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  • Creating Membership Tables, SPROCs, Views in Attached DB

    - by azamsharp
    I have AdventureWorks database mdf file in my VS 2010 project. Is there anyway I can create Membership tables inside my AdventureWorks database. I know I can detach the database attach in SQL SERVER 2008. Create the tables and then detach. But I don't have SQL SERVER 2008 and I want to see if this can be done using command line tool. I tried this but no use: aspnet_regsql.exe -d AdventureWorks.mdf -A mr -E -S .\SQLEXPRESS Update: If I right click and see the properties of the AdventureWorks.mdf database then it shows the name as "C4BE6C8DA139A060D14925377A7E63D0_64A_10\ADVENTUREWORKSWEBFORMS\ADVENTUREWORKSWEBFORMS\ADVENTUREWORKS\APP_DATA\ADVENTUREWORKS.MDF" This is interesting!

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  • How to avoid chaotic ASP.NET web application deployment?

    - by emzero
    Ok, so here's the thing. I'm developing an existing (it started being an ASP classic app, so you can imagine :P) web application under ASP.NET 4.0 and SQLServer 2005. We are 4 developers using local instances of SQL Server 2005 Express, having the source-code and the Visual Studio database project This webapp has several "universes" (that's how we call it). Every universe has its own database (currently on the same server) but they all share the same schema (tables, sprocs, etc) and the same source/site code. So manually deploying is really annoying, because I have to deploy the source code and then run the sql scripts manually on each database. I know that manual deploying can cause problems, so I'm looking for a way of automating it. We've recently created a Visual Studio Database Project to manage the schema and generate the diff-schema scripts with different targets. I don't have idea how to put the pieces together I would like to: Have a way to make a "sync" deploy to a target server (thanksfully I have full RDC access to the servers so I can install things if required). With "sync" deploy I mean that I don't want to fully deploy the whole application, because it has lots of files and I just want to deploy those new or changed. Generate diff-sql update scripts for every database target and combine it to just 1 script. For this I should have some list of the databases names somewhere. Copy the site files and executing the generated sql script in an easy and automated way. I've read about MSBuild, MS WebDeploy, NAnt, etc. But I don't really know where to start and I really want to get rid of this manual deploy. If there is a better and easier way of doing it than what I enumerated, I'll be pleased to read your option. I know this is not a very specific question but I've googled a lot about it and it seems I cannot figure out how to do it. I've never used any automation tool to deploy. Any help will be really appreciated, Thank you all, Regards

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  • environment change in rake task

    - by Mellon
    I am developing Rails v2.3 app with MySQL database and mysql2 gem. I faced a weird situation which is about changing the environment in rake task. (all my setting and configurations for environment and database are correct, no problem for that.) Here is my simple story : I have a rake task like following: namespace :db do task :do_something => :environment do #1. run under 'development' environment my_helper.run_under_development_env #2. change to 'custom' environment RAILS_ENV='custom' Rake::Task['db:create'] Rake::Task['db:migrate'] #3. change back to 'development' environment RAILS_ENV='development' #4. But it still run in 'customer' environment, why? my_helper.run_under_development_env end end The rake task is quite simple, what it does is: 1. Firstly, run a method from my_helper under "development" environment 2. Then, change to "custom" environment and run db:create and db:migrate until now, everything is fine, the environment did change to "custom" 3. Then, change it back again to "development" environment 4. run helper method again under "development" environment But, though I have changed the environment back to "development" in step 3, the last method still run in "custom" environment, why? and how to get rid of it? --- P.S. --- I have also checked a post with the similar situation here, and tried to use the solution there like (in step 2): ActiveRecord::Base.establish_connection('custom') Rake::Task['db:create'] Rake::Task['db:migrate'] to change the database connection instead of changing environment but, the db:create and db:migrate will still run under "development" database, though the linked post said it should run for "custom" database... weird

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  • TCL tDom Empty XML Tag

    - by pws5068
    I'm using tDom to loop through some XML and pull out each element's text(). set xml { <systems> <object> <type>Hardware</type> <name>Server Name</name> <attributes> <vendor></vendor> </attributes> </object> <object> <type>Hardware</type> <name>Server Two Name</name> <attributes> <vendor></vendor> </attributes> </object> </systems> }; set doc [dom parse $xml] set root [$doc documentElement] set nodeList [$root selectNodes /systems/object] foreach node $nodeList { set nType [$node selectNodes type/text()] set nName [$node selectNodes name/text()] set nVendor [$node selectNodes attributes/vendor/text()] # Etc... puts "Type: " puts [$nType data] # Etc .. puts [$nVendor data] } But when it tries to print out the Vendor, which is empty, it thows the error invalid command name "". How can I ignore this and just set $nVendor to an empty string?

