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  • SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

    - by pborovik
    Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

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  • SSL with private key on an HSM

    - by Jason
    I have a client-server architecture in my application that uses SSL. Currently, the private key is stored in CAPI's key store location. For security reasons, I'd like to store the key in a safer place, ideally a hardware signing module (HSM) that is built for this purpose. Unfortunately, with the private key stored on such a device, I can't figure out how to use it in my application. On the server, I am simply using the SslStream class and the AuthenticateAsServer(...) call. This method takes an X509Certificate object that has its private key loaded, but since the private key is stored in a secure (e.g. non exportable) location on the HSM, I don't know how to do this. On the client, I am using an HttpWebRequest object and then using the ClientCertificates property to add my client authentication certificate, but I have the same problem here: how do I get the private key? I know there are some HSMs that act as SSL accelerators but I don't really need an accelerator. Also, these products tend to have special integration with web servers such as IIS and Apache which I'm not using. Any ideas? The only thing I can think of would be to write my own SSL library that would allow me to hand off the signing portion of the transaction to the HSM, but this seems like a huge amount of work.

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  • Fixed mouse pointer with jQuery draggable

    - by MikeWyatt
    I'm building a little game in HTML5. The canvas element is a viewport into the game world. The user can move the viewport's position in the world by clicking and dragging with the mouse on a small icon. The problem is that the scrolling stops when the mouse pointer hits the edge of the screen. In all likelihood, that will limit scrolling in one of the directions severely, since the icon will be in one of the corners of the page. The only technical solution I can think of would be to somehow fix the mouse pointer's position on the icon and detect the relative movement each frame. Basically I would just reset the pointer position back to the center of the icon after each drag event. Unfortunately, I'm fairly positive that this is not possible. Playing with the user's pointer is a big no-no from a usability and security standpoint. So, is there any other way to do what I want? I'm primarily looking for technical ideas here, but suggestions for a more appropriate interface would also be welcome.

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  • when does factory girl create objects in db?

    - by Pavel K.
    i am trying to simulate a session using factory girl/shoulda (it worked with fixtures but i am having problems with using factories). i have following factories (user login and email both have 'unique' validations): Factory.define :user do |u| u.login 'quentin' u.email '[email protected]' end Factory.define :session_user, :class => Session do |u| u.association :user, :factory => :user u.session_id 'session_user' end and here's the test class MessagesControllerTest < ActionController::TestCase context "normal user" do setup do @request.session[:user_id]=Factory(:user).id @request.session[:session_id]=Factory(:session_user).session_id end should "be able to access new message creation" do get :new assert_response :success end end end but when i run "rake test:functionals", i get this test result 1) Error: test: normal user should be able to access new message creation. (MessagesControllerTest): ActiveRecord::RecordInvalid: Validation failed: Account name already exists!, Email already exists! which means that record already exists in db when i am referring to it in test setup. is there something i don't understand here? does factory girl create all factories in db on startup? rails 2.3.5/shoulda/factory girl

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  • Entity framework entity class mapping with plain .net class

    - by Elan
    I have following in entity framework Table - Country Fields List item Country_ID Dialing_Code ISO_Alpha2 ISO_Alpha3 ISO_Full I would like to map only selected fields from this entity model to my domain class. My domain model class is public class DomainCountry { public int Country_ID { get; set; } public string Dialing_Code { get; set; } public string ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 { get; set; } } The following will work however insert or update is not possible. In order to get insert or update we need to use ObjectSet< but it will not support in my case. IQueryable<DomainCountry> countries = context.Countries.Select( c => new DomainCountry { Country_ID = c.Country_Id, Dialing_Code = c.Dialing_Code, ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 = c.ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 }); It will be really fantastic could someone provide a nice solution for this. Ideally it will be kind of proxy class which will support all the futures however highly customizable i.e. only the columns we want to expose to the outer world

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  • How do people know so much about programming?

