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• My OpenCL kernel is slower on faster hardware.. But why?

  - by matdumsa

  Hi folks, As I was finishing coding my project for a multicore programming class I came up upon something really weird I wanted to discuss with you. We were asked to create any program that would show significant improvement in being programmed for a multi-core platform. I’ve decided to try and code something on the GPU to try out OpenCL. I’ve chosen the matrix convolution problem since I’m quite familiar with it (I’ve parallelized it before with open_mpi with great speedup for large images). So here it is, I select a large GIF file (2.5 MB) [2816X2112] and I run the sequential version (original code) and I get an average of 15.3 seconds. I then run the new OpenCL version I just wrote on my MBP integrated GeForce 9400M and I get timings of 1.26s in average.. So far so good, it’s a speedup of 12X!! But now I go in my energy saver panel to turn on the “Graphic Performance Mode” That mode turns off the GeForce 9400M and turns on the Geforce 9600M GT my system has. Apple says this card is twice as fast as the integrated one. Guess what, my timing using the kick-ass graphic card are 3.2 seconds in average… My 9600M GT seems to be more than two times slower than the 9400M.. For those of you that are OpenCL inclined, I copy all data to remote buffers before starting, so the actual computation doesn’t require roundtrip to main ram. Also, I let OpenCL determine the optimal local-worksize as I’ve read they’ve done a pretty good implementation at figuring that parameter out.. Anyone has a clue? edit: full source code with makefiles here http://www.mathieusavard.info/convolution.zip cd gimage make cd ../clconvolute make put a large input.gif in clconvolute and run it to see results

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• FileNotFoundException, although the XML file should be deployed

  - by Bernhard V

  Hi, I've got problems starting my WAR application on a local JBoss. After two other EARs are deployed and the TomcatDeployer begins deploying the WAR, I'm getting the following error message: 2010-04-28 10:01:56,605 ERROR [org.jboss.ejb.plugins.LogInterceptor] [] [main] EJBException in method: public abstract at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenRemote at.sozvers.stp.zpv.ejb.lea.rwsuc.EJBLeaRegelwerkSuchenHome.create() throws javax.ejb.CreateException,java.rmi.RemoteException, causedBy: javax.ejb.EJBException: org.springframework.beans.factory.access.BootstrapException: Unable to initialize group definition. Group resource name [classpath*:applicationContext.xml], factory key [contextService]; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanCreationException: Error creating bean with name 'contextService' defined in URL [jar:file:/C:/ta30/nutzb/jboss-4.2.3.GA.ZPV/server/default/deploy/deploy.last/zpv-app-web-frontend-1.0-SNAPSHOT.war/WEB-INF/lib/zpv-comp-ejb-modules-1.0-SNAPSHOT-client.jar!/applicationContext.xml]: Instantiation of bean failed; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.BeanInstantiationException: Could not instantiate bean class [org.springframework.context.support.ClassPathXmlApplicationContext]: Constructor threw exception; nested exception is org.springframework.beans.factory.BeanDefinitionStoreException: IOException parsing XML document from class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml]; nested exception is java.io.FileNotFoundException: class path resource [at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml] cannot be opened because it does not exist The sad thing is that the resource at/sozvers/stp/zpv/dao/ContextBasic.xml actually is placed in a JAR in one of my EAR files which should be deployed before the WAR. And at least I get a message that the deployment of the EAR has been successful. I also looked into the JAR with my file archiver and the ContextBasic.xml is indeed there at the right place. Is there a way for me to get sure that the JAR, not the EAR as a whole, is really deployed to the JBoss? I'm already starting to lose my head about this issue. Thank you. Bernhard

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• mysql-python stopped working

  - by MAC

  This is a rather dumb question but i'am looking at a bizarre situation. I am running fedora and have python 2.6.5 installed. The other day i installed MySQL-python using yum (because i do not have the setuptools module so i cannot build it from source). Anyway yesterday i wrote my entire data access layer in python and it was running fine, i did test it. Today however it gives me an ImportError: No module named MySQLdb The only thing i ever changed was i installed eclipse and pyDev. Any ideas on what went wrong and how i fix it. I tried removing and re-installing MySql-python but that did not help. I did the following import sys print sys.path And it shows me all the paths which are basically pertaining to /usr/local/lib/python2.6 However i was trying to find where the MySQLdb module is installed and it seems that its installed in /usr/lib/python2.5/sitepackages Now i have no idea why it got installed there and why it was working earlier and why it stopped working now. Any ideas on how i should fix it. I did try copying the site-packages folder over to the python2.6 folder but that did not work Help!!