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  • PHP - warning - Undefined property: stdClass - fix?

    - by Phill Pafford
    I get this warning in my error logs and wanted to know how to correct this issues in my code. Warning: PHP Notice: Undefined property: stdClass::$records in script.php on line 440 Some Code: // Parse object to get account id's // The response doesn't have the records attribute sometimes. $role_arr = getRole($response->records); // Line 440 Response if records exists stdClass Object ( [done] => 1 [queryLocator] => [records] => Array ( [0] => stdClass Object ( [type] => User [Id] => [any] => stdClass Object ( [type] => My Role [Id] => [any] => <sf:Name>My Name</sf:Name> ) ) ) [size] => 1 ) Response if records does not exist stdClass Object ( [done] => 1 [queryLocator] => [size] => 0 ) I was thinking something like array_key_exists() functionality but for objects, anything? or am I going about this the wrong way?

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  • Modelling boost::Lockable with semaphore rather than mutex (previously titled: Unlocking a mutex fr

    - by dan
    I'm using the C++ boost::thread library, which in my case means I'm using pthreads. Officially, a mutex must be unlocked from the same thread which locks it, and I want the effect of being able to lock in one thread and then unlock in another. There are many ways to accomplish this. One possibility would be to write a new mutex class which allows this behavior. For example: class inter_thread_mutex{ bool locked; boost::mutex mx; boost::condition_variable cv; public: void lock(){ boost::unique_lock<boost::mutex> lck(mx); while(locked) cv.wait(lck); locked=true; } void unlock(){ { boost::lock_guard<boost::mutex> lck(mx); if(!locked) error(); locked=false; } cv.notify_one(); } // bool try_lock(); void error(); etc. } I should point out that the above code doesn't guarantee FIFO access, since if one thread calls lock() while another calls unlock(), this first thread may acquire the lock ahead of other threads which are waiting. (Come to think of it, the boost::thread documentation doesn't appear to make any explicit scheduling guarantees for either mutexes or condition variables). But let's just ignore that (and any other bugs) for now. My question is, if I decide to go this route, would I be able to use such a mutex as a model for the boost Lockable concept. For example, would anything go wrong if I use a boost::unique_lock< inter_thread_mutex for RAII-style access, and then pass this lock to boost::condition_variable_any.wait(), etc. On one hand I don't see why not. On the other hand, "I don't see why not" is usually a very bad way of determining whether something will work. The reason I ask is that if it turns out that I have to write wrapper classes for RAII locks and condition variables and whatever else, then I'd rather just find some other way to achieve the same effect. EDIT: The kind of behavior I want is basically as follows. I have an object, and it needs to be locked whenever it is modified. I want to lock the object from one thread, and do some work on it. Then I want to keep the object locked while I tell another worker thread to complete the work. So the first thread can go on and do something else while the worker thread finishes up. When the worker thread gets done, it unlocks the mutex. And I want the transition to be seemless so nobody else can get the mutex lock in between when thread 1 starts the work and thread 2 completes it. Something like inter_thread_mutex seems like it would work, and it would also allow the program to interact with it as if it were an ordinary mutex. So it seems like a clean solution. If there's a better solution, I'd be happy to hear that also. EDIT AGAIN: The reason I need locks to begin with is that there are multiple master threads, and the locks are there to prevent them from accessing shared objects concurrently in invalid ways. So the code already uses loop-level lock-free sequencing of operations at the master thread level. Also, in the original implementation, there were no worker threads, and the mutexes were ordinary kosher mutexes. The inter_thread_thingy came up as an optimization, primarily to improve response time. In many cases, it was sufficient to guarantee that the "first part" of operation A, occurs before the "first part" of operation B. As a dumb example, say I punch object 1 and give it a black eye. Then I tell object 1 to change it's internal structure to reflect all the tissue damage. I don't want to wait around for the tissue damage before I move on to punch object 2. However, I do want the tissue damage to occur as part of the same operation; for example, in the interim, I don't want any other thread to reconfigure the object in such a way that would make tissue damage an invalid operation. (yes, this example is imperfect in many ways, and no I'm not working on a game) So we made the change to a model where ownership of an object can be passed to a worker thread to complete an operation, and it actually works quite nicely; each master thread is able to get a lot more operations done because it doesn't need to wait for them all to complete. And, since the event sequencing at the master thread level is still loop-based, it is easy to write high-level master-thread operations, as they can be based on the assumption that an operation is complete when the corresponding function call returns. Finally, I thought it would be nice to use inter_thread mutex/semaphore thingies using RAII with boost locks to encapsulate the necessary synchronization that is required to make the whole thing work.