    - by Luciano
    I see people in this forums with a lot of points, so I assume they know about a lot of different programming stuff. When I was young I knew about basic (commodore) and the turbo pascal (pc). Then in college I learnt about C, memory management, x86 set, loop invariants, graphs, db query optimization, oop, functional, lambda calculus, prolog, concurrency, polymorphism, newton method, simplex, backtracking, dynamic programming, heuristics, np completeness, LR, LALR, neural networks, static & dynamic typing, turing, godel, and more in between. Then in industry I started with Java several years ago and learnt about it, and its variety of frameworks, and also design patterns, architecture patterns, web development, server development, mobile development, tdd, bdd, uml, use cases, bug trackers, process management, people management if you are a tech lead, profiling, security concerns, etc. I started to forget what I learnt in college... And then there is the stuff I don't know yet, like python, .net, perl, JVM stuff like groovy or scala.. Of course Google is a must for rapid documentation access to know if a problem has been solved already and how, and to keep informed about new stuff by blogs and places like this one. It's just too much or I just have a bad memory.. how do you guys manage it?

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  • In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

    - by Navi
    I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

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  • how to better (inambiguaously) use the terms CAPTCHA and various types of interactions?

    - by vgv8
    I am working on survey of state-of-the-art and trends of spam prevention techniques. I observe that non-intrusive, transparent to visitor spam prevention techniques (like context-based filtering or honey traps) are frequently called non-captcha. Is it correct understanding of term CAPTCHA which is "type of challenge-response [ 2 ]test used in computing to ensure that the response is not generated by a compute" [ 1 ] and challenge-response does not seem to imply obligatory human involvement. So, which understanding (definition) of term and classification I'd better to stick with? How would I better call CAPTCHA without direct human interaction in order to avoid ambiguity and confusion of terms understnding? How would I better (succinctly and unambiguously) coin the term for captchas requiring human interaction but without typing into textbox? How would I better (succinctly and unambiguously) coin the terms to mark the difference between human interaction with images (playing, drag&dropping, rearranging, clicking with images) vs. just recognizing them (and then typing into a textbox the answer without interaction with images)? PS. The problem is that recognition of a wiggled word in an image or typing the answer to question is also interaction and when I start to use the terms "interaction", "interactive", "captcha", "protection", "non-captcha", "non-interactive", "static", "dynamic", "visible", "hidden" the terms overlap ambiguously with which another (especailly because the definitions or their actual practice of usage are vague or contradictive). [ 1 ] http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/CAPTCHA

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  • Has Twisted changed its dependencies?

    - by cdecker
    Hi all, I'm currently working on a Python/Twisted project which is to be distributed and tested on Planetlab. For some reason my code was working on friday and now that I wanted to test a minor change it refuses to work at all: Traceback (most recent call last): File "acn_a4/src/node.py", line 6, in <module> from twisted.internet.protocol import DatagramProtocol File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/Twisted-10.0.0-py2.5-linux-i686.egg/twisted/__init__.py", line 18, in <module> from twisted.python import compat File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/Twisted-10.0.0-py2.5-linux-i686.egg/twisted/python/compat.py", line 146, in <module> import operator File "/home/cdecker/dev/acn/acn_a4/src/operator.py", line 7, in <module> File "/home/cdecker/acn_a4/src/node.py", line 6, in <module> from twisted.internet.protocol import DatagramProtocol File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/Twisted-10.0.0-py2.5-linux-i686.egg/twisted/internet/protocol.py", line 20, in <module> from twisted.python import log, failure, components File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/Twisted-10.0.0-py2.5-linux-i686.egg/twisted/python/log.py", line 19, in <module> from twisted.python import util, context, reflect File "/usr/lib/python2.5/site-packages/Twisted-10.0.0-py2.5-linux-i686.egg/twisted/python/util.py", line 5, in <module> import os, sys, hmac, errno, new, inspect, warnings File "/usr/lib/python2.5/inspect.py", line 32, in <module> from operator import attrgetter ImportError: cannot import name attrgetter And since I'm pretty new to python I have no idea what could have caused this problem. All suggestions are welcome :-)

