Search Results

Search found 40052 results on 1603 pages for 'android version'.

Page 688/1603 | < Previous Page | 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695  | Next Page >

  • Pass checkbox values with Jquery to PHP and display result in div

    - by user1343955
    I want to filter realtime results with jQuery (just like on this site http://shop.www.hi.nl/hi/mcsmambo.p?M5NextUrl=RSRCH). So when someones checks a checkbox the results should update realtime (in a div). Now I'm a newbie with jQuery and I've tried lots of examples but I can't get it to work. Here's my code, could anyone tell what I'm doing wrong? Thank you very much! HTML <div id="c_b"> Kleur:<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="kleur[1]" value="Blauw"> Blauw <br /> <input type="checkbox" name="kleur[2]" value="Wit"> Wit <br /> <input type="checkbox" name="kleur[3]" value="Zwart"> Zwart <br /> <br /> Operating System:<br /> <input type="checkbox" name="os[1]" value="Android"> Android <br /> <input type="checkbox" name="os[2]" value="Apple iOS"> Apple iOS <br /> </div> <div id="myResponse">Here should be the result</div> jQuery function updateTextArea() { var allVals = []; $('#c_b :checked').each(function() { allVals.push($(this).val()); }); var dataString = $(allVals).serialize(); $.ajax({ type:'POST', url:'/wp-content/themes/u-design/filteropties.php', data: dataString, success: function(data){ $('#myResponse').html(data); } }); } $(document).ready(function() { $('#c_b input').click(updateTextArea); updateTextArea(); }); PHP //Just to see if the var passing works echo var_export($_POST);

    Read the article

  • Django Image Upload: IOErrno2 Could not find path -- and yet it's saving the image there anyway?

    - by Rob
    I have an issue where the local version of django is handling image upload as expected but my server is not. Note: I am using a Django Container on MediaTemple.net (grid server) Here is my code. def view_settings(request): <snip> if request.POST: success_msgs = () mForm = MainProfileForm(request.POST, request.FILES, instance = mProfile) pForm = ChangePasswordForm(request.POST) eForm = ChangeEmailForm(request.POST) if mForm.is_valid(): m = mForm.save(commit = False) if mForm.cleaned_data['avatar']: m.avatar = upload_photo(request.FILES['avatar'], settings.AVATAR_SAVE_LOCATION) m.save() success_msgs += ('profile pictured updated',) <snip> def upload_photo(data,saveLocation): savePath = os.path.join(settings.MEDIA_ROOT, saveLocation, data.name) destination = open(savePath, 'wb+') for chunk in data.chunks(): destination.write(chunk) destination.close() return os.path.join(saveLocation, data.name) Here's where it gets whacky and I was hoping someone could shed a light on this error, because either a) it's the wrong error code, or b) something is happening with the file before it's completely handled. To recap, the file was actually uploaded to the server in the intended directory - and yet this err msg continues to persist. IOError at /user/settings [Errno 2] No such file or directory: u'/home/user66666/domains/example.com/html/media/images/avatars/DSC03852.JPG' Environment: Request Method: POST Request URL: http://111.111.111.111:2011/user/settings Django Version: 1.0.2 final Python Version: 2.4.4 Installed Applications: ['django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'django.contrib.sites', 'ctrlme', 'usertools', 'easy_thumbnails'] Installed Middleware: ('django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware') Traceback: File "/home/user6666/containers/django/leonidas/usertools/views.py" in view_settings m.avatar = upload_photo(request.FILES['avatar'], settings.AVATAR_SAVE_LOCATION) File "/home/user666666/containers/django/leonidas/usertools/functions.py" in upload_photo destination = open(savePath, 'wb+')

    Read the article

  • How do I use the sed command to remove all lines between 2 phrases (including the phrases themselves

