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  • OutOfMemoryException when I read FileStream 500 MB

    - by Alhambra Eidos
    Hi all, I'm using Filestream for read big file ( 500 MB) and I get the OutOfMemoryException. Any solutions about it. My Code is: using (var fs3 = new FileStream(filePath2, FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read)) { byte[] b2 = ReadFully(fs3, 1024); } public static byte[] ReadFully(Stream stream, int initialLength) { // If we've been passed an unhelpful initial length, just // use 32K. if (initialLength < 1) { initialLength = 32768; } byte[] buffer = new byte[initialLength]; int read = 0; int chunk; while ((chunk = stream.Read(buffer, read, buffer.Length - read)) > 0) { read += chunk; // If we've reached the end of our buffer, check to see if there's // any more information if (read == buffer.Length) { int nextByte = stream.ReadByte(); // End of stream? If so, we're done if (nextByte == -1) { return buffer; } // Nope. Resize the buffer, put in the byte we've just // read, and continue byte[] newBuffer = new byte[buffer.Length * 2]; Array.Copy(buffer, newBuffer, buffer.Length); newBuffer[read] = (byte)nextByte; buffer = newBuffer; read++; } } // Buffer is now too big. Shrink it. byte[] ret = new byte[read]; Array.Copy(buffer, ret, read); return ret; } thanks in advanced,

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  • running scala apps with java -jar

    - by paintcan
    Yo dawgs, I got some problems with the java. Check it out. sebastian@sebastian-desktop:~/scaaaaaaaaala$ java -cp /home/sebastian/.m2/repository/org/scala-lang/scala-library/2.8.0.RC3/scala-library-2.8.0.RC3.jar:target/scaaaaaaaaala-1.0.jar scaaalaaa.App Hello World! That's cool, right, but how bout this: sebastian@sebastian-desktop:~/scaaaaaaaaala$ java -cp /home/sebastian/.m2/repository/org/scala-lang/scala-library/2.8.0.RC3/scala-library-2.8.0.RC3.jar -jar target/scaaaaaaaaala-1.0.jar Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: scala/Application at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass1(Native Method) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClassCond(ClassLoader.java:632) at java.lang.ClassLoader.defineClass(ClassLoader.java:616) at java.security.SecureClassLoader.defineClass(SecureClassLoader.java:141) at java.net.URLClassLoader.defineClass(URLClassLoader.java:283) at java.net.URLClassLoader.access$000(URLClassLoader.java:58) at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:197) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248) at scaaalaaa.App.main(App.scala) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: scala.Application at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(URLClassLoader.java:202) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(URLClassLoader.java:190) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:307) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Launcher.java:301) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(ClassLoader.java:248) ... 13 more Wat the heck? Any idea why the first works and not the 2nd? How do I -jar my scala?? Thanks in advance bro.

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  • CPU friendly infinite loop

    - by Adi
    Writing an infinite loop is simple: while(true){ //add whatever break condition here } But this will trash the CPU performance. This execution thread will take as much as possible from CPU's power. What is the best way to lower the impact on CPU? Adding some Thread.Sleep(n) should do the trick, but setting a high timeout value for Sleep() method may indicate an unresponsive application to the operating system. Let's say I need to perform a task each minute or so in a console app. I need to keep Main() running in an "infinite loop" while a timer will fire the event that will do the job. I would like to keep Main() with the lowest impact on CPU. What methods do you suggest. Sleep() can be ok, but as I already mentioned, this might indicate an unresponsive thread to the operating system. LATER EDIT: I want to explain better what I am looking for: I need a console app not Windows service. Console apps can simulate the Windows services on Windows Mobile 6.x systems with Compact Framework. I need a way to keep the app alive as long as the Windows Mobile device is running. We all know that the console app runs as long as its static Main() function runs, so I need a way to prevent Main() function exit. In special situations (like: updating the app), I need to request the app to stop, so I need to infinitely loop and test for some exit condition. For example, this is why Console.ReadLine() is no use for me. There is no exit condition check. Regarding the above, I still want Main() function as resource friendly as possible. Let asside the fingerprint of the function that checks for the exit condition.