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  • Spring validation errors not displayed

    - by Art Vandelay
    I have the following situation. I have a validator to validate my command object and set the errors on a Errors object to be displayed in my form. The validator is invoked as expected and works okay, but the errors i set on the Errors objects are not displayed, when i am sent back to my form because of the validation errors. Validator: public void validate(Object obj, Errors err) { MyCommand myCommand = (MyCommand) obj; int index = 0; for (Field field : myCommand.getFields()) { if (field.isChecked()) { if ((field.getValue() == null) || (field.getValue().equals(""))) { err.rejectValue("fields[" + index + "].value", "errors.missing"); } } index++; } if (myCommand.getLimit() < 0) { err.rejectValue("limit", "errors.invalid"); } } Command: public class MyCommand { private List<Field> fields; private int limit; //getters and setters } public class Field { private boolean checked; private String name; private String value; //getters and setters } Form: <form:form id="myForm" method="POST" action="${url}" commandName="myCommand"> <c:forEach items="${myCommand.fields}" var="field" varStatus="status"> <form:checkbox path="fields[${status.index}].checked" value="${field.checked}" /> <c:out value="${field.name}" /> <form:input path="fields[${status.index}].value" /> <form:errors path="fields[${status.index}].value" cssClass="error" /></td> <form:hidden path="fields[${status.index}].name" /> </c:forEach> <fmt:message key="label.limit" /> <form:input path="limit" /> <form:errors path="limit" cssClass="error" /> </form:form> Controller: @RequestMapping(value = REQ_MAPPING, method = RequestMethod.POST) public String onSubmit(Model model, MyCommand myCommand, BindingResult result) { // validate myCommandValidator.validate(myCommand, result); if (result.hasErrors()) { model.addAttribute("myCommand", myCommand); return VIEW; } // form is okay, do stuff and redirect } Could it be that the paths i give in the validator and tag are not correct? The validator validates a command object containing a list of objects, so that's why i give a index on the list in the command object when registering an error message (for example: "fields["+index+"]".value). Or is it that the Errors object containing the errors is not available to my view? Any help is welcome and appreciated, it might give me a hint or point me in right direction.

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  • Access to Apache::DBI from DBI

    - by hpavc
    Is it possible to access a Apache::DBI database handle from a perl script (that isn't running under mod_perl). What I am looking for is database pooling for my perl scripts, I have a fair number of database sources (oracle/mysql) and a growing number of scripts. Some ideas like SQLRelay, using Oracle10XE with database links and pooling, and or convert all scripts to SOAP calls, etc are becoming more and more viable. But if there was a mechanism for reusing Apache::DBI I could fight this a bit. I have no non-perl requirements, so we don't have a php/jdbc implementation or similar to deal with. Thanks

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  • Appending data to NSFetchedResultsController during find or create loop

    - by Justin Williams
    I have a table view that is managed by an NSFetchedResultsController. I am having an issue with a find-or-create operation, however. When the user hits the bottom of my table view, I am querying my server for another batch of content. If it doesn't exist in the local cache, we create it and store it. If it does exist, however, I want to append that data to the fetched results controller and display it. I can't quite figure that part out. Here's what I'm doing thus far: Passing the returned array of values from my server to an NSOperation to process. In the operation, create a new managed object context to work with. In the operation, I iterate through the array and execute a fetch request to see if the object exists (based on its server id). If the object doesn't exist, we create it and insert it into the operations' managed object context. After the iteration completes, we save the managed object context, which triggers a merge notification on my main thread. At this point, any objects that weren't locally cached in my Core Data store before will appear, but the ones that previously existed do not come along for the ride. I feel like it's something simple I'm missing, and could use a nudge in the right direction.