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• C# WinForms. Multiple Forms in separate threads

  - by Calum Murray

  I'm trying to run an ATM Simulation in C# with Windows Forms that can have more than one instance of an ATM machine transacting with a bank account simultaneously. The idea is to use semaphores/locking to block critical code that may lead to race conditions. My question is this: How can I run two Forms simultaneously on separate threads? In particular, how does all of this fit in with the Application.Run() that's already there? Here's my main class: public class Bank { private Account[] ac = new Account[3]; private ATM atm; public Bank() { ac[0] = new Account(300, 1111, 111111); ac[1] = new Account(750, 2222, 222222); ac[2] = new Account(3000, 3333, 333333); Application.Run(new ATM(ac)); } static void Main(string[] args) { new Bank(); } } ...that I want to run two of these forms on separate threads... public partial class ATM : Form { //local reference to the array of accounts private Account[] ac; //this is a reference to the account that is being used private Account activeAccount = null; private static int stepCount = 0; private string buffer = ""; // the ATM constructor takes an array of account objects as a reference public ATM(Account[] ac) { InitializeComponent(); //Sets up Form ATM GUI in ATM.Designer.cs this.ac = ac; } ... I've tried using Thread ATM2 = new Thread(new ThreadStart(/*What goes in here?*/)); But what method do I put in the ThreadStart constructor, since the ATM form is event-driven and there's no one method controlling it? Thanks, Calum

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• Unable to upload large files on FTP using Apache commons-net-3.1

  - by Nitin

  I am trying to upload the one large file ( more than 8 MB) using storeFile(remote, local) method of FTPClient but it results false.It get uploaded with some extra bytes.Following is the code with Output: public class Main { public static void main(String[] args) { FTPClient client = new FTPClient(); FileInputStream fis = null; try { client.connect("208.106.181.143"); client.setFileTransferMode(client.BINARY_FILE_TYPE); client.login("abc", "java"); int reply = client.getReplyCode(); System.out.println("Received Reply from FTP Connection:" + reply); if(FTPReply.isPositiveCompletion(reply)){ System.out.println("Connected Success"); } client.changeWorkingDirectory("/"+"Everbest"+"/"); client.makeDirectory("ETPSupplyChain5.3-EvbstSP3"); client.changeWorkingDirectory("/"+"Everbest"+"/"+"ETPSupplyChain5.3-EvbstSP3"+"/"); FTPFile[] names = client.listFiles(); String filename = "E:\\Nitin\\D-Drive\\Installer.rar"; fis = new FileInputStream(filename); boolean result = client.storeFile("Installer.rar", fis); int replyAfterupload = client.getReplyCode(); System.out.println("Received Reply from FTP Connection replyAfterupload:" + replyAfterupload); System.out.println("result:"+result); for (FTPFile name : names) { System.out.println("Name = " + name); } client.logout(); fis.close(); client.disconnect(); } catch (SocketException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } } } o/p: Received Reply from FTP Connection:230 Connected Success 32 /Everbest/ETPSupplyChain5.3-EvbstSP3 Received Reply from FTP Connection replyAfterupload:150 result:false

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• Cassandra random read speed