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  • iPhone UIView Animation Disables UIButton Subview

    - by bensnider
    So I've got a problem with buttons and animations. Basically, I'm animating a view using the UIView animations while also trying to listen for taps on the button inside the view. The view is just as large as the button, and the view is actually a subclass of UIImageView with an image below the button. The view is a subview of a container view placed in Interface Builder with user interaction enabled and clipping enabled. All the animation and button handling is done in this UIImageView subclass, while the startFloating message is sent from a separate class as needed. If I do no animation, the buttonTapped: message gets sent correctly, but during the animation it does not get sent. I've also tried implementing the touchesEnded method, and the same behavior occurs. UIImageView subclass init (I have the button filled with a color so I can see the frame gets set properly, which it does): - (id)initWithImage:(UIImage *)image { self = [super initWithImage:image]; if (self != nil) { // ...stuffs UIButton *tapBtn = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; tapBtn.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height); [tapBtn addTarget:self action:@selector(buttonTapped:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; tapBtn.backgroundColor = [UIColor cyanColor]; [self addSubview:tapBtn]; self.userInteractionEnabled = YES; } return self; } Animation method that starts the animation (if I don't call this the button works correctly): - (void)startFloating { [UIView beginAnimations:@"floating" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveLinear]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:10.0f]; self.frame = CGRectMake(self.frame.origin.x, -self.frame.size.height, self.frame.size.width, self.frame.size.height); [UIView commitAnimations]; } So, to be clear: Using the UIView animation effectively disables the button. Disabling the animation causes the button to work. The button is correctly sized and positioned on screen, and moves along with the view correctly.

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  • iPhone: TableView inside UIScrollview, show vaccillating scrollbars around

    - by karim
    Hi, I have added some table and other vies in a scrollview. scrolling in tables are working fine. But in the parent scrollview, when scrolling, a vacillating vertical scrollbars are shown, sometimes it even come to the middle of the screen. sometime show at the left side of the screen. and not limited to the vertical scrollbar region. When I set tje showsVerticalScrollIndicator = NO, it is not shown. But do you know why the scrollbar is moving around. DashboardView is a subclass of UIScrollView. dashboard=[[DashboardView alloc] initWithFrame:fullScreenRect]; dashboard.contentSize = CGSizeMake(320,700); // must do! dashboard.showsVerticalScrollIndicator = YES; dashboard.bounces = YES; self.view = dashboard; @implementation DashboardView (id)initWithFrame:(CGRect)frame { if (self = [super initWithFrame:frame]) { // Initialization code } return self; } (void)drawRect:(CGRect)rect { // Drawing code } (void) layoutSubviews{ NSArray *views = self.subviews; [UIView beginAnimations:@"CollapseExpand" context:nil]; [UIView setAnimationDuration:0.5]; [UIView setAnimationBeginsFromCurrentState:YES]; [UIView setAnimationCurve:UIViewAnimationCurveEaseIn]; UIView *view = [views objectAtIndex: 0]; CGRect rect = view.frame; for (int i = 1; i < [views count]; i++ ) { view = [views objectAtIndex:i]; view.frame = CGRectMake(rect.origin.x, rect.origin.y + rect.size.height, view.frame.size.width, view.frame.size.height); rect = view.frame; } [UIView commitAnimations]; }

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  • Can't log in a user in MVC!

    - by devlife
    I have been scratching my head on this for a while now but still can't get it. I'm trying to simply log in a user in an MVC2 application. I have tried everything that I know to try but still can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Here are a few things that I have tried: FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); var cookie = FormsAuthentication.GetAuthCookie( emailAddress, rememberMe ); HttpContext.Response.Cookies.Add( cookie ); FormsAuthenticationTicket ticket = new FormsAuthenticationTicket( emailAddress, rememberMe, 15 ); FormsIdentity identity = new FormsIdentity( ticket ); GenericPrincipal principal = new GenericPrincipal(identity, new string[0]); HttpContext.User = principal; I'm not sure if any of this is the right thing to do (as it's not working). After setting HttpContext.User = principal then Request.IsAuthenticated == true. However, in Global.asax I have this: HttpCookie authenCookie = Context.Request.Cookies.Get( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName ); The only cookie that ever is available is the aspnet session cookie. Any ideas at all would be much appreciated!