    - by fzkl
    I am generating a log from which I want to remove X startup output which looks like this: X.Org X Server 1.7.6 Release Date: 2010-03-17 X Protocol Version 11, Revision 0 Build Operating System: Linux 2.6.31-607-imx51 armv7l Ubuntu Current Operating System: Linux nvidia 2.6.33.2 #1 SMP PREEMPT Mon May 31 21:38:29 PDT 2010 armv7l Kernel command line: mem=448M@0M nvmem=64M@448M mem=512M@512M chipuid=097c81c6425f70d7 vmalloc=320M video=tegrafb console=ttyS0,57600n8 usbcore.old_scheme_first=1 tegraboot=nand root=/dev/nfs ip=:::::usb0:on rw tegra_ehci_probe_delay=5000 smp dvfs tegrapart=recovery:1b80:a00:800,boot:2680:1000:800,environment:3780:40:800,system:38c0:2bc00:800,cache:2f5c0:4000:800,userdata:336c0:c840:800 envsector=3080 Build Date: 23 April 2010 05:19:26PM xorg-server 2:1.7.6-2ubuntu7 (Bryce Harrington <[email protected]>) Current version of pixman: 0.16.4 Before reporting problems, check http://wiki.x.org to make sure that you have the latest version. Markers: (--) probed, (**) from config file, (==) default setting, (++) from command line, (!!) notice, (II) informational, (WW) warning, (EE) error, (NI) not implemented, (??) unknown. (==) Log file: "/var/log/Xorg.0.log", Time: Wed Jun 16 19:52:00 2010 (==) Using config file: "/etc/X11/xorg.conf" (==) Using config directory: "/usr/lib/X11/xorg.conf.d" Is there any way to do this without manually checking pattern for each line?

    Read the article

  • atrribute value using msxml from xml

    - by edwards
    Hi I have the folowing XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1" ?> - <DEVICEMESSAGES> <VERSION xml="1" checksum="" revision="0" envision="33050000" device="" /> <HEADER id1="0001" id2="0001" content="Nasher[<messageid>]: <!payload>" /> <MESSAGE level="7" parse="1" parsedefvalue="1" tableid="15" id1="24682" id2="24682" eventcategory="1003010000" content="Access to <webpage> was blocked due to its category (<info> by <hostname>)" /> </DEVICEMESSAGES> I am using the following xslt <xsl:stylesheet version="2.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="text"/> <xsl:strip-space elements="*"/> <xsl:template match="DEVICEMESSAGES"> <xsl:value-of select="@id2"/>,<xsl:text/> <xsl:value-of select="@content"/>,<xsl:text/> <xsl:text>&#xa;</xsl:text> </xsl:template> </xsl:stylesheet> when i use MSXML i just get ,, whereas i want to have something like id2, content 0001 , Nasher[]: "

    Read the article

  • Filling a byte array in Java

    - by Corleone
    Hey all! For part of a project I'm working on I am implementing a RTPpacket where I have to fill the header array of byte with RTP header fields. //size of the RTP header: static int HEADER_SIZE = 12; // bytes //Fields that compose the RTP header public int Version; // 2 bits public int Padding; // 1 bit public int Extension; // 1 bit public int CC; // 4 bits public int Marker; // 1 bit public int PayloadType; // 7 bits public int SequenceNumber; // 16 bits public int TimeStamp; // 32 bits public int Ssrc; // 32 bits //Bitstream of the RTP header public byte[] header = new byte[ HEADER_SIZE ]; This was my approach: /* * bits 0-1: Version * bit 2: Padding * bit 3: Extension * bits 4-7: CC */ header[0] = new Integer( (Version << 6)|(Padding << 5)|(Extension << 6)|CC ).byteValue(); /* * bit 0: Marker * bits 1-7: PayloadType */ header[1] = new Integer( (Marker << 7)|PayloadType ).byteValue(); /* SequenceNumber takes 2 bytes = 16 bits */ header[2] = new Integer( SequenceNumber >> 8 ).byteValue(); header[3] = new Integer( SequenceNumber ).byteValue(); /* TimeStamp takes 4 bytes = 32 bits */ for ( int i = 0; i < 4; i++ ) header[7-i] = new Integer( TimeStamp >> (8*i) ).byteValue(); /* Ssrc takes 4 bytes = 32 bits */ for ( int i = 0; i < 4; i++ ) header[11-i] = new Integer( Ssrc >> (8*i) ).byteValue(); Any other, maybe 'better' ways to do this?