  - by Jody Powlette

  We're still evaluating Cassandra for our data store. As a very simple test, I inserted a value for 4 columns into the Keyspace1/Standard1 column family on my local machine amounting to about 100 bytes of data. Then I read it back as fast as I could by row key. I can read it back at 160,000/second. Great. Then I put in a million similar records all with keys in the form of X.Y where X in (1..10) and Y in (1..100,000) and I queried for a random record. Performance fell to 26,000 queries per second. This is still well above the number of queries we need to support (about 1,500/sec) Finally I put ten million records in from 1.1 up through 10.1000000 and randomly queried for one of the 10 million records. Performance is abysmal at 60 queries per second and my disk is thrashing around like crazy. I also verified that if I ask for a subset of the data, say the 1,000 records between 3,000,000 and 3,001,000, it returns slowly at first and then as they cache, it speeds right up to 20,000 queries per second and my disk stops going crazy. I've read all over that people are storing billions of records in Cassandra and fetching them at 5-6k per second, but I can't get anywhere near that with only 10mil records. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? Is there some setting I need to change from the defaults? I'm on an overclocked Core i7 box with 6gigs of ram so I don't think it's the machine. Here's my code to fetch records which I'm spawning into 8 threads to ask for one value from one column via row key: ColumnPath cp = new ColumnPath(); cp.Column_family = "Standard1"; cp.Column = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("site"); string key = (1+sRand.Next(9)) + "." + (1+sRand.Next(1000000)); ColumnOrSuperColumn logline = client.get("Keyspace1", key, cp, ConsistencyLevel.ONE); Thanks for any insights

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• ASP.NET MVC2 DataAnnotations not catching error

  - by Paul Connolly

  Can somebody help me to figure out why DataAnnotations will not work with my MVC2 project in VS 2008 SP1? Here's the situation.. I uninstalled VS2008 and MVC1, then reinstalled VS2008 SP1 and .NET 3.5 SP1 and MVC2. Now when I create a clean project as soon as it has to hit the DataAnnotations Dll (e.g. say when I go to Register.aspx it fails at the first "LabelFor" that it encounters. I can overcome this by changing the "Copy Local" property of the dll to True but this then creates a conflict with the same dll in the Tests project. If then I delete the test project and try agan, it runs but does not catch any validation failures. I have gone right back to basics and followed the step by step ScottGu Datavalidation tutorial at : http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2010/01/15/asp-net-mvc-2-model-validation.aspx And at the "Et viola" bit where we usually go "Whoa! cool!" I say "It never caught!". Any Ideas?

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• My service does not start on Windows 2008 (it works on Windows 2003)

  - by akirekadu

  When we install our product on Windows 2008 SP2, couple of services fail to start. After trying different things, we figured out that these service were able to start when "Log on as" is set to "Local system account". This service does need to run as a specific user because it requires access to secure resources. The service did run just fine under this special user account under Windows 2003. I am thinking the problem is related to UAC (user access control). Under interactive mode one can elevate permission by answering the security dialog box. How to do the same for a service? How to configure the service so it runs with necessary permissions? Thanks! Couple of notes I would like to add. One solution I tried is to execute the installer as administrator. The service does get installed. However, it creates another problem. An embedded 3rd party product and its files get installed with admin only rights. So we do need to run the installer as logged in user.

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• Getting DirectoryNotFoundException when trying to Connect to Device with CoreCon API