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  • Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

    - by drasto
    In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

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  • How to mmap the stack for the clone() system call on linux?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    The clone() system call on Linux takes a parameter pointing to the stack for the new created thread to use. The obvious way to do this is to simply malloc some space and pass that, but then you have to be sure you've malloc'd as much stack space as that thread will ever use (hard to predict). I remembered that when using pthreads I didn't have to do this, so I was curious what it did instead. I came across this site which explains, "The best solution, used by the Linux pthreads implementation, is to use mmap to allocate memory, with flags specifying a region of memory which is allocated as it is used. This way, memory is allocated for the stack as it is needed, and a segmentation violation will occur if the system is unable to allocate additional memory." The only context I've ever heard mmap used in is for mapping files into memory, and indeed reading the mmap man page it takes a file descriptor. How can this be used for allocating a stack of dynamic length to give to clone()? Is that site just crazy? ;) In either case, doesn't the kernel need to know how to find a free bunch of memory for a new stack anyway, since that's something it has to do all the time as the user launches new processes? Why does a stack pointer even need to be specified in the first place if the kernel can already figure this out?

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  • Forking in PHP on Windows

    - by Doug Kavendek
    We are running PHP on a Windows server (a source of many problems indeed, but migrating is not an option currently). There are a few points where a user-initiated action will need to kick off a few things that take a while and about which the user doesn't need to know if they succeed or fail, such as sending off an email or making sure some third-party accounts are updated. If I could just fork with pcntl_fork(), this would be very simple, but the PCNTL functions are not available in Windows. It seems the closest I can get is to do something of this nature: exec( 'php-cgi.exe somescript.php' ); However, this would be far more complicated. The actions I need to kick off rely on a lot of context that already will exist in the running process; to use the above example, I'd need to figure out the essential data and supply it to the new script in some way. If I could fork, it'd just be a matter of letting the parent process return early, leaving the child to work on a few more things. I've found a few people talking about their own work in getting various PCNTL functions compiled on Windows, but none seemed to have anything available (broken links, etc). Despite this question having practically the same name as mine, it seems the problem was more execution timeout than needing to fork. So, is my best option to just refactor a bit to deal with calling php-cgi, or are there other options? Edit: It seems exec() won't work for this, at least not without me figuring some other aspect of it, as it waits until the call returns. I figured I could use START, sort of like exec( 'start php-cgi.exe somescript.php' );, but it still waits until the other script finishes.

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  • What AOP tools exist for doing aspect-oriented programming at the assembly language level against x8

    - by JohnnySoftware
    Looking for a tool I can use to do aspect-oriented programming at the assembly language level. For experimentation purposes, I would like the code weaver to operate native application level executable and dynamic link libraries. I have already done object-oriented AOP. I know assembly language for x86 and so forth. I would like to be able to do logging and other sorts of things using the familiar before/after/around constructs. I would like to be able to specify certain instructions or sequences/patterns of consecutive instructions as what to do a pointcut on since assembly/machine language is not exactly the most semantically rich computer language on the planet. If debugger and linker symbols are available, naturally, I would like to be able to use them to identify subroutines' entry points , branch/call/jump target addresses, symbolic data addresses, etc. I would like the ability to send notifications out to other diagnostic tools. Thus, support for sending data through connection-oriented sockets and datagrams is highly desirable. So is normal logging to files, UI, etc. This can be done using the action part of an aspect to make a function call, but then there are portability issues so the tool needs to support a flexible, well-abstracted logging/notifying mechanism with a clean, simple yet flexible. The goal is rapid-QA. The idea is to be able to share aspect source code braodly within communties as well as publicly. So, there needs to be a declarative security policy file that users can share. This insures that nothing untoward that is hidden directly or indirectly in an aspect source file slips by the execution manager. The policy file format needs to be simple to read, write, modify, understand, type-in, edit, and generate. Sort of like Java .policy files. Think the exact opposite of anything resembling XML Schema files and you get the idea. Is there such a tool in existence already?