    Read the article

  • ios 4.1 doesn't call Phonegap API

    - by Johannes Klauß
    I'm working on a cross platform app for Android 2.2 and iOS 4.1 (dev devices). On Android everything works fine (accelerometer and geolocation) even if it's a little laggy. On iOS it's way more smooth, but he doesn't call the Phonegap functions. That's my JS code: var watchID = null; var shaking = { left: false, right: true }; function startWatch() { // Update acceleration every 100 ms var options = { frequency : 100 }; watchID = navigator.accelerometer.watchAcceleration(function(acceleration) { if(acceleration.x < -8) { shaking.left = true; } else if(acceleration.x > 8) { shaking.right = true; } if(shaking.left && shaking.right) { navigator.notification.vibrate(500); shaking.left = false; shaking.right = false; stopWatch(); } }, null, options); } I just call it with <a href="" onclick="startWatch();">start Accel</a> But iOS doesn't react at all. Is there any special call you need to do in iOS?

    Read the article

  • Javascript Rich Display Component/Methodology

    - by Laramie
    quick back story-- I am working on ASP.Net based template editor that lets authors create text templates using Javascript inserted placeholder tags that will be filled in with dynamic text when the templates are used to display the final results. For example the author might create a template like The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. The application would eventually replace the tag with a dynamic word down the road (though it's not specifically relevant to this post) The word foo was generated dynmamically. Depending on the circumstances, the template may be created in a text input, textarea or a modified version of the Ajax Control Toolkit HTML Editor. There might be 40 or more of these editable elements on the page, so using lots of stripped down or modified HTML editors would probably bog the page down too much. The problem is that the tags such as [%12#add] are displayed inline with the user text and the result is confusing and aesthetically gross. The goal is parse the contens of the source element and when a tags such as [%12#add] are encountered, display something prettier and less cryptic to the user such as a stylable element or image wherever tags such as [%12#add] occur. The application still needs the template text with the tags on postback. So the user might see The word tag placeholder was generated dynamically. but the original template would still be the value of the text input box The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. It seems HTML editors like the ACT version and FckEditor accomplish this by rendering their output in an IFrame, but rather than kill myself trying to roll a lighter specialized version myself, I thought I'd ask if anyone knows of an existing free component or approach that has already tackled this. With good reason, I don't think S.O. allows HTML formatting, but the bold "tag placeholder" above would ideally be something like tag placeholder.

    Read the article

  • TFS Folders - Getting them to work like Subversion "Trunk/Tags/Branches"

    - by Sam Schutte
    I recently started using Team Foundation Server, and am having some trouble getting it to work the way I want it to. I've used Subversion for a couple years now, and love the way it works. I always set up three folders under each project, Trunk, Tags, and Branches. When I'm working on a project, all my code lives under a folder called "C:\dev\projectname". This "projectname" folder can be made to point to either trunk, or any of the branches or tags using Subversion (with the switch command). Now that I'm using TFS (my client's system), I'd like things to work the same way. I created a "Trunk" folder with my project in it, and mapped "Project/Trunk/Website" to "c:\dev\Website". Now, I want to make a release under the "tags" folder (located in "Project/Tags/Version 1.0/Website", and TFS is giving me the following error when I execute the branch command: "No appropriate mapping exists for $Project/tags/Version 1.0/Website" From what I can find on the internet, TFS expects you to have a mapping to your hard drive at the root of the project (the "Project" folder in my case), and then have all the source code that lives in trunk, tags and branches all pulled down to your hard drive. This sucks because it requires way too much stuff on your hard drive, and even worse, when you are working in a solution in Visual Studio, you won't be able to pull down "Version 2.0" and have all your project references to other projects work, because they'll all be pointing to "trunk" folders under the main folder, not just the main folder itself. What I want to do is have the root "Project/Website" folder on my hard drive, and be able to have it point to (mapped to) either tags, branches, or trunk, depending on what i'm doing, without having to screw around with fixing Visual Studio project references. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Get a "sqlceqp35.dll" error when debugging but not when running deployed code.

    - by nj
    In our current windows mobile project a problem while debugging recently arised. When trying to debug the code it throws an exception on the open command on a connection to the local database. The message is "A SQL Server Compact DLL could not be loaded. Reinstall SQL Server Compact Edition. [ DLL Name = sqlceqp35.dll ]". Sometime it's an unknow error instead, with reference to the same file. If you execute the binary, thats deployd during the debug, on the device it runs without any problem. I've tried: Reinstall both .net and sqlce on the device. Changed the "specific version" on the reference properties in the project. The hardware I'm using is a Motorola MC70 with Windows mobile 5.0. The target platform of the project is windows mobile 5.0. Any ideas on what might cause this problem? EDIT: When I tried it on a MC75 I can debug it. The MC70 got OS Version: 05.01.0478 and the MC75 05.01.0478. My best guess now is that it's someway related to the OS version or the actual device.