  - by ageektrapped

  I'm trying to use the CoreCon API in Visual Studio 2008 to programmatically launch device emulators. When I call device.Connect(), I inexplicably get a DirectoryNotFoundException. I get it if I try it in PowerShell or in C# Console Application. Here's the code I'm using: static void Main(string[] args) { DatastoreManager dm = new DatastoreManager(1033); Collection<Platform> platforms = dm.GetPlatforms(); foreach (var p in platforms) { Console.WriteLine("{0} {1}", p.Name, p.Id); } Platform platform = platforms[3]; Console.WriteLine("Selected {0}", platform.Name); Device device = platform.GetDevices()[0]; device.Connect(); Console.WriteLine("Device Connected"); SystemInfo info = device.GetSystemInfo(); Console.WriteLine("System OS Version:{0}.{1}.{2}", info.OSMajor, info.OSMinor, info.OSBuildNo); Console.ReadLine(); } My question: Does anyone know why I'm getting this error? I'm running this on WinXP 32-bit, plain jane Visual Studio 2008 Pro. I imagine it's some config issue since I can't do it from a Console app or PowerShell. Here's the stack trace as requested: System.IO.DirectoryNotFoundException was unhandled Message="The system cannot find the path specified.\r\n" Source="Device Connection Manager" StackTrace: at Microsoft.VisualStudio.DeviceConnectivity.Interop.ConManServerClass.ConnectDevice() at Microsoft.SmartDevice.Connectivity.Device.Connect() at ConsoleApplication1.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\Documents and Settings\Thomas\Local Settings\Application Data\Temporary Projects\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs:line 23 at System.AppDomain._nExecuteAssembly(Assembly assembly, String[] args) at System.AppDomain.ExecuteAssembly(String assemblyFile, Evidence assemblySecurity, String[] args) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.HostingProcess.HostProc.RunUsersAssembly() at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ThreadHelper.ThreadStart() InnerException:

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• Installing and using acts-as-taggable-on

  - by seaneshbaugh

  This is going to be a really dumb question, I just know it, but I'm going to ask anyways because it's driving me crazy. How do I get acts-as-taggable-on to work? I installed it as a gem with gem install acts-as-taggable-on because I can't ever seem to get installing plugins to work, but that's a whole other batch of questions that are all probably really dumb. Anyways, no problems there, it installed correctly. I did ruby script/generate acts_as_taggable_on_migration and rake db:migrate, again no problems. I added acts_as_taggable to the model I want to use tags with, started up the server and then loaded the index for the model just to see if what I've got so far is working and got the following error: undefined local variable or method `acts_as_taggable' for #. I figure that just means I need to do something like require 'acts-as-taggable-on' to my model's file because that's typically what's necessary for gems. So I did that hit refresh and got uninitialized constant ActiveRecord::VERSION. I'm not even going to pretend to begin to know what that means went wrong. Did I go wrong somewhere or there something else I need to do. The installation instructions seem to me like they just assume you generally know what you're doing and don't even begin to explain what to do when things go wrong.

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• How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

  - by Tofrizer

  Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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• Making one table equal to another without a delete *

  - by Joshua Atkins

  Hey, I know this is bit of a strange one but if anyone had any help that would be greatly appreciated. The scenario is that we have a production database at a remote site and a developer database in our local office. Developers make changes directly to the developer db and as part of the deployment process a C# application runs and produces a series of .sql scripts that we can execute on the remote side (essentially delete *, insert) but we are looking for something a bit more elaborate as the downtime from the delete * is unacceptable. This is all reference data that controls menu items, functionality etc of a major website. I have a sproc that essentially returns a diff of two tables. My thinking is that I can insert all the expected data in to a tmp table, execute the diff, and drop anything from the destination table that is not in the source and then upsert everything else. The question is that is there an easy way to do this without using a cursor? To illustrate the sproc returns a recordset structured like this: TableName Col1 Col2 Col3 Dest Src Anything in the recordset with TableName = Dest should be deleted (as it does not exist in src) and anything in Src should be upserted in to dest. I cannot think of a way to do this purely set based but my DB-fu is weak. Any help would be appreciated. Apologies if the explanation is sketchy; let me know if you need anymore details.

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• PHP Streaming CSV always adds UTF-8 BOM

  - by Mustafa Ashurex

  The following code gets a 'report line' as an array and uses fputcsv to tranform it into CSV. Everything is working great except for the fact that regardless of the charset I use, it is putting a UTF-8 bom at the beginning of the file. This is exceptionally annoying because A) I am specifying iso and B) We have lots of users using tools that show the UTF-8 bom as characters of garbage. I have even tried writing the results to a string, stripping the UTF-8 BOM and then echo'ing it out and still get it. Is it possible that the issue resides with Apache? If I change the fopen to a local file it writes it just fine without the UTF-8 BOM. header("Content-type: text/csv; charset=iso-8859-1"); header("Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache"); header("Content-Disposition: attachment; filename=\"report.csv\""); $outstream = fopen("php://output",'w'); for($i = 0; $i < $report-rowCount; $i++) { fputcsv($outstream, $report-getTaxMatrixLineValues($i), ',', '"'); } fclose($outstream); exit;