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  • Extend base type and automatically update audit information on Entity

    - by Nix
    I have an entity model that has audit information on every table (50+ tables) CreateDate CreateUser UpdateDate UpdateUser Currently we are programatically updating audit information. Ex: if(changed){ entity.UpdatedOn = DateTime.Now; entity.UpdatedBy = Environment.UserName; context.SaveChanges(); } But I am looking for a more automated solution. During save changes, if an entity is created/updated I would like to automatically update these fields before sending them to the database for storage. Any suggestion on how i could do this? I would prefer to not do any reflection, so using a text template is not out of the question. A solution has been proposed to override SaveChanges and do it there, but in order to achieve this i would either have to use reflection (in which I don't want to do ) or derive a base class. Assuming i go down this route how would I achieve this? For example EXAMPLE_DB_TABLE CODE NAME --Audit Tables CREATE_DATE CREATE_USER UPDATE_DATE UPDATE_USER And if i create a base class public abstract class IUpdatable{ public virtual DateTime CreateDate {set;} public virtual string CreateUser { set;} public virtual DateTime UpdateDate { set;} public virtual string UpdateUser { set;} } The end goal is to be able to do something like... public overrride void SaveChanges(){ //Go through state manager and update audit infromation //FOREACH changed entity in state manager if(entity is IUpdatable){ //If state is created... update create audit. //if state is updated... update update audit } } But I am not sure how I go about generating the code that would extend the interface.

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  • Namespace Problem

    - by Tarik
    Hello, Normally we all do use using System.Linq; and using System.Data.Linq; for example on the code-behind and expect we can reach the members of these namespaces from Source Code like <%= Something.First()%> but when I wrote it, asp.net said it couldn't find First() in the context and I had to add <%@ Import Namespace="System.Linq" which looked very weird to me but it worked out. Since they are targeting at the same class why they both need separate namespace importing. Code-behind : using System; using System.Data.Linq; using System.Linq; using System.Text namespace Something { class Items : System.Web.UI { //... } } but also I need to add the same Linq namespace on the Html Source part <%@Import Namespace="System.Linq"%> Do I know something wrong or this is some kind of bug in asp.net. I thought when the page is compiling, asp.net combines these two classes and converts html source code into cs class and indicates the control in Control c= new Control(); hierarchy. Thanks in advance.

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  • Should programmers do Pro Bono work? where are the code public defenders?

    - by Tj Kellie
    How many projects are people doing based on the Bro Bono publico ideals versus working for the highest wage or potential for a cash-in-buy-out payday? For years lawyers have been called out for excessive gathering of wealth from high bill rates and huge settlement deals, hiring out their knowledge and skills to the highest bidders. People call for them to do more for free, use the laws and their time to defend or further some cause thats in the public's best interest. Is professional software development that different? So many bright people and so much knowledge of complex systems. Do you think that there is enough of a "Pro Bono" movement to solve the social and public problems in the industry right now? If so what are the examples to point to? OLPC? NOTE: Saying that open source software is the same as pro bono misses the point completely. I was looking for specific projects with a social context, not just group-sourcing for free software. Just because your not making anyone pay for your software does not mean its doing anyone any good. I'm not calling out manual enforcement of pro bono work for programmers, really just want some objective opinions and concrete examples of social-minded software/tech development projects like the One Laptop Per Child project. I'm sure open source would be a natural tie-in for some.

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  • How to specify selector when CAKeyframeAnimation is finished?

