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• MySql ODBC connection in VB6 on WinXP VERY slow. Other machines on same network are fast.

  - by Matthew

  Hi All, I have a VB6 application that has been performing very well. Recently, we upgraded our server to a Windows 2003 server. Migration of the databases and shares went well and we experienced no problems. Except one. And it has happened at multiple sites. I use the MySQL ODBC 5.1 connector to point to my MySQL database. On identical machines (as far as I can tell, they are client machines not ours), access to the DB is lightning fast on all but one computer. They use the same software and have the same connection strings. And I'm sure it's not the program, but the ODBC connection. When I press the 'Test Connection' button in the ODBC connection string window, it can take up to 10 seconds on the poorly performing machine to respond with a success. All the other computers are instantaneous. I have tried using ip address versus the machine name in the UDL, no change. I enabled option 256, which sped it up initially, but it's slow again. Most of the time on a restart the program will be fast for an hour or so then go slow again with the option 256 enabled. Frankly, I am out of ideas and willing to entertain any and all ideas or suggestions. This is getting pretty frustrating. Anyone ever experience anything like this?

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• PDFBox Pagebreak strange Nullpointer exception

  - by schneiti

  I currently try printing out text on multiple pages. For this, I count the number of rows and when they reach a fixed amount a method called pagebreakis executed. After the first pagebreak, when I try setting a font using contentstream.setFont(PDType1Font.HELVETICA, 12); it yields the following errormessage occuring at the described setFont-row. java.lang.NullPointerException at org.apache.pdfbox.pdmodel.edit.PDPageContentStream.setFont(PDPageContentStream.java:321) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.PDFDocumenter.drawBGCS(PDFDocumenter.java:781) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.PDFDocumenter.createPDFDocumentation(PDFDocumenter.java:205) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.MainClass.createPDFandOutput(MainClass.java:361) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.MainClass.start(MainClass.java:231) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.MainClass.main(MainClass.java:180) Below is the code that gets executed as the error occurs. ... // If Table gets to long for a page -> pagebreak: if(currentLines > 37) { pageBreak(currentLinePos); // TODO Currently causing app to crash } ... private void pageBreak(int currentLine) throws Exception { contentStream.endText(); contentStream.close(); // Create new page page = new PDPage(PDPage.PAGE_SIZE_A4); doc.addPage( page ); // Create a new font object selecting one of the PDF base fonts font = PDType1Font.HELVETICA; // Start a new content stream which will "hold" the to be created content contentStream = new PDPageContentStream(doc, page); currentLines = 0; mediabox = page.findMediaBox(); contentStream.beginText(); contentStream.moveTextPositionByAmount(startX, startY); contentStream.setFont(PDType1Font.HELVETICA, 12); } Now comes the strange thing: Debugging yields into nothing that is not set. I'll attach a screenshot for you right at the position where the error occurs:

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• What are CDN Best Practices?

  - by Wild Thing

  Hi, I have recently started using the Rackspace Cloudfiles CDN (Limelight), about which I have some questions: I am using jQuery, jQuery UI and jQuery tools in addition to custom JS code. Also, my site is written in ASP.Net, which means there is some ASP.Net generated JS code. Right now what I have done is that I have combined all of the js (including the jquery code), except the ASP.Net generated JS into one file. I am hosting this on the Rackspace CDN. I am wondering if it would make more sense to just get the jQuery, jQuery UI files from the Google hosted CDN (which I suspect would work very well in serving these files, since they will be in many users' cache already)? This would mean one extra HTTP request, so I'm not sure if it'll help. Right now I have multiple containers for my assets. For example, in Rackspace I have 3 containers: JS, CSS and Images. The URL subdomain for all 3 is different. Will that lead to a performance penalty? Should I just use one container (and thus one domain for the CDN)? Is there a way of having the MS ASP.Net generated JS loaded from MS CDN? Would this have a performance hit as per the above question? Thanks in advance, WT

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• .htaccess - alias all www-only requests to subdirectory