    Read the article

  • Need a SQL statement focus on combination of tables but entries always with uinque ID

    - by Registered User KC
    Hi All, I need SQL code to solve the tables combination problem, described on below: Table old data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/8/2010 1 B 0.1 on 6/8/2010 2 C 0.1 on 6/8/2010 3 D 0.1 on 6/8/2010 4 E 0.1 on 6/8/2010 5 F 0.1 on 6/8/2010 6 G 0.1 on 6/8/2010 7 Table new data: name version status lastupdate ID A 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #B entry deleted C 0.3 on 6/18/2010 #version_updated C1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 D 0.1 on 6/18/2010 E 0.1 off 6/18/2010 #status_updated F 0.1 on 6/18/2010 G 0.1 on 6/18/2010 H 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added H1 0.1 on 6/18/2010 #new_added the difference of new data and old date: B entry deleted C entry version updated E entry status updated C1/H/H1 entry new added What I want is always keeping the ID - name mapping relationship in old data table no matter how data changed later, a.k.a the name always has a unique ID number bind with it. If entry has update, then update the data, if entry is new added, insert to the table then give a new assigned unique ID. However, I can only use SQL with simple select or update statement then it may too hard for me to write such code, then I hope someone with expertise can give direction, no details needed on the different of SQL variant, a standard sql code as sample is enough. Thanks in advance! Rgs KC

    Read the article

  • Adding iPod Support to (previously) iPhone Only App

    - by rjstelling
    When I started on my current project, there was already an App in the App Store. This App was iPhone only. My first task was to test and build a version that also ran on an iPod Touch. About 3 weeks ago Apple removed the option on iTunes connect to set the device requirements. And sent an email out to all developers: "The App Store requires that you provide metadata about your application before submitting it. While most of this metadata is specified using the iPhone Developer Program Portal, the process for selecting device-related dependencies in iTunes Connect is no longer available. Instead, if your app relies on features that are specific to a device, such as the compass on iPhone 3GS, add the UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities key to your app's Info.plist file to indicate the specific hardware feature required." When I compiled the iPod compatible version I set the device requirements (UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities) in the info.plist to: location-services (gps or skyhook) wi-fi (any device) However, as the App was originally uploaded and the option for "iPhone only" set in iTunes connect this appears to be the default. The kicker is, because Apple have removed this feature there is no way to change it! Has anyone come up against this problem? And how did you solve it? Is it possible I have incorrect values in UIRequiredDeviceCapabilities? UPDATE: The app will run fine on a iPod Touch if installed as a development version via Xcode. The problem is on the App Store it is listed as iPhone only and when iPod Touch users search in the App store no results are returned.

    Read the article

  • IBM Worklight v6.1.0.1 : Error when using Ionic Framework with Worklight and run on IOS environment

    - by NickNguyen
    I have created demo app using Ionic with Worklight and it worked on Android but got error on IOS, when i used mobile browser simulator and debugged on IOS environment, i got the folowing error message: Uncaught InvalidCharacterError: Failed to execute 'add' on 'DOMTokenList': The token provided ('platform-ios - iphone') contains HTML space characters, which are not valid in tokens. I just add Ionic files in index.html: <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <meta charset="UTF-8"> <title>index</title> <meta name="viewport" content="width=device-width, initial-scale=1.0, maximum-scale=1.0, minimum-scale=1.0, user-scalable=0"> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="images/favicon.png"> <link rel="apple-touch-icon" href="images/apple-touch-icon.png"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/main.css"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="ionic/css/ionic.css"> <script src="ionic/js/ionic.bundle.js"></script> </head> <body style="display: none;"> <!--application UI goes here--> <div class="bar bar-header bar-positive"> <h1 class="title">bar-positive</h1> </div> <script src="js/initOptions.js"></script> <script src="js/main.js"></script> <script src="js/messages.js"></script> </body> </html> I also tested on mobile device on both Android and IOS and only got error on IOS device. I don't know how to fix this. Can anyone help? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to prevent git merge to merge a specific file from trunk into a branch and vice versa