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  • How to draw multiple rectangles using c#

    - by Nivas
    I have drawn and saved the Rectangle on the image i loaded in the picture box. How i like to draw multiple rectangles for that i tried array in the rectangle but it gives error ("Object reference not set to an instance of an object." (Null reference Exception was unhandled). private void pictureBox1_MouseDown(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (mybitmap == null) { mybitmap = new Bitmap(sz.Width, sz.Height); } rect[count] = new Rectangle(e.X, e.Y, 0, 0); this.Invalidate(); } private void pictureBox1_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { switch (e.Button) { case MouseButtons.Left: { rect[count] = new Rectangle(rect[count].Left, rect[count].Top, e.X - rect[count].Left, e.Y - rect[count].Top); pictureBox1.Invalidate(); count++: break; } } } } private void pictureBox1_Paint(object sender, PaintEventArgs e) { if (stayToolStripMenuItem.Checked == true) { button1.Visible = true; button2.Visible = true; if (mybitmap == null) { return; } using (g = Graphics.FromImage(mybitmap)) { using (Pen pen = new Pen(Color.Red, 2)) { //g.Clear(Color.Transparent); e.Graphics.DrawRectangle(pen, rect); label1.Top = rect[count].Top; label1[count].Left = rect[count].Left; label1.Width = rect[count].Width; label1.Height = rect[count].Height; if (label1.TextAlign == ContentAlignment.TopLeft) { e.Graphics.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawString(label1.Text, label1.Font, new SolidBrush(label1.ForeColor), rect); g.DrawRectangle(pen, rect[count]); } } } } } How can i do this.....

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  • How to generate a key for a group entity?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I'm trying to make a group entity. Something like: class User { } class UserColor { } ... Key key = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username). .addChild(UserColor.class.getSimpleName(), ???).getKey(); I know the unique username up-front to use for the key of the User object. But I just want app engine to generate a random unique value for the key value of the UserColor instance. I think this is described here, but I don't understand their wording: http://code.google.com/appengine/docs/java/datastore/transactions.html To create an object with a system-generated numeric ID and an entity group parent, you must use an entity group parent key field (such as customerKey, above). Assign the key of the parent to the parent key field, then leave the object's key field set to null. When the object is saved, the datastore populates the key field with the complete key, including the entity group parent. and this is their example: @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key customerKey; but I don't understand - should UserColor look like this then?: class UserColor { @Persistent @Extension(vendorName="datanucleus", key="gae.parent-pk", value="true") private Key mKeyParent; @Primary private Key mKey; // leave null } ... Key keyParent = new KeyFactory.Builder( User.class.getSimpleName(), username); UserColor uc = new UserColor(); uc.setKeyParent(keyParent); pm.makePersistent(uc); // now generated for me automatically? is that correct? Using this method, I should be able to use a User and a UserColor object in a transaction together, right? Thanks

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  • Save entity with entity framework

    - by Michel
    Hi, I'm saving entities/records with the EF, but i'm curious if there is another way of doing it. I receive a class from a MVC controller method, so basicly i have all the info: the class's properties, including the primary key. Without EF i would do a Sql update (update table set a=b, c=d where id = 5), but with EF i got no further than this: Get an object with ID of 5 Update the (existing) object with the new object Submitchanges. What bothers me is that i have to get the object from the database first, where i have all the info to do an update statement. Is there another way of doing this?

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  • Android - MapView contained within a Listview

    - by Ryan
    Hello, Currently I am trying to place a MapView within a ListView. Has anyone had any success with this? Is it even possible? Here is my code: ListView myList = (ListView) findViewById(android.R.id.list); List<Map<String, Object>> groupData = new ArrayList<Map<String, Object>>(); Map<String, Object> curGroupMap = new HashMap<String, Object>(); groupData.add(curGroupMap); curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.back_icon); curGroupMap.put("NAME","Go Back"); curGroupMap.put("VALUE","By clicking here"); Iterator it = data.entrySet().iterator(); while (it.hasNext()) { //Get the key name and value for it Map.Entry pair = (Map.Entry)it.next(); String keyName = (String) pair.getKey(); String value = pair.getValue().toString(); if (value != null) { //Add the parents -- aka main categories curGroupMap = new HashMap<String, Object>(); groupData.add(curGroupMap); //Push the correct Icon if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Phone")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.phone_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Housing")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.house_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Website")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.web_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Area Snapshot")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.camera_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Overview")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.overview_icon); else if (keyName.equalsIgnoreCase("Location")) curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.map_icon); else curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.icon); //Pop on the Name and Value curGroupMap.put("NAME", keyName); curGroupMap.put("VALUE", value); } } curGroupMap = new HashMap<String, Object>(); groupData.add(curGroupMap); curGroupMap.put("ICON", R.drawable.back_icon); curGroupMap.put("NAME","Go Back"); curGroupMap.put("VALUE","By clicking here"); //Set up adapter mAdapter = new SimpleAdapter( mContext, groupData, R.layout.exp_list_parent, new String[] { "ICON", "NAME", "VALUE" }, new int[] { R.id.photoAlbumImg, R.id.rowText1, R.id.rowText2 } ); myList.setAdapter(mAdapter); //Bind the adapter to the list Thanks in advance for your help!!