  - by CodeMoose

  Trying to install the wonderful Concrete5 CMS to use as my main site engine - the problem is it has about 15 different files and directories, and they clutter up my root. I'd really like to move it to a /_concrete/ subdirectory, and still maintain it in the domain root. htaccess has never been my strong suit - after a lot of research and learning, and a lot of error 500s, my frustration is overriding my pride and I'm posting here. Here's exactly what I'm trying to accomplish: Any requests that come through www.domain.com are forwarded to www.domain.com/_concrete/, except in the case of an existing file. The end-user URL shouldn't change - they will still see the site as www.domain.com, even though they're being served www.domain.com/_concrete/. Multiple subdomains exist on this site as sub-folders within the root - thus, only requests coming through www.domain.com should be redirected. Here's the closest I got with my htaccess, which produces an error 500: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^(www\.)?domain\.com [NC] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !^_concrete RewriteRule ^(.*)$ _concrete/$1 [L,QSA] This is the result of 4 hours of sweat and blood (mostly blood), so I have to be close. I'm hoping one of your fine minds can point out a stupid mistake and put this thing to rest swiftly. Thanks for your time! Addendum: I previously posted .htaccess - alias domain root to subfolder a while ago, which got me started. Please don't fall into the trap of thinking it's a duplicate.

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• Stuck in implementing Pagination in Android

  - by user443141

  I am implementing pagination for ListView in Android . I am extending the BaseAdapater class for customising the ListView. Already I have the code working fine for the Customised ListView. Below is the new requirement. 1I am fetching 6 items from server & displaying them . Now when the user scrolls to the 6th item(end of list) , I need to call the server to fetch the next 6 items & update the Listview I have overriden the methods ipublic void onScroll(AbsListView view, int firstVisibleItem,int visibleItemCount, int totalItemCount) iipublic void onScrollStateChanged(AbsListView view, int scrollState) In the first response from the server, I get the total no of pages from the server & for each time I call the server , I get the current page value . Kindly provide me the steps/sample code on how to check the last item of the list & update the list . The code should be iterative since I may need to call multiple times & fetch from server. Warm Regards, CB

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• Performance of inter-database query (between linked servers)

  - by Swoosh

  I have an import between 2 linked servers. I basically got to get the data from a multiple join into a table on my side. The current query is something like this: select a.* from db1.dbo.tbl1 a inner join db1.dbo.tbl2 on ... inner join db1.dbo.tbl3 on ... inner join db1.dbo.tbl4 on ... inner join db2.dbo.myside on ... db1 = linked server db2 = my own database After this one, I am using an insert into + select to add this data in my table which is located in db2. (usually few hundred records - this import running once a minute) My question is related to performance. The tables on the linked server (tbl1, tbl2, tbl3, tbl4) are huge tables, with millions of records, and it is slowing down the import process. I was told that, if I do the join on the "other" side (db1 - linked server) for example in a stored procedure, than, even if the query looks the same, it would run faster. Is that right? This is kinda hard to test. Note that the join contains a table from my database too. Also. are there other "tricks" I could use in order to make this run faster? Thanks

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• Printing an Image embedded into an asp.net page. C#

  - by user1683846

  I am looking to print using C#, micorsoft visual studio, asp.net. The goal:- I am trying to print all pages in a fax document. Format:- The fax document is received as a single .tiff file with multiple pages. What needs to be done:- I need to iterate each page in the .tiff image and print them all. // This function will iterate all pages, one at a time. // protected void PrintAll_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { // counts number of pages in the fax document.// int number = _FaxPages.Count; // for loop to iterate through each page. // for (int i = 0; i < number; i++) { string _FaxId = Page.Request["FaxId"]; _PageIndex = i; imgFax.ImageUrl = "ShowFax.ashx?n=" + _FaxId + "&f=" + _PageIndex + "&mw=750"; PrintAll.Attributes.Add("onclick", "return printing()"); } } and In my Java script I have: function printing() { window.print(); } Now the issues are: <1 The function only prints one page (the very last page of the tiff file)....and it prints the entire window and not just the embedded .tiff image in the entire web browser window. Any Ideas of how to go about just printing the .tiff embedded image instead of the entire web browser window. <2 Although my for loop iterates through the pages. The print function is only called after the loop has iterated through all the pages and stopped on the final page (say page 6/6). And then it only prints that last page (along with the rest of the contents on the browser window). This is not what I want to happen... I dont want to print all the excess material on the browser window such as buttons, links etc... I just want the embedded .tiff image from the browser window.