    - by svenn
    Hi, I am using git while developing VHDL code. I am doing development on a component in a git branch: comp_dev. The component interface does not change, just the code inside the component. Now, this component already exists in the master branch, but in a more stable version, enough for other developers to be able to use the component. The other developers also have branches for their work, and when their code is good they merge their branches back to master. At this stage I need to be able to merge all the changes from master back to my comp_dev branch, which is basically no problem, but sometimes the stable version of the component I am working on do change as a part of other designers work, but not the interface. I have to do manual git merge -s ours on that particular file every time I want to merge, otherwise I get a conflict that I need to solve manually, throwing out their work. The same happens if I want to merge changes in other files back to master. If I forget to do git merge -s ours src/rx/state_machine.vhd comp_dev before I do a git merge, then I end up with either a manual merge, or I accidentally merge an unstable version of the state machine on top of the stable one. Is there a way to temporarily exclude one file from merges?

    Read the article

  • How to name multiple versioned ServiceContracts in the same WCF service?

    - by Tor Hovland
    When you have to introduce a breaking change in a ServiceContract, a best practice is to keep the old one and create a new one, and use some version identifier in the namespace. If I understand this correctly, I should be able to do the following: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "http://foo.com/2010/01/14")] public interface IVersionedService { [OperationContract] string WriteGreeting(Person person); } [ServiceContract(Name = "IVersionedService", Namespace = "http://foo.com/2010/02/21")] public interface IVersionedService2 { [OperationContract(Name = "WriteGreeting")] Greeting WriteGreeting2(Person2 person); } With this I can create a service that supports both versions. This actually works, and it looks fine when testing from soapUI. However, when I create a client in Visual Studio using "Add Service Reference", VS disregards the namespaces and simply sees two interfaces with the same name. In order to differentiate them, VS adds "1" to the name of one of them. I end up with proxies called ServiceReference.VersionedServiceClient and ServiceReference.VersionedService1Client Now it's not easy for anybody to see which is the newer version. Should I give the interfaces different names? E.g IVersionedService1 IVersionedService2 or IVersionedService/2010/01/14 IVersionedService/2010/02/21 Doesn't this defeat the purpose of the namespace? Should I put them in different service classes and get a unique URL for each version?

    Read the article

  • Can I add a condition to CakePHP's update statement?

    - by Don Kirkby
    Since there doesn't seem to be any support for optimistic locking in CakePHP, I'm taking a stab at building a behaviour that implements it. After a little research into behaviours, I think I could run a query in the beforeSave event to check that the version field hasn't changed. However, I'd rather implement the check by changing the update statement's WHERE clause from WHERE id = ? to WHERE id = ? and version = ? This way I don't have to worry about other requests changing the database record between the time I read the version and the time I execute the update. It also means I can do one database call instead of two. I can see that the DboSource.update() method supports conditions, but Model.save() never passes any conditions to it. It seems like I have a couple of options: Do the check in beforeSave() and live with the fact that it's not bulletproof. Hack my local copy of CakePHP to check for a conditions key in the options array of Model.save() and pass it along to the DboSource.update() method. Right now, I'm leaning in favour of the second option, but that means I can't share my behaviour with other users unless they apply my hack to their framework. Have I missed an easier option?

    Read the article

  • jboss Resteasy for java 5

    - by Anand
    Is there a resteasy version that runs on jdk 5 enviroment? I tried to compile my code in java 5 but it didnot work saying version problem. Is there a solution here? type Exception report message description The server encountered an internal error () that prevented it from fulfilling this request. exception javax.servlet.ServletException: Error instantiating servlet class org.jboss.resteasy.plugins.server.servlet.HttpServletDispatcher org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:117) org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:174) org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:879) org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11BaseProtocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.processConnection(Http11BaseProtocol.java:665) org.apache.tomcat.util.net.PoolTcpEndpoint.processSocket(PoolTcpEndpoint.java:528) org.apache.tomcat.util.net.LeaderFollowerWorkerThread.runIt(LeaderFollowerWorkerThread.java:81) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool$ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:689) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) root cause java.lang.UnsupportedClassVersionError: Bad version number in .class file (unable to load class javax.ws.rs.core.UriInfo) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClassInternal(WebappClassLoader.java:1964) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.findClass(WebappClassLoader.java:933) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1405) org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1284) java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClassInternal(ClassLoader.java:320) java.lang.Class.getDeclaredConstructors0(Native Method) java.lang.Class.privateGetDeclaredConstructors(Class.java:2357) java.lang.Class.getConstructor0(Class.java:2671) java.lang.Class.newInstance0(Class.java:321) java.lang.Class.newInstance(Class.java:303) org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:117) org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:174) org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:879) org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11BaseProtocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.processConnection(Http11BaseProtocol.java:665) org.apache.tomcat.util.net.PoolTcpEndpoint.processSocket(PoolTcpEndpoint.java:528) org.apache.tomcat.util.net.LeaderFollowerWorkerThread.runIt(LeaderFollowerWorkerThread.java:81) org.apache.tomcat.util.threads.ThreadPool$ControlRunnable.run(ThreadPool.java:689) java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:595) note The full stack trace of the root cause is available in the Apache Tomcat/5.5.31 logs.