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  • PHP Doctrine: Custom nested set?

    - by ropstah
    Is it possible to have nested set capabilities in this somewhat custom setup? Consider these 4 tables: Object: (oid, name) contains: [1, 'Licence'] and [2, 'Exemption'] Licence: (lid, name) Exemption: (eid, name) Cost: (oid, oid_ref, cost_oid, cost_oid_ref) For: P = Licence with lid [1] R = Exemption with eid [2] i can say "object P is a parent to object R" if the following Cost record exists: [oid: 2 oid_ref: 2 cost_oid: 1 cost_oid_ref: 1] I understand that this creates somesort of 'conditional foreign key' relation which I need to define in code. Is it possible to have the nested set loaded with these conditions?

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  • Sharing ASP.NET State databases between multiple apps

    - by MikeWyatt
    Is it better for a collection of ASP.NET web apps to share the same session database, or should each one have its own? If there is no significant difference, having a single database would be preferable due to easier maintenance. Background My team has an assortment of ASP.NET web apps, all written in either Monorail 1.1 or ASP.NET MVC 1.0. Each app currently uses a dedicated session state database. I'm working on adding a new site to that list, and am debating whether I should create another new session database, or just share an existing one with another app.

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  • Are these tables too big for SQL Server or Oracle

    - by Jeffrey Cameron
    Hey all, I'm not much of a database guru so I would like some advice. Background We have 4 tables that are currently stored in Sybase IQ. We don't currently have any choice over this, we're basically stuck with what someone else decided for us. Sybase IQ is a column-oriented database that is perfect for a data warehouse. Unfortunately, my project needs to do a lot of transactional updating (we're more of an operational database) so I'm looking for more mainstream alternatives. Question Given these tables' dimensions, would anyone consider SQL Server or Oracle to be a viable alternative? Table 1 : 172 columns * 32 million rows Table 2 : 453 columns * 7 million rows Table 3 : 112 columns * 13 million rows Table 4 : 147 columns * 2.5 million rows Given the size of data what are the things I should be concerned about in terms of database choice, server configuration, memory, platform, etc.?

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  • ado.net managing connections

    - by madlan
    Hi, I'm populating a listview with a list of databases on a selected SQL instance, then retrieving a value from each database (It's internal product version, column doesn't always exist) I'm calling the below function to populate the second column of the listview: item.SubItems.Add(DBVersionCheck(serverName, database.Name)) Function DBVersionCheck(ByVal SelectedInstance As String, ByVal SelectedDatabase As String) Dim m_Connection As New SqlConnection("Server=" + SelectedInstance + ";User Id=sa;Password=password;Database=" + SelectedDatabase) Dim db_command As New SqlCommand("select Setting from SystemSettings where [Setting] = 'version'", m_Connection) Try m_Connection.Open() Return db_command.ExecuteScalar().trim m_Connection.Dispose() Catch ex As Exception 'MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) Return "NA" Finally m_Connection.Dispose() End Try End Function This works fine except it's creating a connection to each database and leaving it open. My understanding is the close()\dispose() releases only the connection from the pool in ado rather than the actual connection to sql. How would I close the actual connections after I've retrieved the value? Leaving these open will create hundreds of connections to databases that will probably not be used for that session.