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• Why Is the sender type null when dealing with events

  - by ChloeRadshaw

  From C# Via CLR: Note A lot of people wonder why the event pattern requires the sender parameter to always be of type Object After all, since the MailManager will be the only type raising an event with a NewMail EventArgs object, it makes more sense for the callback method to be prototyped like this: void MethodName(Mai l Manager sender, NewMail EventArgs e); The pattern requires the sender parameter to be of type Object mostly because of inheritance What if Mai lManager were used as a base class for SmtpMailManager? In this case, the callback method should have the sender parameter prototyped as SmtpMailManager instead of Mail Manager, but this can’t happen because SmtpMai lManager just inherited the NewMai l event So the code that was expecting SmtpMail Manager to raise the event must still have to cast the sender argument to SmtpMailManager In other words, the cast is still required, so the sender parameter might as well be typed as Obj ect The next reason for typing the sender parameter as Obj ect is just fexibility It allows the delegate to be used by multiple types that offer an event that passes a NewMail EventArgs object For example, a PopMai lManager class could use the delegate even if this class were not derived from Mail Manager I just simply cannot understand why the sender is an object - Why can it not be generified? so most of the time we do not need to do generic casts

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• How can I join 3 tables with mysql & php?

  - by steven

  check out the page [url]http://www.mujak.com/test/test3.php[/url] It pulls the users Post,username,xbc/xlk tags etc which is perfect... BUT since I am pulling information from a MyBB bulletin board system, its quite different. When replying, people are are allowed to change the "Thread Subject" by simplying replying and changing it. I dont want it to SHOW the changed subject title, just the original title of all posts in that thread. By default it repies with "RE:thread title". They can easily edit this and it will show up in the "Subject" cell & people wont know which thread it was posted in because they changed their thread to when replying to the post. So I just want to keep the orginial thread title when they are replying. Make sense~?? Tables:mybb_users Fields:uid,username Tables:mybb_userfields Fields:ufid Tables:mybb_posts Fields:pid,tid,replyto,subject,ufid,username,uid,message Tables:mybb_threads Fields:tid,fid,subject,uid,username,lastpost,lastposter,lastposteruid I haev tried multiple queries with no success: $result = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM mybb_users LEFT JOIN (mybb_posts, mybb_userfields, mybb_threads) ON ( mybb_userfields.ufid=mybb_posts.uid AND mybb_threads.tid=mybb_posts.tid AND mybb_users.uid=mybb_userfields.ufid ) WHERE mybb_posts.fid=42"); $result = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM mybb_users LEFT JOIN (mybb_posts, mybb_userfields, mybb_threads) ON ( mybb_userfields.ufid=mybb_posts.uid AND mybb_threads.tid=mybb_posts.tid AND mybb_users.uid=mybb_posts.uid ) WHERE mybb_threads.fid=42"); $result = mysql_query(" SELECT * FROM mybb_posts LEFT JOIN (mybb_userfields, mybb_threads) ON ( mybb_userfields.ufid=mybb_posts.uid AND mybb_threads.tid=mybb_posts.tid ) WHERE mybb_posts.fid=42");

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• html in do_GET() method of a simple Python webserver

  - by Meeri_Peeri

  I am relatively new to Python but have been doing a lot of different things with it recently and I am liking it a lot. However, I ran into trouble/block with the following code. import http.server import socketserver import glob import random class Server(http.server.SimpleHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): self.send_response(200, 'OK') self.send_header('Content-type', 'html') self.end_headers() self.wfile.write(bytes("<html> <head><title> Hello World </title> </head> <body>", 'UTF-8')) images = glob.glob('*.jpg') rand = random.randint(0,len(images)-1) imagestring = "<img src = \"" + images[rand] + "\" height = 1028 width = 786 align = \"right\"/> </body> </html>" self.wfile.write(bytes(imagestring, 'UTF-8')) def serve_forever(port): socketserver.TCPServer(('', port), Server).serve_forever() if __name__ == "__main__": Server.serve_forever(8000) What I am trying to do here is grab a random image from multiple images in the directory and add it into the response to a web request. The code works fine but when I access the server via browser, the image is not displayed. The html of the page is as intended though. The permissions on the files are 755. Also I tried to create an index.html file in the do_GET method. That didn't work either. I mean the index.html was generated fine, but the response in the browser this time did not show anything (not even the hello world in the title). Am I missing anything very simple here? I was thinking should I overload the handle_request of the underlying SocketServer.BaseServer as the documentation says you should never override BaseHTTPServer's handle() method and should rather override the corresponding do_* method?