    Read the article

  • QT QSslError being signaled with the error code set to NoError

    - by Nantucket
    My Problem I compiled OpenSSL into QT to enable OpenSSL support. Everything appeared to go correctly in the compile. However, when I try to use the official HTTP example application that can be found here, everytime I try to download an https page, it will signal two QSslError, each with contents NoError. The types of QSslErrors, including NoError, are documented here, poorly. There is no explanation on why they even included an error type called NoError, or what it means. Bizarrely, the NoError error code seems to be true, as it downloads the remote https document perfectly even while signaling the error. Does anyone have any idea what this means and what could possibly be causing it? Optional Background Reading Here is the relevant part of the code from the example app (this is connected to the network connection's sslErrors signal by the constructor): void HttpWindow::sslErrors(QNetworkReply*,const QList<QSslError> &errors) { QString errorString; foreach (const QSslError &error, errors) { if (!errorString.isEmpty()) errorString += ", "; errorString += error.errorString(); } if (QMessageBox::warning(this, tr("HTTP"), tr("One or more SSL errors has occurred: %1").arg(errorString), QMessageBox::Ignore | QMessageBox::Abort) == QMessageBox::Ignore) { reply->ignoreSslErrors(); } } I have tried the old version of this example, and it produced the same result. I have tried OpenSSL 1.0.0a and 0.9.8o. I have tried tried compiling OpenSSL myself, I have tried using pre-compiled versions of OpenSSL from the net. All produce the same result. If this were my first time using QT with SSL, I would almost think this is the intended result (even though their example application is popping up error warning message windows), if not for the fact that last time I played with QT, using what would now be an old version of QT with an old version of SSL, I distinctly remember everything working fine with no error windows. My system is running Windows 7 x64.

    Read the article

  • Mysql Database Question about Large Columns

    - by murat
    Hi, I have a table that has 100.000 rows, and soon it will be doubled. The size of the database is currently 5 gb and most of them goes to one particular column, which is a text column for PDF files. We expect to have 20-30 GB or maybe 50 gb database after couple of month and this system will be used frequently. I have couple of questions regarding with this setup 1-) We are using innodb on every table, including users table etc. Is it better to use myisam on this table, where we store text version of the PDF files? (from memory usage /performance perspective) 2-) We use Sphinx for searching, however the data must be retrieved for highlighting. Highlighting is done via sphinx API but still we need to retrieve 10 rows in order to send it to Sphinx again. This 10 rows may allocate 50 mb memory, which is quite large. So I am planning to split these PDF files into chunks of 5 pages in the database, so these 100.000 rows will be around 3-4 million rows and couple of month later, instead of having 300.000-350.000 rows, we'll have 10 million rows to store text version of these PDF files. However, we will retrieve less pages, so again instead of retrieving 400 pages to send Sphinx for highlighting, we can retrieve 5 pages and it will have a big impact on the performance. Currently, when we search a term and retrieve PDF files that have more than 100 pages, the execution time is 0.3-0.35 seconds, however if we retrieve PDF files that have less than 5 pages, the execution time reduces to 0.06 seconds, and it also uses less memory. Do you think, this is a good trade-off? We will have million of rows instead of having 100k-200k rows but it will save memory and improve the performance. Is it a good approach to solve this problem and do you have any ideas how to overcome this problem? The text version of the data is used only for indexing and highlighting. So, we are very flexible. Thanks,