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  • Static variables and long running thread on IIS 7.5

    - by Dmitry
    Hello people. Help me solve next problem. I have ASP .NET MVC2 application. I run it on IIS 7.5. In one page user clicks button and handler for this button sends request to server (jquery.ajax). At server action in controller starts new thread (it makes long time import): var thread = new Thread(RefreshCitiesInDatabase); thread.Start(); State of import is available in static variable. New thread changes value of variable in the begin of work. User can check state of import too with the help of this variable, which is used in view. And user sees import's state. When I start this function few minutes everything is okey. On page I see right state of import, quantity of imported records is changed, I see changes in logs. But after few minutes begin troubles. When I refresh page with import state sometimes I see that import is okey but sometimes I see page with default values about import (like application is just started), but after that again I can see page with normal import's state. I tried to attach Visual Studio to IIS process and debug application. But when request comes to controller sometimes static variables have right values and sometimes they have default values (static int has 0, static string has "" etc.). Tell me what I do wrong. May be I must start additional thread in other way? Thanks in advance, Dmitry

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  • How to unit test this simple ASP.NET MVC controller

    - by Frank Schwieterman
    Lets say I have a simple controller for ASP.NET MVC I want to test. I want to test that a controller action (Foo, in this case) simply returns a link to another action (Bar, in this case). How would you test this? (either the first or second link) My implementation has the same link twice. One passes the url throw ViewData[]. This seems more testable to me, as I can check the ViewData collection returned from Foo(). Even this way though, I don't know how to validate the url itself without making dependencies on routing. The controller: public class TestController : Controller { public ActionResult Foo() { ViewData["Link2"] = Url.Action("Bar"); return View("Foo"); } public ActionResult Bar() { return View("Bar"); } } the "Foo" view: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" Inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage" MasterPageFile="~/Views/Shared/Site.Master"%> <asp:Content ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <%= Html.ActionLink("link 1", "Bar") %> <a href="<%= ViewData["Link2"]%>">link 2</a> </asp:Content>

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  • Unregistering COM dll with a C# Setup Project

    - by lb
    Hi All. I've been stuck on this one for a while. I'll try explain in the simplest terms and at the best of my knowledge. I will honour any help. I've got a C# project which uses a VB6 compiled ActiveX DLL that I'm constantly updating. I compile the setup project, send it to the client and they run the setup. When building the updated setup project, I would increase the 'Version' of the setup project so it wouldn't bother with 'Another version is already installed'. What started happening after a few updates I began to notice the DLL would not be updated to the new version in the installer. The client computer had the original DLL both installed and registered. First symptom: method not found exceptions from the client C# code. This is not a shared DLL and only this application needs it. I've noticed that when uninstalling the application (through the usual procedure) the DLL is also not removed from the application folder although I would set this file's property 'Permanent' to false. The registration entries in the registry are mantained also. I do update in VS6.0 the version of the DLL (usually increase the build number) before building it. Then in VS2008, I remove it from the References, and add it again from the 'Browse tab', without re-registering it on my dev machine and adding it from the COM tab. I've thought of these options. Custom step in Setup project to regsvr32.exe /u 'hardcoded path of my dll' at uninstall (ugly) Somehow find out how the 'Isolate' property can work for me without registering Find out how to execute setup project 'Conditions' that would actually check the version of the library and to update the file accordingly at every install) Any help would be incredibly welcome.

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  • Efficient cron job utilizing Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap.