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• PHP readfile() and large downloads

  - by Nirmal

  While setting up an online file management system, and now I have hit a block. I am trying to push the file to the client using this modified version of readfile: function readfile_chunked($filename,$retbytes=true) { $chunksize = 1*(1024*1024); // how many bytes per chunk $buffer = ''; $cnt =0; // $handle = fopen($filename, 'rb'); $handle = fopen($filename, 'rb'); if ($handle === false) { return false; } while (!feof($handle)) { $buffer = fread($handle, $chunksize); echo $buffer; ob_flush(); flush(); if ($retbytes) { $cnt += strlen($buffer); } } $status = fclose($handle); if ($retbytes && $status) { return $cnt; // return num. bytes delivered like readfile() does. } return $status; } But when I try to download a 13 MB file, it's just breaking at 4 MB. What would be the issue here? It's definitely not the time limit of any kind because I am working on a local network and speed is not an issue. The memory limit in PHP is set to 300 MB. Thank you for any help.

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• Playing a .TS file on iOS

  - by Jonathan Grynspan

  We're working with some hardware that produces files in the .TS format, and we'd like to play them on an iOS device. (The files are internally consistent with what iOS supports--MPEG-4 video, AAC audio.) We've been investigating three options so far: Roll our own integrated HTTP Live Streaming server and serve up a faux M3U8 playlist from within the app. This... doesn't seem to want to play nice, and we've had mixed luck actually getting the .TS files to play on devices. Unwrap the MPEG-4 and AAC data from the TS file and re-wrap it as MP4. This, I'm told, is exceedingly difficult to do, and I haven't found anything useful online that could shed light on how to do it. We've got code in the pipeline to do it but it won't be ready until long after we need it. If we could do it, I could easily subclass NSURLProtocol and have it working within a matter of hours minutes. Use FFmpeg to implement option #2. FFmpeg seems like a possible solution but it isn't configured to build for iOS and I don't have the background to get it working (whereas the rest of our engineers don't have the Apple background needed.) I think #2 is our best bet, but as I don't know the ins and outs of MPEG-2 TS and MPEG-4, I don't have the ability to put it together myself. Does anybody have any insight into this problem? Perhaps some experience playing local TS files on iOS, or some tips on converting from TS to MP4?

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• Why can't perfmon see instances of my custom performance counter?

  - by spoulson

  I'm creating some custom performance counters for an application. I wrote a simple C# tool to create the categories and counters. For example, the code snippet below is basically what I'm running. Then, I run a separate app that endlessly refreshes the raw value of the counter. While that runs, the counter and dummy instance are seen locally in perfmon. The problem I'm having is that the monitoring system we use can't see the instances in the multi-instance counter I've created when viewing remotely from another server. When using perfmon to browse the counters, I can see the category and counters, but the instances box is grayed out and I can't even select "All instances", nor can I click "Add". Using other access methods, like [typeperf][1] exhibit similar issues. I'm not sure if this is a server or code issue. This is only reproducible in the production environment where I need it. On my desktop and development servers, it works great. I'm a local admin on all servers. CounterCreationDataCollection collection = new CounterCreationDataCollection(); var category_name = "My Application"; var counter_name = "My counter name"; CounterCreationData ccd = new CounterCreationData(); ccd.CounterType = PerformanceCounterType.RateOfCountsPerSecond64; ccd.CounterName = counter_name; ccd.CounterHelp = counter_name; collection.Add(ccd); PerformanceCounterCategory.Create(category_name, category_name, PerformanceCounterCategoryType.MultiInstance, collection); Then, in a separate app, I run this to generate dummy instance data: var pc = new PerformanceCounter(category_name, counter_name, instance_name, false); while (true) { pc.RawValue = 0; Thread.Sleep(1000); }

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• MVVM- How can I bind to a property, which is not a DependancyProperty?

