech de Log"=>"[email protected]", "Don Corleone"=>"[email protected]", "Mc Chick"=>"[email protected]", "Donnie Darko"=>"[email protected]", "Quake The Net"=>"[email protected]", "Dr. Write"=>"[email protected]" ); $result = array(); foreach ($items as $key=>$value) { if (strpos(strtolower($key), $q) !== false) { array_push($result, array( "name" => $key, "to" => $value )); } } echo json_encode($result); ?>

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  • MEF and ASP.NET MVC

    - by denis_n
    I want to use MEF with asp.net mvc. I wrote following controller factory: public class MefControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { private CompositionContainer _Container; public MefControllerFactory(Assembly assembly) { _Container = new CompositionContainer(new AssemblyCatalog(assembly)); } protected override IController GetControllerInstance(RequestContext requestContext, Type controllerType) { if (controllerType != null) { var controllers = _Container.GetExports<IController>(); var controllerExport = controllers.Where(x => x.Value.GetType() == controllerType).FirstOrDefault(); if (controllerExport == null) { return base.GetControllerInstance(requestContext, controllerType); } return controllerExport.Value; } else { throw new HttpException((Int32)HttpStatusCode.NotFound, String.Format( "The controller for path '{0}' could not be found or it does not implement IController.", requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Path ) ); } } } In Global.asax.cs I'm setting my controller factory: protected void Application_Start() { AreaRegistration.RegisterAllAreas(); RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ControllerBuilder.Current.SetControllerFactory(new MefControllerFactory.MefControllerFactory(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly())); } I have an area: [Export(typeof(IController))] [PartCreationPolicy(CreationPolicy.NonShared)] public class HomeController : Controller { private readonly IArticleService _articleService; [ImportingConstructor] public HomeController(IArticleService articleService) { _articleService = articleService; } // // GET: /Articles/Home/ public ActionResult Index() { Article article = _articleService.GetById(55); return View(article); } } IArticleService is an interface. There is a class which implements IArticleService and Exports it. It works. Is this everything what I need for working with MEF? How can I skip setting PartCreationPolicy and ImportingConstructor for controller? I want to set my dependencies using constructor. When PartCreationPolicy is missing, I get following exception: A single instance of controller 'MvcApplication4.Areas.Articles.Controllers.HomeController' cannot be used to handle multiple requests. If a custom controller factory is in use, make sure that it creates a new instance of the controller for each request.

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  • How to get a fully transparent backbuffer in directx 9 without vista Desktop Window Manager

    - by flawlesslyfaulted
    I currently have an activex control that initiates a media (video/audio) framework another development group in my company developed and I am providing a window handle to that code. That handle is being used by their rendering plugin in the pipeline that uses Direct3d for rendering the video using that handle. I have seperate LPDIRECT3D9EX and LPDIRECT3DDEVICE9EX pointers that I initialize in my activex control. I am trying to clear a backbuffer to transparent and then use directx drawing primatives to draw on that backbuffer producing a transparent window with my drawing primatives over the streaming video on the directx surface below. It appears that clearing a device backbuffer with full alpha transparency is ignored by directx. d3ddev->Clear(0, NULL, D3DCLEAR_TARGET, D3DCOLOR_RGBA(0, 0, 1, 0 /*full alpha*/), 1.0f, 0); I can see the object I draw but they are drawn on top of a backbuffer that has the RGB color specified without the alpha value. The project linked (http://www.codeproject.com/KB/directx/umvistad3d.aspx) to in the stackoverflow question below does what I want but requires vista's Desktop Window Manager and won't work for XP. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/148275/how-do-i-draw-transparent-directx-content-in-a-transparent-window I have tried with D3DRS_ALPHABLENDENABLE true with configured blend with no avail. I have also tried to have pixels with full alpha values not rendered using D3DRS_ALPHATESTENABLE, D3DRS_ALPHAREF, and D3DRS_ALPHAFUNC setup but this doesn't work either. I have tried using ColorFill with alpha after retrieving the backbuffer with GetBackBuffer but this doesn't work either. (again only RGB is used) Finally I have tried creating a texture, selecting a surface, colorfilling that surface with a fully transparent alpha value, then loading that surface onto the backbuffer but only the RGB values appear to be used. I have checked the capabilities using the DXCapsViewer.exe and the D3DFMT_A8R8G8B8 backbuffer format that I am using for the backbuffer is valid so it can't be that. Has anyone gotten a transparent backbuffer in directx to work in XP?