    - by fireeyedboy
    I'm new to the IMAP protocol and Zend_Mail_Storage and I'm writing a small php script for a cron job that should regularly poll an IMAP account and check for new messages, and send an e-mail if new messages have arrived. As you can imagine, I want to only poll the IMAP account for relevant messages, and I only want to send a new e-mail if new messages have arrived since the last polled new message. So I thought of keeping track of the last message I polled with some unique identifier for a message. But I'm a bit uncertain about whether the methods I want to utilize for this do what I expect them to do though. So my questions are: Does the iterator position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Imap actually resemble some IMAP unique identifier for messages, or is it simply only and internal position of Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? For instance, if I tell it to seek() to message 5 (which I stored from an earlier session) will it indeed seek to the appropriate message on the IMAP server, even if for instance messages have been deleted since last session? Would keeping track of this latest polled message id in a file suffice for a cron job that, say, polls the account every 5 or 10 minutes? Or is this too naive, and should I be using a database for instance. Or is there maybe a much easier way to keep track of such state with Zend_Mail_Storage_Abstract? Also, do I need to poll every IMAP folder? Or is everything accumulated when I poll INBOX? If you could shed some light on any of these matters, I'ld appreciate it. Thanks in advance.

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  • Javascript and webshop tracking/affiliate across websites, how to do?

    - by H4mm3rHead
    Hi, I have a small front end to a webshop. All customers that go through my website and buy an item from the webshop I get back 5% of the amount. I need to find a way af tracking the customers i forward from my webshop to the other webshop. And then get the webshop to reply to me when the purchase has been made. In my webshop i have made a small page: collect.aspx that requests and saves the values passed in the querystring, something like this pseudo code: string orderid = Request["orderid"]; string amount = Request["amount"]; ..save to database On the webshop i forward customers to i get to insert a javascript on the last page in the purchase flow. I have tried a lot of things but it seems that the only thing that works is to fool the browser into thinking im referring a javascript, like this: <script type="text/javascript" src="http://domain.com/mypage.aspx?orderid=4&amount=45/> I saw how other trackers did their bit, and this seems to be the general way of doing it. With this script however, i get all the orders, i only want to log those that belong tome, those who entered through my website. Here is my big problem, how to do this? I added a cookie when the user opens my page, and i want to check for this cookie again when the purchase page make the callback. It weems that i cant get the cookie from the browser when it makes the "" call. This is really buggin me now. Could anyone please tell me how this is generally done, this tracking. And what am i missing in regards to this cookie thing? All ideas on how to do this is very welcome.

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  • jQuery - Could use a little help with a content loader

    - by Kenny Bones
    Hi, I'm not very elite when it comes to JavaScript, especially the syntax. So I'm trying to learn. And in this process I'm trying to implement a content loader that basically removes all content from a div and inserts content from another div from a different document. I've tried to do this on this site: www.matkalenderen.no - Check the butt ugly link there. See what happens? I've taken the example from this site: http://nettuts.s3.cdn.plus.org/011_jQuerySite/sample/index.html#index But I'm not sure this example actually works the way I think it does. I mean, if the code just wipes out existing content from a div and inserts content from another div, why does the other webpages in this example include doctype and heading etc etc? Wouldn't you just need the div and it's content? Without all the other stuff "around"? Maybe I don't get how this works though. Thought it worked mosly like include really. This is my code however: $(document).ready(function() { var hash = window.location.hash.substr(1); var href = $('#dynloader a').each(function(){ var href = $(this).attr('href'); if(hash==href.substr(0,href.length-5)){ var toLoad = hash+'.html #container'; $('#container').load(toLoad) } }); $('#dynloader a').click(function(){ var toLoad = $(this).attr('href')+' #container'; $('#container').hide('fast',loadcontainer); $('#load').remove(); $('#wrapper').append('<span id="load">LOADING...</span>'); $('#load').fadeIn('normal'); window.location.hash = $(this).attr('href').substr(0,$(this).attr('href').length-5); function loadcontainer() { $('#container').load(toLoad,'',showNewcontainer()) } function showNewcontainer() { $('#container').show('normal',hideLoader()); } function hideLoader() { $('#load').fadeOut('normal'); } return false; }); });

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  • When onblur occurs, how can I find out which element focus went *to*?