  - by highone

  I have found this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2245928/mvvm-and-the-textboxs-selectedtext-property. However, I am having trouble getting the solution given to work. This is my non-working code: View: SelectedText and Text are just string properties from my ViewModel. <TextBox Text="{Binding Path=Text, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Height="155" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="68,31,0,0" Name="textBox1" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="264" AcceptsReturn="True" AcceptsTab="True" local:TextBoxHelper.SelectedText="{Binding SelectedText, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" /> <TextBox Text="{Binding SelectedText, Mode=OneWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}" Height="154" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Margin="82,287,0,0" Name="textBox2" VerticalAlignment="Top" Width="239" /> TextBoxHelper public static class TextBoxHelper { #region "Selected Text" public static string GetSelectedText(DependencyObject obj) { return (string)obj.GetValue(SelectedTextProperty); } public static void SetSelectedText(DependencyObject obj, string value) { obj.SetValue(SelectedTextProperty, value); } // Using a DependencyProperty as the backing store for SelectedText. This enables animation, styling, binding, etc... public static readonly DependencyProperty SelectedTextProperty = DependencyProperty.RegisterAttached( "SelectedText", typeof(string), typeof(TextBoxHelper), new FrameworkPropertyMetadata(null, FrameworkPropertyMetadataOptions.BindsTwoWayByDefault, SelectedTextChanged)); private static void SelectedTextChanged(DependencyObject obj, DependencyPropertyChangedEventArgs e) { TextBox tb = obj as TextBox; if (tb != null) { if (e.OldValue == null && e.NewValue != null) { tb.SelectionChanged += tb_SelectionChanged; } else if (e.OldValue != null && e.NewValue == null) { tb.SelectionChanged -= tb_SelectionChanged; } string newValue = e.NewValue as string; if (newValue != null && newValue != tb.SelectedText) { tb.SelectedText = newValue as string; } } } static void tb_SelectionChanged(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { TextBox tb = sender as TextBox; if (tb != null) { SetSelectedText(tb, tb.SelectedText); } } #endregion } What am I doing wrong?

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• Ruby: what is the pitfall in this simple code excerpt that tests variable existence

  - by zipizap

  I'm starting with Ruby, and while making some test samples, I've stumbled against an error in the code that I don't understand why it happens. The code pretends to tests if a variable finn is defined?() and if it is defined, then it increments it. If it isn't defined, then it will define it with value 0 (zero). As the code threw an error, I started to decompose it in small pieces and run it, to better trace where the error was comming from. The code was run in IRB irb 0.9.5(05/04/13), using ruby 1.9.1p378 First I certify that the variable finn is not yet defined, and all is ok: ?> finn NameError: undefined local variable or method `finn' for main:Object from (irb):134 from /home/paulo/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin/irb:15:in `<main>' >> Then I certify that the following inline-condition executes as expected, and all is ok: ?> ((defined?(finn)) ? (finn+1):(0)) => 0 And now comes the code that throws the error: ?> finn=((defined?(finn)) ? (finn+1):(0)) NoMethodError: undefined method `+' for nil:NilClass from (irb):143 from /home/paulo/.rvm/rubies/ruby-1.9.1-p378/bin/irb:15:in `<main>' I was expecting that the code would not throw any error, and that after executing the variable finn would be defined with a first value of 0 (zero). But instead, the code thows the error, and finn get defined but with a value of nil. >> finn => nil Where might the error come from?!? Why does the inline-condition work alone, but not when used for the finn assignment? Any help apreciated :)

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• java RMI connection to server