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  • C# WPF abnormal CPU usage for animation

    - by 0xDEAD BEEF
    I am developing WPF application and client reports extreamly high CPU usage (90%) (whereas i am unable to repeat that behavior). I have traced bootleneck down to these lines. It is simple glowing animation for small single led control (blinking led). What could be reason for this simple annimation taking up SO huge CPU resources? <Trigger Property="State"> <Trigger.Value> <local:BlinkingLedStatus>Blinking</local:BlinkingLedStatus> </Trigger.Value> <Trigger.EnterActions> <BeginStoryboard Name="beginStoryBoard"> <Storyboard> <DoubleAnimation Storyboard.TargetName="glow" Storyboard.TargetProperty="Opacity" AutoReverse="True" From="0.0" To="1.0" Duration="0:0:0.5" RepeatBehavior="Forever"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </Trigger.EnterActions> <Trigger.ExitActions> <StopStoryboard BeginStoryboardName="beginStoryBoard"/> </Trigger.ExitActions> </Trigger>

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  • How do I DYNAMICALLY cast in C# and return for a property

    - by ken-forslund
    I've already read threads on the topic, but can't find a solution that fits. I'm working on a drop-down list that takes an enum and uses that to populate itself. i found a VB.NET one. During the porting process, I discovered that it uses DirectCast() to set the type as it returns the SelectedValue. See the original VB here: http://jeffhandley.com/archive/2008/01/27/enum-list-dropdown-control.aspx the gist is, the control has Type _enumType; //gets set when the datasource is set and is the type of the specific enum The SelectedValue property kind of looks like (remember, it doesn't work): public Enum SelectedValue //Shadows Property { get { // Get the value from the request to allow for disabled viewstate string RequestValue = this.Page.Request.Params[this.UniqueID]; return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; } set { base.SelectedValue = value.ToString(); } } Now this touches on a core point that I think was missed in the other discussions. In darn near every example, folks argued that DirectCast wasn't needed, because in every example, they statically defined the type. That's not the case here. As the programmer of the control, I don't know the type. Therefore, I can't cast it. Additionally, the following examples of lines won't compile because c# casting doesn't accept a variable. Whereas VB's CType and DirectCast can accept Type T as a function parameter: return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true); or return Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) as _enumType; or return (_enumType)Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true) ; or return Convert.ChangeType(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true), _enumType); or return CastTo<_enumType>(Enum.Parse(_enumType, RequestValue, true)); So, any ideas on a solution? What's the .NET 3.5 best way to resolve this?

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  • Foreach loop returning null values in PHP?

    - by Jascha
    Hello, I have a pretty simple problem. Basically I have an array called $list that is a list of titles. If I do a print_r($list) I get these results: Array ( [0] => Another New Title [1] => Awesome Movies and stuff [2] => Jascha's Title ) Now, I'm running a foreach loop to retrieve their values and format them in an <ul> like so... function get_film_list(){ global $categories; $list = $categories->get_film_list(); if(count($list)==0){ echo 'No films are in this category'; }else{ echo '<ul>'; foreach($list as $title){ echo '<li>' . $title . '<li>'; } echo '</ul>'; } } The problem I'm having is my loop is returning two values per value (is it the key value?) The result of the preceding function looks like this: Another New Title   Awesome Movies and stuff   Jascha's Title   I even tried: foreach($list as $key => $title){ echo '<li>' . $title . '<li>'; } With the same results: Another New Title   Awesome Movies and stuff   Jascha's Title   What am I missing here? Thanks in advance.