    - by Michiel Borkent
    Suppose I attach an onblur function to an html input box like this: <input id="myInput" onblur="function() { ... }"></input> Is there a way to get the ID of the element which caused the onblur event to fire (the element which was clicked) inside the function? How? For example, suppose I have a span like this: <span id="mySpan">Hello World</span> If I click the span right after the input element has focus, the input element will lose its focus. How does the function know that it was mySpan that was clicked? PS: If the onclick event of the span would occur before the onblur event of the input element my problem would be solved, because I could set some status value indicating a specific element had been clicked. PPS: The background of this problem is that I want to trigger an Ajax.AutoCompleter control externally (from a clickable element) to show its suggestions, without the suggestions disappearing immediately because of the onblur event on the input element. So I want to check in the OnBlur function if one specific element has been clicked, and if so, ignore the blur event.

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  • Mysteriously empty $_POST array

    - by Lex
    Hi all! I have the following HTML/PHP page: <?php if(empty($_SERVER['CONTENT_TYPE'])) { $type = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded"; $_SERVER['CONTENT_TYPE'] = $type; } echo "<pre>"; var_dump($_POST); var_dump(file_get_contents("php://input")); echo "</pre>"; ?> <form method="post" action="test.php"> <input type="text" name="test[1]" /> <input type="text" name="test[2]" /> <input type="text" name="test[3]" /> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Go" /> </form> As you can see, the form will submit and the expected output is a POST array with one array in it containing the filled in values and one entry "action" with the value "Go" (the button). However, no matter what values I enter in the fields; the result is always: array(2) { ["test"]=> string(0) "" ["action"]=> string(2) "Go" } string(16) "test=&action=Go&" Somehow, the array named test is emptied, the "action" variable does make it through. I've used the Live HTTP Headers extension for Firefox to check whether the POST fields get submitted, and they do. The relevant information from Live HTTP Headers (with a, b and c filled in as values in the textboxes): Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Content-Length: 51 test%5B1%5D=a&test%5B2%5D=b&test%5B3%5D=c&action=Go Does anybody have any idea as to why this is happening? I'm freaking out on this one, it has cost me so much time already...

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  • How do php apps identify a user after the session has timed out?

    - by Bill Zimmerman
    I am trying to understand how PHP apps check to see if a user is logged in. I am specifically looking at mediawiki's code to try to help me understand, but these cases should be fairly common in all php apps. From what I gather, the main cases are: A user just logged in or was created, every time they visit the page PHP knows its them by checking data common to the $_SESSION variable and the cookie. A user had the 'remember me' option checked on the login page a long time ago. They have a cookie on there computer with a tokenID, which is checked with a token on the server to authenticate them. In this case, there is no session variable, because the time between accesses could be weeks. My question is, what happens when a user is logged in, but the PHP session times out and he wants to access a page? I would have assumed that there is no easy way for the server to know who the person is - and that they would have to be redirected to the login page. However, mediawiki does just that. I've verified that the session files are deleted after X minutes, but when I hit refresh in mediawiki, it knows which user I am, and the 'token' variable is not included in the cookie.

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  • Syntax Error in MySql StoredProc