    Read the article

  • Javascript Rich Display WYSIWYG Component/Methodology

    - by Laramie
    quick back story-- I am working on ASP.Net based template editor that lets authors create text templates using Javascript inserted placeholder tags that will be filled in with dynamic text when the templates are used to display the final results. For example the author might create a template like The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. The application would eventually replace the tag with a dynamic word down the road (though it's not specifically relevant to this post) The word foo was generated dynmamically. Depending on the circumstances, the template may be created in a text input, textarea or a modified version of the Ajax Control Toolkit HTML Editor. There might be 40 or more of these editable elements on the page, so using lots of stripped down or modified HTML editors would probably bog the page down too much. The problem is that the tags such as [%12#add] are displayed inline with the user text and the result is confusing and aesthetically gross. The goal is parse the contens of the source element and when a tags such as [%12#add] are encountered, display something prettier and less cryptic to the user such as a stylable element or image wherever tags such as [%12#add] occur. The application still needs the template text with the tags on postback. So the user might see The word tag placeholder was generated dynamically. but the original template would still be the value of the text input box The word [%12#add] was generated dynamically. It seems HTML editors like the ACT version and FckEditor accomplish this by rendering their output in an IFrame, but rather than kill myself trying to roll a lighter specialized version myself, I thought I'd ask if anyone knows of an existing free component or approach that has already tackled this. With good reason, I don't think S.O. allows HTML formatting, but the bold "tag placeholder" above would ideally be something like tag placeholder.

    Read the article

  • Applet Not Loading In Java 1.6.0_16

    - by Wayne Hartman
    I am running a Java applet compiled in 1.5 and am experiencing odd behavior when running it on computers running 1.6.0_07 and 1.6.0_16. On the *_07 version, the applet initializes and loads in the browser perfectly fine. However, computers with the *_16 are not loading at all. Even more strange, there is nothing in the Java Console to indicate any problems will loading the applet in the browser. If I run the applet from as a standalone app on said machines, it loads up just fine. The compatibility mode in the JNLP is set to 1.5+. Firefox reports no errors attempting to load the applet. Even with full tracing and logging set to all, nothing is reported in the console window. Quick facts: The JAR is signed Compiled in 1.5 Works flawlessly in browsers (FF & IE) running *_07 Does not work in browsers (FF & IE) running *_16 Works running as stand alone app in *_16 JNLP set to 1.5+ Clients are mixed *_07, *_16, and other version of 1.6 Things I have tried: Forcing the JVM to use version 1.6.0_07. This requires the user to download *_07. In my situation this is not an option, unfortunately. Ran the app on *_16 as a standalone app. This works fine, but this needs to run as an applet. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Deploy GWT Application to Google App Engine using NetBeans

    - by Yan Cheng CHEOK
    Hello, I try to deploy a GWT application, to Google App Engine using NetBeans. I had successful run GWT sample http://code.google.com/webtoolkit/doc/latest/tutorial/create.html using Personal GlassFish v3 Prelude Domain, by 1) Copy generated source code from StockWatcher to C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\src\java\com\google\ 2) Modify C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\nbproject\gwt.properties gwt.module=com.google.gwt.stockwatcher.StockWatcher 3) Select Personal GlassFish v3 Prelude Domain, and run. All works fine! Now, I try to select Google App Engine server, and run. However, I get the error "There is no appengine web project opened!" I check... There is file called C:\Projects\StockWatcherNetbeans\war\WEB-INF\appengine-web.xml with content <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <appengine-web-app xmlns="http://appengine.google.com/ns/1.0" xmlns:xsi='http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance' xsi:schemaLocation='http://kenai.com/projects/nbappengine/downloads/download/schema/appengine-web.xsd appengine-web.xsd'> <application>StockWatcherNetbeans</application> <version>1</version> </appengine-web-app> I am using NetBeans 6.7.1 GWT4NB (GWT Plugin for NetBeans) 2.6.12 Google App Engine plugin for NetBeans from http://kenai.com/downloads/nbappengine/1.0_NetBeans671/updates.xml Anything I had missed out? Even when I right click to the project, the Deploy to Google App Engine options is disabled. And yes, please do not ask me why not use Eclipse.