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  • ObjectDisposedException from core .NET code

    - by John
    I'm having this issue with a live app. (Unfortunately this is post-mortem debugging - I only have this stack trace. I've never seen this personally, nor am I able to reproduce). I get this Exception: message=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionMessage=Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. exceptionDetails=System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'Button'. at System.Windows.Forms.Control.CreateHandle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.get_Handle() at System.Windows.Forms.Control.PointToScreen(Point p) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.OnMouseUp(MouseEventArgs mevent) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WmMouseUp(Message& m, MouseButtons button, Int32 clicks) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.ButtonBase.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Button.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.OnMessage(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.ControlNativeWindow.WndProc(Message& m) at System.Windows.Forms.NativeWindow.Callback(IntPtr hWnd, Int32 msg, IntPtr wparam, IntPtr lparam) exceptionSource=System.Windows.Forms exceptionTargetSite=Void CreateHandle() It looks like a mouse event is arriving at a form after the form has been disposed. Note there is none of my code in this stack trace. The only weird (?) thing I'm doing, is that I do tend to Dispose() Forms quite aggressively when I use them with ShowModal() (see "Aside" below). But I only do this after ShowModal() has returned (that should be safe right)? I think I read that events might be queued up in the event queue, but I can't believe this would be the problem. I mean surely the framework must be tolerant to old messages? I can well imagine that under stress messages might back-log and surely the window might go away at any time? Any ideas? If you could even suggest ways of reproducing, that might be useful. John Aside: TBH I've never quite understood whether calling Dispose() after Form.ShowDialog() is strictly necessary - the MSDN docs for ShowDialog() are to my mind a bit ambiguous.

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  • Is it possible to easily convert SqlCommand to T-SQL string ?

    - by Thomas Wanner
    I have a populated SqlCommand object containing the command text and parameters of various database types along with their values. What I need is a T-SQL script that I could simply execute that would have the same effect as calling the ExecuteNonQuery method on the command object. Is there an easy way to do such "script dump" or do I have to manually construct such script from the command object ?

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  • Calling MethodBase's Invoke on a constructor (reflection)

    - by Alix
    Hi everyone. First of all, sorry if this has been asked before. I've done a pretty comprehensive search and found nothing quite like it, but I may have missed something. And now to the question: I'm trying to invoke a constructor through reflection, with no luck. Basically, I have an object that I want to clone, so I look up the copy constructor for its type and then want to invoke it. Here's what I have: public Object clone(Object toClone) { MethodBase copyConstructor = type.GetConstructor( new Type[] { toClone.GetType() }); return method.Invoke(toClone, new object[] { toClone }); //<-- doesn't work } I call the above method like so: List list = new List(new int[] { 0, 1, 2 }); List clone = (List) clone(list); Now, notice the invoke method I'm using is MethodBase's invoke. ConstructorInfo provides an invoke method that does work if invoked like this: return ((ConstructorInfo) method).Invoke(new object[] { toClone }); However, I want to use MethodBase's method, because in reality instead of looking up the copy constructor every time I will store it in a dictionary, and the dictionary contains both methods and constructors, so it's a Dictionary<MethodBase>, not Dictionary<ConstructorInfo>. I could of course cast to ConstructorInfo as I do above, but I'd rather avoid the casting and use the MethodBase method directly. I just can't figure out the right parameters. Any help? Thanks so much.

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  • Interaction between Java and Android

    - by Grasper
    I am currently trying to research how to use Android with an existing java based system. Basically, I need to communicate to/from an Android application. The system currently passes object data from computer to computer using ActiveMQ as the JMS provider. On one of the computers is a display which shows object data to the user. What we want to do now is use a phone (running Android) as another option to show this object data to a user with wifi/network access. Ideally we would like to have a native application on the Android that would listen to the ActiveMQ topic and publish to another Topic and read/write/display the object data, but from some research I have done, I am not sure if this is possible. What are some other ways to approach this problem? The android Phone needs to be able to send/receive data. I have been using the AndroidEmulator for testing.

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  • Form gets disposed somehow

    - by mnn
    I have a client-server application, in which I use classic Sockets and threads for receiving/sending data and listening for clients. The application works fine, but after some random time I get the ObjectDisposedException: System.ObjectDisposedException: Cannot access a disposed object. Object name: 'MainForm'. at System.Windows.Forms.Control.MarshaledInvoke(Control caller, Delegate method, Object[] args, Boolean synchronous) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Invoke(Delegate method, Object[] args) at System.Windows.Forms.Control.Invoke(Delegate method) That code is called from client Socket thread and I use Invoke() method to run the code on UI thread. I'm sure that I don't manually dispose the form nor using Close() (form is closed by user clicking Close button), so I don't know what could cause its disposing.