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• How to render all records from a nested set into a real html tree

  - by Christoph Schiessl

  I'm using the awesome_nested_set plugin in my Rails project. I have two models that look like this (simplified): class Customer < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :categories end class Category < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :customer # Columns in the categories table: lft, rgt and parent_id acts_as_nested_set :scope => :customer_id validates_presence_of :name # Further validations... end The tree in the database is constructed as expected. All the values of parent_id, lft and rgt are correct. The tree has multiple root nodes (which is of course allowed in awesome_nested_set). Now, I want to render all categories of a given customer in a correctly sorted tree like structure: for example nested <ul> tags. This wouldn't be too difficult but I need it to be efficient (the less sql queries the better). Update: Figured out that it is possible to calculate the number of children for any given Node in the tree without further SQL queries: number_of_children = (node.rgt - node.lft - 1)/2. This doesn't solve the problem but it may prove to be helpful.

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• Security strategies for storing password on disk

  - by Mike

  I am building a suite of batch jobs that require regular access to a database, running on a Solaris 10 machine. Because of (unchangable) design constraints, we are required use a certain program to connect to it. Said interface requires us to pass a plain-text password over a command line to connect to the database. This is a terrible security practice, but we are stuck with it. I am trying to make sure things are properly secured on our end. Since the processing is automated (ie, we can't prompt for a password), and I can't store anything outside the disk, I need a strategy for storing our password securely. Here are some basic rules The system has multiple users. We can assume that our permissions are properly enforced (ie, if a file with a is chmod'd to 600, it won't be publically readable) I don't mind anyone with superuser access looking at our stored password Here is what i've got so far Store password in password.txt $chmod 600 password.txt Process reads from password.txt when it's needed Buffer overwritten with zeros when it's no longer needed Although I'm sure there is a better way.

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• How can I write to a single xml file from two programs at the same time?

  - by Tom Bushell

  We recently started working with XML files, after many years of experience with the old INI files. My coworker found some CodeProject sample code that uses System.Xml.XmlDocument.Save. We are getting exceptions when two programs try to write to the same file at the same time. System.IO.IOException: The process cannot access the file 'C:\Test.xml' because it is being used by another process. This seems obvious in hindsight, but we had not anticipated it because accessing INI files via the Win32 API does not have this limitation. I assume there's some arbitration done by the Win32 calls that work at a higher level than the the XmlDocument.Save method. I'm hoping there are higher level XML routines somewhere in the .Net library that work similarily to the Win32 functions, but don't know where to start looking. Or maybe we can set up our file access permissions to allow multiple programs to write to the same file? Time is short (like almost all SW projects), and if we can't find a solution quickly, we'll have to hold our noses and go back to INI files.

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• Switch front-end's of a website after X amount of hits

  - by Derek Adair

  Sorry about the title - not sure what to call this one. A client of mine would like to redirect users to different front-ends of his eCommerce site based on a hit-counter (possibly a timer?). important: -The content is moderately different in the two sites, enough to consider them two different websites. Knowing this client he will likely add more drastic content changes and other front-ends. So for this question consider the content to be -This site has a rather large back-end. With affiliate networking, multiple payment gateways, order-tracking, and several other features in the works. It is essential that these two front-ends have identical back-end functionality I know that if it was just a simple CSS swap this would be as simple as an if statement that ran off some kind of counter stored in a DB... but the different HTML markup is throwing me for a loop. Q: How can I serve two different front-ends (HTML/CSS) based on a hit counter? Also, I don't have any clue what to tag this one as...

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• Get Youtube Video ID from html code with PHP

  - by asumaran

  I want to get all only youtube video ID from html code look the (or multiple) object/embed code for youtube video // html from database <p>loremm ipsum dolor sit amet enot <a href="link" attribute=""blah blah blah">anchor link</a> </p> <object width="425" height="344"> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/Ou5eVl5eqtg&hl=es_ES&fs=1&"></param> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param> <embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/Ou5eVl5eqtg&hl=es_ES&fs=1&" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="425" height="344"> </embed> </object> <image src="path/to/image.ext" > <p>lorem ipsum dolor sit amet... blah</p> <p>lorem ipsum dolor sit amet... blah</p> <object width="425" height="344"> <param name="movie" value="http://www.youtube.com/v/Ou5eVl5eqtg&hl=es_ES&fs=1&"></param> <param name="allowFullScreen" value="true"></param> <param name="allowscriptaccess" value="always"></param> <embed src="http://www.youtube.com/v/Ou5eVl5eqtg&hl=es_ES&fs=1&" type="application/x-shockwave-flash" allowscriptaccess="always" allowfullscreen="true" width="425" height="344"> </embed> </object> <p>blah</p> blah<br/> blah<br/> blah<br/>