    Read the article

  • Delete throws "deleted object would be re-saved by cascade"

    - by Greg
    I have following model: <class name="Person" table="Person" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- plus some properties here --> </class> <class name="Event" table="Event" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <!-- plus some properties here --> </class> <class name="PersonEventRegistration" table="PersonEventRegistration" optimistic-lock="version"> <id name="Id" type="Int32" unsaved-value="0"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="IsComplete" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> <property name="RegistrationDate" type="DateTime" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person" column="PersonId" foreign-key="FK_PersonEvent_PersonId" cascade="all-delete-orphan" /> <many-to-one name="Event" class="Event" column="EventId" foreign-key="FK_PersonEvent_EventId" cascade="all-delete-orphan" /> </class> There are no properties pointing to PersonEventRegistration either in Person nor in Event. When I try to delete an entry from PersonEventRegistration, I get the following error: "deleted object would be re-saved by cascade" The problem is, I don't store this object in any other collection - the delete code looks like this: public bool UnregisterFromEvent(Person person, Event entry) { var registrationEntry = this.session .CreateCriteria<PersonEventRegistration>() .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Person", person)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("Event", entry)) .Add(Restrictions.Eq("IsComplete", false)) .UniqueResult<PersonEventRegistration>(); bool result = false; if (null != registrationEntry) { using (ITransaction tx = this.session.BeginTransaction()) { this.session.Delete(registrationEntry); tx.Commit(); result = true; } } return result; } What am I doing wrong here?

    Read the article

  • Why does my .NET 4 application know .NET 4 is not installed

    - by Tergiver
    I developed an application that targeted .NET 4 the other day and XCOPY-installed it to a Windows XP machine. I had told the owner of the machine that they would need to install .NET Framework 4 to run my app and he told me he did (not a reliable source). When I ran the application I was presented with a message box that said this app requires .NET Framework 4, would I like to install it? Clicking the Yes button took me to the Microsoft web site and a few clicks later .NET 4 was installed, and the application successfully launched. Now I normally don't develop applications that target the latest version of .NET, I always target the lowest version I can (what features do I really need?). So this was my first .NET 4 app (and I only targeted 4 because it used a library that did). In the past, XCOPY-installing .NET applications to a machine that didn't have the correct version of .NET installed resulted in the application simply crashing on startup with no useful information presented to the user. Was it built into my app because I targeted .NET X? Was it something already installed on the target machine? I love the feature, I just want to know precisely how to leverage it in the future.

    Read the article

  • Chrome is leaking memory, when jQuery is used on events?

    - by user269386
    Hi, I'm experiencing an increase of memory usage, when I use the jQuery-eventhandling in Chrome. I've tested it with IE and FF as well, but there I couldn't see a suspicious rise of memory-usage, compared to Chrome. I'm using Chrome version 4.0.223.16 (unfortunately I'm forced to use this version, here) Simple example here. Just scroll with the mousewheel in the red box and open the Chrome-taskmanager and you will see an increase of memory which won't be released anymore: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/libs/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery(function () { jQuery("#div1").bind("mousewheel", function (event) { event.preventDefault(); }); }); </script> </head> <body> <div id="div1" style="width: 100px; height: 100px; background-color: red;"></div> </body> </html> Does anyone have experienced the same problem (or is it maybe solvend with a different version of chrome)? And does anyone have a fix for it? thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET web setup class is not defined

    - by Wayne Werner
    Hi, I've got an ASP.NET application that I installed by creating a web setup. I ran into a problem where ASP.NET wasn't registered with IIS so it gave me a "installation was interrupted" message that told me exactly nothing. Anyhow, I finally got it installed, and I can access the main page, but it's telling me that my class isn't defined. The dll is in the same directory as the Default.aspx page Here's the main error information Compiler Error Message: BC30002: Type 'SIValidator.SIValidator' is not defined. Source Error: Line 4: Line 5: <script runat="server"> Line 6: Dim validator As New SIValidator.SIValidator() Line 7: Protected table As New arrayList() Line 8: Protected countyByDistrict As New Hashtable() Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.1873; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.1433 Am I doing it wrong? Is there some obscure setting that may not be set? I'm completely new to this VS deployment deal, so I'm trying to learn the right terms to ask the right questions... Thanks for any help edit: As an aside, when I searched google 5 minutes later, this entry came up as the first result. Would have been awesome if there was an answer for me then :P

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 684 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695  | Next Page >