    - by darenchow
    I'm using a CAKeyframeAnimation to animate a view along a CGPath. When the animation is done, I'd like to be able to call some other method to perform another action. Is there a good way to do this? I've looked at using UIView's setAnimationDidStopSelector:, however from the docs this looks like it only applies when used within a UIView animation block (beginAnimations and commitAnimations). I also gave it a try just in case, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's some sample code (this is within a custom UIView sub-class method): // These have no effect since they're not in a UIView Animation Block [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationDidStop:finished:context:)]; // Set up path movement CAKeyframeAnimation *pathAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"path"]; pathAnimation.calculationMode = kCAAnimationPaced; pathAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; pathAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; pathAnimation.duration = 1.0f; CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, self.center.x, self.center.y); // add all points to the path for (NSValue* value in myPoints) { CGPoint nextPoint = [value CGPointValue]; CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, nextPoint.x, nextPoint.y); } pathAnimation.path = path; CGPathRelease(path); [self.layer addAnimation:pathAnimation forKey:@"pathAnimation"]; A workaround I was considering that should work, but doesn't seem like the best way, is to use NSObject's performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:. As long as I set the delay equal to the duration of the animation, then it should be fine. Is there a better way? Thanks!

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  • Can someone describe the nested set model from a C#/LINQ perspective?

    - by Chad
    I know the nested set model doesn't pertain to the C# language or LINQ directly... it's what I'm using to develop my web app. For hierarchical data (categories with sub-categories in my case), I'm currently using something similar to the Adjacency List model. At the moment, I've only got 2 levels of categories, but I'd like to take it further and allow for n levels of categories using the nested set model. I'm not quite clear on how to use it in a C# context. Here's the article I'm reading on the nested set model. Though this article cleared up my confusion some, I still have a big ?? in my head: - Is inserting, updating or deleting categories tedious? It looks like the left and right numbers would require re-numbering... what would the LINQ queries look like for the following scenarios? Delete a child node (re-number all node's left/right values) Delete a parent node (what do you do with the orphans?) Move a child node to a different parent node (renumber again) If my understanding is correct, at all times the child node's left/right values will always be between the parent node's left/right values, am I correct? Seems easy enough, if only the categories were static... most likely I need to spend more time to get my head around the concept. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Adding a guideline to the editor in Visual Studio

    - by xsl
    Introduction I've always been searching for a way to make Visual Studio draw a line after a certain amount of characters: Below is a guide to enable these so called guidelines for various versions of Visual Studio. Visual Studio 2010 Install Paul Harrington's Editor Guidelines extension. Open the registry at HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\10.0\Text Editor and add a new string called Guides with the value RGB(100,100,100), 80. The first part specifies the color, while the other one (80) is the column the line will be displayed. Or install the Guidelines UI extension, which will add entries to the editor's context menu for adding/removing the entries without needing to edit the registry directly. The current disadvantage of this method is that you can't specify the column directly. Visual Studio 2008 and Other Versions If you are using Visual Studio 2008 open the registry at HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\Text Editor and add a new string called Guides with the value RGB(100,100,100), 80. The first part specifies the color, while the other one (80) is the column the line will be displayed. The vertical line will appear, when you restart Visual Studio. This trick also works for various other version of Visual Studio, as long as you use the correct path: 2003: HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\7.1\Text Editor 2005: HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\8.0\Text Editor 2008: HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VisualStudio\9.0\Text Editor 2008 Express: HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Software\Microsoft\VCExpress\9.0\Text Editor This also works in SQL Server 2005 and probably other versions.

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  • How best to embed multiple Flash Player instances using swfobject via a usercontrol?