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• Passing contextual info to Views in ASP.NET MVC

  - by Andrey

  I wonder - what is the best way to supply contextual (i.e. not related to any particular view, but to all views at the same time) info to a view (or to master page)? Consider the following scenario. Suppose we have an app that supports multiple UI languages. User can switch them via UI's widgets (something like tabs at the top of the page). Each language is rendered as a separate tab. Tab for the current language should not be rendered. To address these requirements I'm planning to have a javascript piece that will hide current's language tab on the client. To do this, I need current's language tab Id on the client. So, I need some way of passing the Id to master page (for it to be 'fused' into the js script). The best thing I can think of is that all my ViewModels should inherit some ViewModeBase that has a field to hold current language tab Id. Then, whatever View I'm rendering, this Id will always be available for the master page's hiding script. However, I'm concerned that this ViewModelBase can potentially grow in an uncontrolled fashion as number of such pieces of contextual info (like current language) will grow.. Any ideas?

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• Database schema to store AND, OR relation, association

  - by user455387

  Many thanks for your help on this. In order for an entreprise to get a call for tender it must meet certain requirements. For the first example the enterprise must have a minimal class 4, and have qualification 2 in sector 5. Minimal class is always one number. Qualification can be anything (single, or multiple using AND, OR logical operators) I have created tables in order to map each number to it's given name. Now I need to store requirements in the database. minimal class 4 Sector Qualification 5.2 minimal class 2 Sector Qualifications 3.9 and 3.10 minimal class 3 Sector Qualifications 6.1 or 6.3 minimal class 1 Sector Qualifications (3.1 and 3.2) or 5.6 class Domain < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :domain_classes has_many :domain_sectors has_many :sector_qualifications, :through => :domain_sectors end class DomainClass < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :domain end class DomainSector < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :domain has_many :sector_qualifications end class SectorQualification < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :domain_sector end create_table "domains", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" end create_table "domain_classes", :force => true do |t| t.integer "number" t.integer "domain_id" end create_table "domain_sectors", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.integer "number" t.integer "domain_id" end create_table "sector_qualifications", :force => true do |t| t.string "name" t.integer "number" t.integer "domain_sector_id" end

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• Is there a way to specify a per-host deploy_to path with Capistrano?

  - by Chad Johnson

  I have searched and searched and asked a question already and have not received a clear answer. I have the following deploy script (snippet): set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :app, "domain1.com", "domain2.com" role :db, "domain1.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true role :db, "domain2.com", :norelease => true As you see, I have set deploy_to to a specific path. And, I also have specified multiple web servers. However, each web server should have a different deployment path. I want to be able to run "cap deploy" and deploy to all hosts in one shot. I am NOT trying to deploy to staging and then to production. This is all production. My question is: how exactly do I specify a path per server? I have read the "Roles" documentation for Capistrano, and this is unclear. Can someone please post a deploy file example? I have read the documentation, and it is unclear how to do this. Does anyone know? Am I crazy? Am I thinking of this wrong or something? No answers anywhere online. Nowhere. Nothing. Please, someone help.

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• How do I add a where filter using the original Linq-to-SQL object in the following scenario

  - by GenericTypeTea

  I am performing a select query using the following Linq expression: Table<Tbl_Movement> movements = context.Tbl_Movement; var query = from m in movements select new MovementSummary { Id = m.DocketId, Created = m.DateTimeStamp, CreatedBy = m.Tbl_User.FullName, DocketNumber = m.DocketNumber, DocketTypeDescription = m.Ref_DocketType.DocketType, DocketTypeId = m.DocketTypeId, Site = new Site() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.SiteId, FirstLine = m.Tbl_Site.FirstLine, Postcode = m.Tbl_Site.Postcode, SiteName = m.Tbl_Site.SiteName, TownCity = m.Tbl_Site.TownCity, Brewery = new Brewery() { Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryId, BreweryName = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Brewery.BreweryName }, Region = new Region() { Description = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.Description, Id = m.Tbl_Site.Ref_Region.RegionId } } }; I am also passing in an IFilter class into the method where this select is performed. public interface IJobFilter { int? PersonId { get; set; } int? RegionId { get; set; } int? SiteId { get; set; } int? AssetId { get; set; } } How do I add these where parameters into my SQL expression? Preferably I'd like this done in another method as the filtering will be re-used across multiple repositories. Unfortunately when I do query.Where it has become an IQueryable<MovementSummary>. I'm assuming it has become this as I'm returning an IEnumerable<MovementSummary>. I've only just started learning LINQ, so be gentle.