  - by user85116

  I have a very simple rmi client / server application. I don't use the "rmiregistry" application though, I use this to create the server: server = new RemoteServer(); registry = LocateRegistry.createRegistry(PORT); registry.bind("RemoteServer", server); The client part is: registry = LocateRegistry.getRegistry(IPADDRESS, PORT); remote = (IRemoteServer) registry.lookup("RemoteServer"); Here is the fascinating problem: The application works perfectly when both server and client are running in my (private) local network. As soon as I put the server on a public server, the application hangs for a minute, then gives me the following error: java.rmi.ServerException: RemoteException occurred in server thread; nested exception is: java.rmi.ConnectException: Connection refused to host: 192.168.x.y; nested exception is: java.net.ConnectException: Connection timed out: connect at sun.rmi.server.UnicastServerRef.dispatch(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at sun.rmi.transport.Transport.serviceCall(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.handleMessages(Unknown Source) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport$ConnectionHandler.run0(Unknown Source ... (the rest is truncated) The key I think is that the client (running on my private network) cannot connect to myself (my address is 192.168.x.y where x.y is some other numbers, but the real error message shows my ip address listed there) If I kill the rmi server on the public internet, then I instantly get a "connection refused to host: a.b.c.d") message, so I know that something at the server end is at least working. Any suggestions? EDIT: just to make this a little more clear: 192.168.x.y is the client address, a.b.c.d is the server address. The stacktrace shows the client cannot connect to the client.

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• What objects would get defined in a Bridge scoring app (Javascript)

  - by Alex Mcp

  I'm writing a Bridge (card game) scoring application as practice in javascript, and am looking for suggestions on how to set up my objects. I'm pretty new to OO in general, and would love a survey of how and why people would structure a program to do this (the "survey" begets the CW mark. Additionally, I'll happily close this if it's out of range of typical SO discussion). The platform is going to be a web-app for webkit on the iPhone, so local storage is an option. My basic structure is like this: var Team = { player1: , player2: , vulnerable: , //this is a flag for whether or //not you've lost a game yet, affects scoring scoreAboveLine: , scoreBelowLine: gamesWon: }; var Game = { init: ,//function to get old scores and teams from DB currentBid: , score: , //function to accept whether bid was made and apply to Teams{} save: //auto-run that is called after each game to commit to DB }; So basically I'll instantiate two teams, and then run loops of game.currentBid() and game.score. Functionally the scoring is working fine, but I'm wondering if this is how someone else would choose to break down the scoring of Bridge, and if there are any oversights I've made with regards to OO-ness and how I've abstracted the game. Thanks!

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 DisplayFor()

  - by ZombieSheep

  I'm looking at the new version of ASP.NET MVC (see here for more details if you haven't seen it already) and I'm having some pretty basic trouble displaying the content of an object. In my control I have an object of type "Person", which I am passing to the view in ViewData.Model. All is well so far, and I can extact the object in the view ready for display. What I don't get, though, is how I need to call the Html.DisplayFor() method in order to get the data to screen. I've tried the following... <% MVC2test.Models.Person p = ViewData.Model as MVC2test.Models.Person; %> // snip <%= Html.DisplayFor(p => p) %> but I get the following message: CS0136: A local variable named 'p' cannot be declared in this scope because it would give a different meaning to 'p', which is already used in a 'parent or current' scope to denote something else I know this is not what I should be doing - I know that redefining a variable will producte this error, but I don't know how to access the object from the controller. So my question is, how do I pass the object to the view in order to display its properties? (I should add that I am reading up on this in my limited spare time, so it is entirely possible I have missed something fundamental) TIA

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• How reliable is DateTime.UtcNow in Silverlight applications?

  - by Edward Tanguay

  I have a silverlight application which users will be running in various time zones. These applications load their data from the server upon start up, then cache it in IsolatedStorage. When I make changes to the data on the server, I want to be able to change the "last updated time" so that all silverlight clients download the newest data the next time they check this date. However, I'm a bit confused as to how to handle the time zone issue since a if the server is in New York and the update time is set to 2010-01-01 17:00:00 and a client in Seattle checks compares it to its local time of 2010-01-01 14:00:00 it won't update and will continue to provide old data for three more hours. My solution is to always post the update time in UTC time, not with the time on the server, then make the Silverlight app check with DateTime.UtcNow. Is this as easy as it sounds or are their issues with this, e.g. that timezones are not set correctly on computers and hence the SilverlightApp does not report the correct UTC time. Can anyone say from experience how likely it is that using DateTime.UtcNow like this for cache refreshing will work in all cases? If DateTime.UtcNow is not reliable, I will just use an incremented "DataVersion" integer but there are other scenarios in which getting time zone sychronization down would make it useful to thoroughly understand how to solve this in silverlight apps.