    - by karthik
    I am using the below stored proc in mysql to generate the insert statements. I am getting the following error : Script line: 4 You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '\’”\’,',’ifnull(‘,column_name,’,””)’,',\’”\’)')) INTO @S' at line 12 What would be the syntax problem in that ? DELIMITER $$ DROP PROCEDURE IF EXISTS `InsGen` $$ CREATE DEFINER=`root`@`localhost` PROCEDURE `InsGen`(in_db varchar(20),in_table varchar(20),in_file varchar(100)) BEGIN declare Whrs varchar(500); declare Sels varchar(500); declare Inserts varchar(2000); declare tablename varchar(20); set tablename=in_table; select tablename; # Comma separated column names – used for Select select group_concat(concat(‘concat(\’”\’,',’ifnull(‘,column_name,’,””)’,',\’”\’)')) INTO @Sels from information_schema.columns where table_schema=’test’ and table_name=tablename; # Comma separated column names – used for Group By select group_concat(‘`’,column_name,’`') INTO @Whrs from information_schema.columns where table_schema=’test’ and table_name=tablename; #Main Select Statement for fetching comma separated table values set @Inserts=concat(“select concat(‘insert into “, in_db,”.”,tablename,” values(‘,concat_ws(‘,’,”,@Sels,”),’);’) from “, in_db,”.”,tablename,” group by “,@Whrs, ” INTO OUTFILE ‘”, in_file ,”‘”); PREPARE Inserts FROM @Inserts; EXECUTE Inserts; END $$ DELIMITER ;

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  • revoked client certificate

    - by Michael
    Hi guys, I have little problem. I used certificate authority in windows server 2003 and revoked client certificate. The client certificate is in revoked certificate. I try verify this client certificate on revocation in winform app in windows server 2003. Code is here : private bool VefiryCert(X509Certificate2 cert) { X509Chain chain = new X509Chain(); chain.ChainPolicy.RevocationFlag = X509RevocationFlag.EntireChain; chain.ChainPolicy.RevocationMode = X509RevocationMode.Online; chain.ChainPolicy.UrlRetrievalTimeout = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 1000); chain.ChainPolicy.VerificationFlags = X509VerificationFlags.AllFlags; X509VerificationFlags.AllowUnknownCertificateAuthority; return chain.Build(cert); } But this client certificate is verify as true. I am confuse, where can be problem ? How can I check revocation list, which is loaded in winform application and used on verification this client certificate? So the problem is I verify client certificate, which is in revoked list (in certification authority) with method VefiryCert, an the certificate is verify as TRUE. Can somebody help me ?

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  • Requested Service not found - .NET Remoting

    - by bharat
    I am Getting this exception System.Runtime.Remoting.RemotingException occurred Message="Object '/55337266_9751_4f58_8446_c54ff254222e/rkutlpt5hvsxipmzhb+jkqyl_98.rem' has been disconnected or does not exist at the server." Source="mscorlib" StackTrace: Server stack trace: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.ChannelServices.CheckDisconnectedOrCreateWellKnownObject(IMessage msg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Channels.ChannelServices.DispatchMessage(IServerChannelSinkStack sinkStack, IMessage msg, IMessage& replyMsg) Exception rethrown at [0]: at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at Common.Interface.Repository.NA.INRR.GetNRun(Int32 NetworkRunId) at Module.NA.ViewModel.NRDViewModel.get_AS() InnerException: Most of the times i am getting this exception this is my remotingDomain method string tcpURL; TcpChannel channel; channel = new TcpChannel(); ChannelServices.RegisterChannel(channel, false); //-- // Remote domain objects //-- tcpURL = string.Format("tcp://{0}:{1}/DomainComposition", ServerName, TcpPort); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterWellKnownClientType(typeof(DomainComposition), tcpURL); //-- // Remote repository objects //-- tcpURL = string.Format("tcp://{0}:{1}/RepositoryComposition", ServerName, TcpPort); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterWellKnownClientType(typeof(RepositoryComposition), tcpURL); //-- // Remote utility objects //-- tcpURL = string.Format("tcp://{0}:{1}/UtilityComposition", ServerName, TcpPort); RemotingConfiguration.RegisterWellKnownClientType(typeof(UtilityComposition), tcpURL); this.Domain = new DomainComposition(); this.Repository = new RepositoryComposition(); this.Utility = new UtilityComposition(); How to Check if the object is disconnect then re initiate the service

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  • Testing fault tolerant code