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• Whether to put method code in a VB.Net data storage class, or put it in a separate class?

  - by Alan K

  TLDR summary: (a) Should I include (lengthy) method code in classes which may spawn multiple objects at runtime, (b) does doing so cause memory usage bloat, (c) if so should I "outsource" the code to a class that is loaded only once and have the class methods call that, or alternatively (d) does the code get loaded only once with the object definition anyway and I'm worrying about nothing? ........ I don't know whether there's a good answer to this but if there is I haven't found it yet by searching in the usual places. In my VB.Net (2010 if it matters) WinForms project I have about a dozen or so class objects in an object model. Some of these are pretty simple and do little more than act as data storage repositories. The ones further up the object model, however, have an increasing number of methods. There can be a significant number of higher level objects in use though the exact number will be runtime dependent so I can't be more precise than that. As I was writing the method code for one of the top level ones I noticed that it was starting to get quite lengthy. Memory optimisation is something of a lost art given how much memory the average PC has these days but I don't want to make my application a resource hog. So my questions for anyone who knows .Net way better than I do (of which there will be many) are: Is the code loaded into memory with each instance of the class that's created? Alternatively is it loaded only once with the definition of the class, and all derived objects just refer to that definition? (I'm not really sure how that could be possible given that, for example, event handlers can be assigned dynamically, but no harm asking.) If the answer to the first one is yes, would it be more efficient to write the code in a "utility" object which is loaded only once and called from the real class' methods? Any thoughts appreciated.

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• Entity Framework 4 Entity with EntityState of Unchanged firing update

  - by Andy

  I am using EF 4, mapping all CUD operations for my entities using sprocs. I have two tables, ADDRESS and PERSON. A PERSON can have multiple ADDRESS associated with them. Here is the code I am running: Person person = (from p in context.People where p.PersonUID == 1 select p).FirstOrDefault(); Address address = (from a in context.Addresses where a.AddressUID == 51 select a).FirstOrDefault(); address.AddressLn2 = "Test"; context.SaveChanges(); The Address being updated is associated with the Person I am retrieveing - although they are not explicitly linked in any way in the code. When the context.SaveChanges() executes not only does the Update sproc for my Address entity get fired (like you would expect), but so does the Update sproc for the Person entity - even though you can see there was no change made to the Person entity. When I check the EntityState of both objects before the context.SaveChanges() call I see that my Address entity has an EntityState of "Modified" and my Person enity has an EntityState of "Unchanged". Why is the Update sproc being called for the Person entity? Is there a setting of some sort that I can set to prevent this from happening?

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• Returning two or more values from a function

  - by cf_PhillipSenn

  I need to return multiple values from a ColdFusion function in an ajax callback function. Here's what I've got: $('input[name="StateName"]').live('change', function() { var StateID = $(this).parents('tr').attr('id'); var StateName = $(this).val(); $.ajax({ url: 'Remote/State.cfc' ,type: "POST" ,data: { 'method': 'UpdateStateName' ,'StateID': StateID ,'StateName': StateName } ,success: function(result){ if (isNaN(result)) { $('#msg').text(result).addClass('err'); } else { $('#' + result + ' input[name="StateName"]').addClass('changed'); }; } ,error: function(msg){ $('#msg').text('Connection error').addClass('err'); } }); }); If I trap a database error, then the success callback is fired, and the result is Not a Number (It is in fact, the text of the error message). I need the function to also pass back other values. One might be the primary key of the row that caused the error. Another might be the old StateName, so that I can refresh the old value on the screen so that the client will know absolutely for sure that their change did not take effect. I guess I'm breaking the rule of atomicity here and need to fix that, because I'm using result as both the primary key of the row that was updated, or it's the error message if the update fails. I need to return both the primary key and the error message.