    - by panamack
    I have a ListView on a Page within a MasterPage and some very ugly ugly autogenerated IDs. Such as..."ctl00_workbenchPlaceHolder_ListView1_ctrl1_LibItem2One" Using swfobject.embedSWF(...) requires me to hand over the id of a div on my page that can be replaced with object/embed markup depending on the browser context. My aim is to show the user a collection of video's they have uploaded to their website so they can review them and change some related data if desired. Hence the ListView which is populated via a SQLDataSource which currently provides a number of URLs pointing to .flv files. But it ain't gonna work if I put a <div id="replaceme"></div>' in my user control because I may then have more than one id="replaceme" and poor swfobject won't like it. So my evil solution is to put an <asp:Literal> in my usercontrol and build the script, function name and div tag id as a string. ApplyVideoConfiguration is called if the library object retreived from the database is a video and switches to the relevant View of a MultiView control. protected void ApplyVideoConfiguration() { MultiViewLibItem.ActiveViewIndex = 3; string functionName = "MakeFlashFor_" + this.ClientID; string divId = "fp" + this.ClientID; VideoScriptLiteral.Text = "<script type=\"text/javascript\">" + "Sys.Application.add_load(" + functionName + ");" + "function " + functionName + "(){" + "swfobject.embedSWF('PanamaVideoThumbnail.swf', '" + divId + "', '140', '127', '10');" + "};" + "</script>" + "<div id=\"" + divId + "\" ></div>" ; } I was wondering, just how bad a solution is this, I'm really completely inexperienced when it comes to best practices but my instincts are telling me this is bad, although it does succeed in the aim of embedding some Flash Player instances. Can anyone help me make it beautiful?

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  • MSMQ on Win2008 R2 won’t receive messages from older clients

    - by Graffen
    Hi all I'm battling a really weird problem here. I have a Windows 2008 R2 server with Message Queueing installed. On another machine, running Windows 2003 is a service that is set up to send messages to a public queue on the 2008 server. However, messages never show up on the server. I've written a small console app that just sends a "Hello World" message to a test queue on the 2008 machine. Running this app on XP or 2003 results in absolutely nothing. However, when I try running the app on my Windows 7 machine, a message is delivered just fine. I've been through all sorts of security settings, disabled firewalls on all machines etc. The event log shows nothing of interest, and no exceptions are being thrown on the clients. Running a packet sniffer (WireShark) on the server reveals only a little. When trying to send a message from XP or 2003 I only see an ICMP error "Port Unreachable" on port 3527 (which I gather is an MQPing packet?). After that, silence. Wireshark shows a nice little stream of packets when I try from my Win7 client (as expected - messages get delivered just fine from Win7). I've enabled MSMQ End2End logging on the server, but only entries from the messages sent from my Win7 machine are appearing in the log. So somehow it seems that messages are being dropped silently somewhere along the route from XP or 2003 to my 2008 server. Does anyone have any clues as to what might be causing this mysterious behaviour? -- Jesper

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  • Aliasing Resources (WPF)

    - by Noldorin
    I am trying to alias a resource in XAML, as follows: <UserControl.Resources> <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="newName" ResourceKey="oldName"/> </UserControl.Resources> oldName simply refers to a resource of type Image, defined in App.xaml. As far as I understand, this is the correct way to do this, and should work fine. However, the XAML code gives me the superbly unhelpful error: "The application XAML file failed to load. Fix errors in the application XAML before opening other XAML files." This appears when I hover over the StaticResourceExtension line in the code (which has a squiggly underline). Several other errors are generated in the actual Error List, but seem to be fairly irrelevant and nonsenical (such messages as "The name 'InitializeComponent' does not exist in the current context"), as they all disappear when the line is removed. I'm completely stumped here. Why is WPF complaining about this code? Any ideas as to a resolution please? Note: I'm using WPF in .NET 3.5 SP1. Update 1: I should clairfy that I do receive compiler errors (the aforementioned messages in the Error List), so it's not just a designer problem. Update 2: Here's the relevant code in full... In App.xaml (under Application.Resource): <Image x:Key="bulletArrowUp" Source="Images/Icons/bullet_arrow_up.png" Stretch="None"/> <Image x:Key="bulletArrowDown" Source="Images/Icons/bullet_arrow_down.png" Stretch="None"/> And in MyUserControl.xaml (under UserControl.Resources): <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="columnHeaderSortUpImage" ResourceKey="bulletArrowUp"/> <StaticResourceExtension x:Key="columnHeaderSortDownImage" ResourceKey="bulletArrowDown"/> These are the lines that generate the errors, of course.

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