    - by Robert
    I’m currently working on a server application were we have agreed to try and maintain a certain level of service. The level of service we want to guaranty is: if a request is accepted by the server and the server sends on an acknowledgement to the client we want to guaranty that the request will happen, even if the server crashes. As requests can be long running and the acknowledgement time needs be short we implement this by persisting the request, then sending an acknowledgement to the client, then carrying out the various actions to fulfill the request. As actions are carried out they too are persisted, so the server knows the state of a request on start up, and there’s also various reconciliation mechanisms with external systems to check the accuracy of our logs. This all seems to work fairly well, but we have difficult saying this with any conviction as we find it very difficult to test our fault tolerant code. So far we’ve come up with two strategies but neither is entirely satisfactory: Have an external process watch the server code and then try and kill it off at what the external process thinks is an appropriate point in the test Add code the application that will cause it to crash a certain know critical points My problem with the first strategy is the external process cannot know the exact state of the application, so we cannot be sure we’re hitting the most problematic points in the code. My problem with the second strategy, although it gives more control over were the fault takes, is I do not like have code to inject faults within my application, even with optional compilation etc. I fear it would be too easy to over look a fault injection point and have it slip into a production environment.

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  • VS2008 DataSet Wizard doesn't match tables for updating

    - by James H
    Hi all, first question ever on this site. I've been having a real stubborn problem using Visual Studio 2008 and I'm hoping someone has figured this out before. I have 2 libraries and 1 project that use strongly typed datasets (MSSQL backend) that I generated using the "Configure DataSet with Wizard" option on in Data Sources. I've had them working just fine for awhile and I've written a lot of code in the non-designer file for the row classes. I've also specified a lot of custom queries using the dataset designer. This is all work I can't afford to loose. I've recently made some changes to re-organize my libraries which included changing the names of the libraries themselves. I also changed the connection string to point to a different database which is a development copy (same exact schema). Problem is now when I open up "Configure DataSet with Wizard" to pickup a new column I've added to one of the tables it no longer matches the tables correctly in the wizard. The wizard displays all of the tables in the database and none of them have check boxes next to them (ie: are not part of this dataset). Below those it shows all of the tables again but with red Xs and these are checked. Basically meaning that Visual Studio sees all of the tables it currently has in the DataSet and sees all of the tables in the database, but believes they are no longer the same and thus do not match! I've had this same thing happen quite awhile back and I think I just re-built the xsd from scratch and manually copied the code over and then had to redefine all of the custom queries I built in the dataset designer. That's not a good solution. I'm looking for 2 answers: 1. What causes this to happen and how to prevent it. 2. How do I fix this so that the wizard once again believes the tables in its xsd are the same tables that are in the database (yes, they have the exact same names still). Thanks.

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  • Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice? (wordpress/bbpress maybe_serialize)

    - by 55skidoo
    What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

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  • Why do I have to unserialize this serialized value twice?

    - by 55skidoo
    What am I doing wrong here? I'm serializing a value, storing it in a database (table bb_meta), retrieving it... OK so far... but then I have to unserialize it twice. Shouldn't I be able to just unserialize once? This seems to work, but I'm wondering what point about serialization I'm missing here. //check database to see if user has ever visited before. $querystring = $bbdb->prepare( "SELECT `meta_value` FROM `$bbdb->meta` WHERE `object_type` = %s AND `object_id` = %s AND `meta_key` = %s LIMIT 1", $bbtype, $bb_this_thread, $bbuser ); $bb_last_visits = $bbdb->get_row($querystring, OBJECT); //if $bb_last_visits is empty, add time() as the metavalue using bb_update_meta if (empty($bb_last_visits)) { $first_visit = time(); echo 'serialized first visit: ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized = serialize(array($bb_this_thread => $first_visit)); bb_update_meta( $bb_this_thread, $bbuser, $bb_this_visit_time_serialized, $bbtype ); //add to database, bb_meta table echo '$bb_last_visits was empty. Setting first visit time as ' . $bb_this_visit_time_serialized . '<br>'; } else { //else, test by unserializing the data for use. echo 'last visit time already set: '; echo $bb_last_visits->meta_value; echo '<br>'; //fatal error - echo 'unserialized: ' . $bb_last_visits_unserialized = unserialize($bb_last_visits[0]->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'unserialize: ' . $unserialized_visits = unserialize($bb_last_visits->meta_value); echo '<br>'; echo 'hmm, need to unserialize again??: '; echo $unserialized_unserialized_visits = unserialize($unserialized_visits); echo '<br>'; echo 'hey look, it\'s an array value I can finally use now. phew: ' . $unserialized_unserialized_visits[$bb_this_thread]; }