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• A few questions about a Rails model for a simple addressbook app

  - by user284194

  I have a Rails application that lists information about local services. My objectives for this model are as follows: 1. Require the name and tag_list fields. 2. Require one or more of the tollfreephone, phone, phone2, mobile, fax, email or website fields. 3. If the paddress field has a value, then encode it with the Geokit plugin. Here is my entry.rb model: class Entry < ActiveRecord::Base validates_presence_of :name, :tag_list validates_presence_of :tollfreephone or :phone or :phone2 or :mobile or :fax or :email or :website acts_as_taggable_on :tags acts_as_mappable :auto_geocode=>{:field=>:paddress, :error_message=>'Could not geocode physical address'} before_save :geocode_paddress validate :required_info def required_info unless phone or phone2 or tollfreephone or mobile or fax or email or website errors.add_to_base "Please have at least one form of contact information." end end private def geocode_paddress #if paddress_changed? geo=Geokit::Geocoders::MultiGeocoder.geocode (paddress) errors.add(:paddress, "Could not Geocode address") if ! geo.success self.lat, self.lng = geo.lat,geo.lng if geo.success #end end end Requiring name and tag_list work, but requiring one (or more) of the tollfreephone, phone, phone2, mobile, fax, email or website fields does not. As for encoding with Geokit, in order to save a record with the model I have to enter an address. Which is not the behavior I want. I would like it to not require the paddress field, but if the paddress field does have a value, it should encode the geocode. As it stands, it always tries to geocode the incoming entry. The commented out "if paddress_changed?" was not working and I could not find something like "if paddress_exists?" that would work. Help with any of these issues would be greatly appreciated. I posted three questions pertaining to my model because I'm not sure if they are preventing each other from working. Thank you for reading my questions.

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• ASP.NET MVC on Cassini: How can I force the "content" directory to return 304s instead of 200s?

  - by Portman

  Scenario: I have an ASP.NET MVC application developed in Visual Studio 2008. There is a root folder named "Content" that stores images and stylesheets. When I run locally (using Cassini) and browse my application, every resource from the "Content" directory is always downloaded. Using Firebug, I can verify that the web server returns an HTTP 200 ("ok"). Desired: I would like for Cassini to return HTTP 304 ("not modified") instead of 200. This is the behavior when running the site under IIS7. Reasoning: The site I am working on has a large number of static resources (often as many as 40 per page). Browsing the site is very fast on IIS7, because these resources are (correctly) cached by the browser. However, browsing the site on my local machine is painfully slow. Pages that render in under 1 second on IIS7 take over 30 seconds to render on Cassini. It's actually faster for me to upload the entire website every few minutes and test from there. (Yes, I recognize that this is perverse and crazy.) So: how can I instruct/trick Cassini into treating the "Content" directory like IIS7 does?

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• Javascript scope chain

  - by Geromey

  Hi, I am trying to optimize my program. I think I understand the basics of closure. I am confused about the scope chain though. I know that in general you want a low scope (to access variables quickly). Say I have the following object: var my_object = (function(){ //private variables var a_private = 0; return{ //public //public variables a_public : 1, //public methods some_public : function(){ debugger; alert(this.a_public); alert(a_private); }; }; })(); My understanding is that if I am in the some_public method I can access the private variables faster than the public ones. Is this correct? My confusion comes with the scope level of this. When the code is stopped at debugger, firebug shows the public variable inside the this keyword. The this word is not inside a scope level. How fast is accessing this? Right now I am storing any this.properties as another local variable to avoid accessing it multiple times. Thanks very much!

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