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  • Use jQuery to find and add an image tooltip

    - by lund.mikkel
    Hey people Okay, what I'm trying to accomplish is a simple tool tip that, when you hover over the name of a color, shows a little image of that color. The html markup looks like this: <label class="colorPicker"> <input type="radio" checked="" id="20" value="20" name="id[2]"> <img width="16" height="16" title=" DinoBlack Mat " alt="DinoBlack Mat" src="images/attributes/color/dinoblack_mat.jpg">DinoBlack Mat </label> <label class="colorPicker"> <input type="radio" id="874" value="874" name="id[2]"> <img width="16" height="16" title="XrayBlue shiny" alt="XrayBlue shiny" src="images/attributes/color/xrayblue_shiny.jpg">XrayBlue shiny </label> I'm using the jQuery plugin "Tooltip" and I've added following to my main js-file: $('.colorPicker').tooltip({ track: true, delay: 0, showURL: false, fade: 250, bodyHandler: function() { return $("<img/>").attr("src", [THE SOURCE FOR THE IMAGE]); } }); The idea is simply that the image should be hidden by default. But when you hover over the text the little thumbnail shows up and makes it easy to recognize the color. The problem is I haven't got a clue how to get the src for the thumbnail. I don't know how to extract the src from the img inside the selected element. I've tried various combinations using the this keyword, but nothing seemed to work. I've also tried to add the src path as a rel attribute to the label, but also without any success. Should be needless to say I also control the PHP-output... I really hope you can help me. I've search the web for days without any luck. I'm getting desperate :D /Mikkel Lund

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  • jquery ui drag and drop showing feedback

    - by sea_1987
    Hi there, I have some drag and drop functionality on my website, I am wanting to hightlight the area that is droppable with a chage in border color when the draggable element is clicked/starting to be dragged. If the click/or drag stops I want the border of the droppable element to change back to its origianl state, I currently have this code, but it does not work very well. $(".drag_check").draggable({helper:"clone", opacity:"0.5"}); $(".drag_check").mousedown(function() { $('.searchPage').css("border", "solid 3px #00FF66").fadeIn(1000); }); $(".drag_check").mouseup(function(){ $('.searchPage').css("border", "solid 3px #E2E5F1").fadeIn(1000); }) $(".searchPage").droppable({ accept:".drag_check", hoverClass: "dropHover", drop: function(ev, ui) { var droppedItem = ui.draggable.children(); cv_file = ui.draggable.map(function() {//map the names and values of each of the selected checkboxes into array return ui.draggable.children().attr('name')+"="+ui.draggable.children().attr('value'); }).get(); var link = ui.draggable.children().attr('name').substr(ui.draggable.children().attr('name').indexOf("[")+1, ui.draggable.children().attr('name').lastIndexOf("]")-8) $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"/search", data:ui.draggable.children().attr('name')+"="+ui.draggable.children().val()+"&save=Save CVs", success:function(){ window.alert(cv_file+"&save=Save CVs"); $('.shortList').append('<li><span class="inp_bg"><input type="checkbox" name="remove_cv'+link+'" value="Y" /></span><a href="/cv/'+link+'/">'+link+'</a></li>'); $('.searchPage').css("border", "solid 3px #E2E5F1").fadeIn(1000); }, error:function() { alert("Somthing has gone wrong"); } }); } });

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  • Creating a form dynamically

    - by Nathan
    Hi, I use a search button that creates a form dynamically at the server side and returns it with Jquery syntax. After I fill-up the form and click on submit button, there is another .submit() Jquery function that suppose to be called to validate input before data is sent to the server. But, for some reason, this function is never called, and the data is request is sent. In more details: This is the form that the serach button creates dynamically at the server side and "prints" to html page with Jquery: <form action=... name="stockbuyform" class="stockbuyform" method="post"> <input type=text value="Insert purchasing amount"> <input type="submit" value="Click to purchase"> </form> And here is the .submit() function : $(".stockbuyform").submit(function() { alert("Need to validate purchasing details"); } But whaen I click on purchase button, the .submit() function is never called. Does it mean that I can't use another Jquery call with the answer I got in the first call?

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