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  • PHPUnit and autoloaders: Determining whether code is running in test-scope?

    - by pinkgothic
    Premise I know that writing code to act differently when a test is run is hilariously bad practise, but I may've actually come across a scenario in which it may be necessary. Specifically, I'm trying to test a very specific wrapper for HTML Purifier in the Zend framework - a View Helper, to be exact. The HTML Purifier autoloader is necessary because it uses a different logic to the autoloaders we otherwise have. Problem require()-ing the autoloader at the top of my View Helper class, gives me the following in test-scope: HTML Purifier autoloader registrar is not compatible with non-static object methods due to PHP Bug #44144; Please do not use HTMLPurifier.autoload.php (or any file that includes this file); instead, place the code: spl_autoload_register(array('HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap', 'autoload')) after your own autoloaders. Replacing the require() with spl_autoload_register(array('HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap', 'autoload')) as advertised means the test runs fine, but the View Helper dies a terrible death claiming: Zend_Log[3707]: ErrorController caught LogicException "Passed array does not specify an existing static method (class 'HTMLPurifier_Bootstrap' not found)" (Our test folder structure is slightly different to our Zend folder structure by necessity.) Question(s) After tinkering with it, I'm thinking I'll need to pick an autoloader-loading depending on whether things are in the test scope or not. Do I have another option to include HTMLPurifier's autoloading routine in both cases that I'm not seeing due to tunnel vision? If not, do I have to find a means to differentiate between test-environment and production-environment this with my own code (e.g. APPLICATION_ENV) - or does PHPUnit support this godawful hackery of mine natively by setting a constant that I could check whether its been defined(), or similar shenanigans? (My Google-fu here is weak! I'm probably just doing it wrong.)

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  • Emacs key binding fallback

    - by rejeep
    Hey, I have a minor mode. If that mode is active and the user hits DEL, I want to do some action, but only if some condition holds. If the condition holds and the action is executed I want to do nothing more after that. But if the condition fails, I don't want to do anything and let the default DEL action execute. Not sure how I could solve this. But I guess I could do it in two ways: 1) I could rebind the DEL key to a function in the minor mode and then check if the conditions holds ot not. But then how do I know what the default command to DEL is? 2) I could add a pre command hook like this. Execute the command and then break the chain. But how do I break the chain? (add-hook 'pre-command-hook (lambda() (when (equal last-input-event 'backspace) ;; Do something and then stop (do not execute the ;; command that backspace is bound to) ))) In what way would you solve it? Thanks!

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  • Python and csv help

    - by user353064
    I'm trying to create this script that will check the computer host name then search a master list for the value to return a corresponding value in the csv file. Then open another file and do a find an replace. I know this should be easy but haven't done so much in python before. Here is what I have so far... masterlist.txt (tab delimited) Name UID Bob-Smith.local bobs Carmen-Jackson.local carmenj David-Kathman.local davidk Jenn-Roberts.local jennr Here is the script that I have created thus far #GET CLIENT HOST NAME import socket host = socket.gethostname() print host #IMPORT MASTER DATA import csv, sys filename = "masterlist.txt" reader = csv.reader(open(filename, "rU")) #PRINT MASTER DATA for row in reader: print row #SEARCH ON HOSTNAME AND RETURN UID #REPLACE VALUE IN FILE WITH UID #import fileinput #for line in fileinput.FileInput("filetoreplace",inplace=1): # line = line.replace("replacethistext","UID") # print line Right now, it's just set to print the master list. I'm not sure if the list needs to be parsed and placed into a dictionary or what. I really need to figure out how to search the first field for the hostname and then return the field in the second column. Thanks in advance for your help, Aaron