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• Mixing together Connect by, inner join and sum with Oracle

  - by François

  Hey there, I need help with a oracle query. Excuse me in advance for my english. Here is my setup: I have 2 tables called respectively "tasks" and "timesheets". The "tasks" table is a recursive one, that way each task can have multiple subtasks. Each timesheet is associated with a task (not necessarily the "root" task) and contains the number of hours worked on it. Example: Tasks id:1 | name: Task A | parent_id: NULL id:2 | name: Task A1 | parent_id: 1 id:3 | name: Task A1.1 | parent_id: 2 id:4 | name: Task B | parent_id: NULL id:5 | name: Task B1 | parent_id: 4 Timesheets id:1 | task_id: 1 | hours: 1 id:2 | task_id: 2 | hours: 3 id:3 | task_id:3 | hours: 1 id:5 | task_id:5 | hours:1 ... What I want to do: I want a query that will return the sum of all the hours worked on a "task hierarchy". If we take a look at the previous example, It means I would like to have the following results: task A - 5 hour(s) | task B - 1 hour(s) At first I tried this SELECT TaskName, Sum(Hours) "TotalHours" FROM ( SELECT replace(sys_connect_by_path(decode(level, 1, t.name), '~'), '~') As TaskName, ts.hours as hours FROM tasks t INNER JOIN timesheets ts ON t.id=ts.task_id START WITH PARENTOID=-1 CONNECT BY PRIOR t.id = t.parent_id ) GROUP BY TaskName Having Sum(Hours) > 0 ORDER BY TaskName And it almost work. THe only problem is that if there are no timesheet for a root task, it will skip the whole hieararchy... but there might be timesheets for the child rows and it is exactly what happens with Task B1. I know it is the "inner join" part that is causing my problem but I'm not sure how can I get rid of it. Any idea how to solve this problem? Thank you

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• Unit Testing Interfaces in Python

  - by Nicholas Mancuso

  I am currently learning python in preperation for a class over the summer and have gotten started by implementing different types of heaps and priority based data structures. I began to write a unit test suite for the project but ran into difficulties into creating a generic unit test that only tests the interface and is oblivious of the actual implementation. I am wondering if it is possible to do something like this.. suite = HeapTestSuite(BinaryHeap()) suite.run() suite = HeapTestSuite(BinomialHeap()) suite.run() What I am currently doing just feels... wrong (multiple inheritance? ACK!).. class TestHeap: def reset_heap(self): self.heap = None def test_insert(self): self.reset_heap() #test that insert doesnt throw an exception... for x in self.inseq: self.heap.insert(x) def test_delete(self): #assert we get the first value we put in self.reset_heap() self.heap.insert(5) self.assertEquals(5, self.heap.delete_min()) #harder test. put in sequence in and check that it comes out right self.reset_heap() for x in self.inseq: self.heap.insert(x) for x in xrange(len(self.inseq)): val = self.heap.delete_min() self.assertEquals(val, x) class BinaryHeapTest(TestHeap, unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.inseq = range(99, -1, -1) self.heap = BinaryHeap() def reset_heap(self): self.heap = BinaryHeap() class BinomialHeapTest(TestHeap, unittest.TestCase): def setUp(self): self.inseq = range(99, -1, -1) self.heap = BinomialHeap() def reset_heap(self): self.heap = BinomialHeap() if __name__ == '__main__': unittest.main()

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• Will WCF allow me to use object references across boundries on objects that implement INotifyPropert

  - by zimmer62

  So I've created a series of objects that interact with a piece of hardware over a serial port. There is a thread running monitoring the serial port, and if the state of the hardware changes it updates properties in my objects. I'm using observable collections, and INotifyPropertyChanged. I've built a UI in WPF and it works great, showing me real time updating when the hardware changes and allows me to send changes to the hardware as well by changing these properties using bindings. What I'm hoping is that I can run the UI on a different machine than what the hardware is hooked up to without a lot of wiring up of events. Possibly even allow multiple UI's to connect to the same service and interact with this hardware. So far I understand I'm going to need to create a WCF service. I'm trying to figure out if I'll be able to pass a reference to an object created at the service to the client leaving events intact. So that the UI will really just be bound to a remote object. Am I moving the right direction with WCF? Also I see tons of examples for WCF in C#, are there any good practical use examples in VB that might be along the lines of what I'm trying to do?

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