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  • Sort on DataView does not work if DataTable has zero rows

    - by BigBlondeViking
    We have a WPF app that has a DataGrid insode a ListView. private DataTable table_; We do a bunch or dynamic column generation ( depending on the report we are showing ) We then do the a query and fill the DataTable row by row, this query may or may not have data.( not the problem, an empty grid is expected ) We set the ListView's ItemsSource to the DefaultView of the DataTable. lv.ItemsSource = table_.DefaultView; We then (looking at the user's pass usage of the app, set the sort on the column) Sort Method below: private void Sort(string sortBy, ListSortDirection direction) { var dataView = CollectionViewSource.GetDefaultView(lv.ItemsSource); dataView.SortDescriptions.Clear(); var sd = new SortDescription(sortBy, direction); dataView.SortDescriptions.Add(sd); dataView.Refresh(); } In the Zero DataTable rows scenario, the sort does not "hold"? and if we dynamically add rows they will not be in sorted order. If the DataTable has at-least 1 row when the sort is applied, and we dynamically add rows to the DataTable, the rows com in sorted correctly. I have built a standalone app that replicate this... It is an annoyance and I can add a check to see if the DataTable was empty, and re-sort... Anyone know whats going on here, and am I doing something wrong? FYI: What we based this off if comes from the MSDN as well: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms745786.aspx

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  • TFS and Forms Authentication

    - by George
    I don't know squat about TFS, other than as a user who has performed simple check in/outs. I just installed it locally and would like to do joint development with a friend. I was having trouble making my TFS web site on port 8080 visible (the whole scoop is here if your interested) and I wonder if it could be related to the fact that TFS is probably using Windows Authentication to identify the user. Can TFS be set up to use forms authentication? We probably need to set up a VPN, though that's a learning curve too. To use TFS, do our machines have to belong to a domain? We're not admin types, though he is better than me, though I would be interested in any feedback or advice on which path is likely to pan out the best. I already got AxoSoft OneTime working in this type of an environment and it suits us well, but I am tempted at all the bells & whistles with TFS and the ability to tie tracked bug items to code changes. As far as finding a good way to share code, do sites like SourceForge allow one to keep code secure among members only?

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  • flex actionscript not uploading file to PHP page HELP!

    - by Rees
    hello, please help! I am using actionscript 3 with flex sdk 3.5 and PHP to allow a user to upload a file -that is my goal. However, when I check my server directory for the file... NOTHING is there! For some reason SOMETHING is going wrong, even though the actionscript alerts a successful upload (and I have even tried all the event listeners for uploading errors and none are triggered). I have also tested the PHP script and it uploads SUCCESSFULLY when receiving a file from another PHP page (so i'm left to believe there is nothing wrong with my PHP). However, actionscript is NOT giving me any errors when I upload -in fact it gives me a successful event...and I know the my flex application is actually trying to send the data because when I attempt to upload a large file, it takes significantly more time to alert a "successful" event than when I upload a small file. I feel I have debugged every aspect of this code and am now spent. pleaseeee, anyone, can you tell me whats going wrong?? or at least how I can find out whats happening? -I'm using flash bugger and I'm still getting zero errors. private var fileRef:FileReference = new FileReference(); private var flyerrequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://mysite.com/sub/upload_file.php"); private function uploadFile():void{ fileRef.browse(); fileRef.addEventListener(Event.SELECT, selectHandler); fileRef.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, completeHandler); } private function selectHandler(event:Event):void{ fileRef.upload(flyerrequest); } private function completeHandler(event:Event):void{ Alert.show("uploaded"); }

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