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  • How can I limit access to a particular class to one caller at a time in an ASMX web service?

    - by MusiGenesis
    I have a web service method in which I create a particular type of object, use it for a few seconds, and then dispose it. Because of problems arising from multiple threads creating and using instances of this class at the same time, I need to restrict the method so that only one caller at a time ever has one of these objects. To do this, I am creating a private static object: private static object _lock = new object(); ... and then inside the web service method I do this around the critical code: lock (_lock) { using (DangerousObject do = new DangerousObject()) { do.MakeABigMess(); do.CleanItUp(); } } I'm not sure this is working, though. Do I have this right? Will this code ensure that only one instance of DangerousObject is instantiated and in use at a time? Or does each caller get their own copy of _lock, rendering my code here laughable?

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  • Jquery Live Function

    - by marharépa
    Hi! I want to make this script to work as LIVE() function. Please help me! $(".img img").each(function() { $(this).cjObjectScaler({ destElem: $(this).parent(), method: "fit" }); }); the cjObjectScaler script (called in the html header) is this: (thanks for Doug Jones) (function ($) { jQuery.fn.imagesLoaded = function (callback) { var elems = this.filter('img'), len = elems.length; elems.bind('load', function () { if (--len <= 0) { callback.call(elems, this); } }).each(function () { // cached images don't fire load sometimes, so we reset src. if (this.complete || this.complete === undefined) { var src = this.src; // webkit hack from http://groups.google.com/group/jquery-dev/browse_thread/thread/eee6ab7b2da50e1f this.src = '#'; this.src = src; } }); }; })(jQuery); /* CJ Object Scaler */ (function ($) { jQuery.fn.cjObjectScaler = function (options) { /* user variables (settings) ***************************************/ var settings = { // must be a jQuery object method: "fill", // the parent object to scale our object into destElem: null, // fit|fill fade: 0 // if positive value, do hide/fadeIn }; /* system variables ***************************************/ var sys = { // function parameters version: '2.1.1', elem: null }; /* scale the image ***************************************/ function scaleObj(obj) { // declare some local variables var destW = jQuery(settings.destElem).width(), destH = jQuery(settings.destElem).height(), ratioX, ratioY, scale, newWidth, newHeight, borderW = parseInt(jQuery(obj).css("borderLeftWidth"), 10) + parseInt(jQuery(obj).css("borderRightWidth"), 10), borderH = parseInt(jQuery(obj).css("borderTopWidth"), 10) + parseInt(jQuery(obj).css("borderBottomWidth"), 10), objW = jQuery(obj).width(), objH = jQuery(obj).height(); // check for valid border values. IE takes in account border size when calculating width/height so just set to 0 borderW = isNaN(borderW) ? 0 : borderW; borderH = isNaN(borderH) ? 0 : borderH; // calculate scale ratios ratioX = destW / jQuery(obj).width(); ratioY = destH / jQuery(obj).height(); // Determine which algorithm to use if (!jQuery(obj).hasClass("cf_image_scaler_fill") && (jQuery(obj).hasClass("cf_image_scaler_fit") || settings.method === "fit")) { scale = ratioX < ratioY ? ratioX : ratioY; } else if (!jQuery(obj).hasClass("cf_image_scaler_fit") && (jQuery(obj).hasClass("cf_image_scaler_fill") || settings.method === "fill")) { scale = ratioX < ratioY ? ratioX : ratioY; } // calculate our new image dimensions newWidth = parseInt(jQuery(obj).width() * scale, 10) - borderW; newHeight = parseInt(jQuery(obj).height() * scale, 10) - borderH; // Set new dimensions & offset jQuery(obj).css({ "width": newWidth + "px", "height": newHeight + "px"//, // "position": "absolute", // "top": (parseInt((destH - newHeight) / 2, 10) - parseInt(borderH / 2, 10)) + "px", // "left": (parseInt((destW - newWidth) / 2, 10) - parseInt(borderW / 2, 10)) + "px" }).attr({ "width": newWidth, "height": newHeight }); // do our fancy fade in, if user supplied a fade amount if (settings.fade > 0) { jQuery(obj).fadeIn(settings.fade); } } /* set up any user passed variables ***************************************/ if (options) { jQuery.extend(settings, options); } /* main ***************************************/ return this.each(function () { sys.elem = this; // if they don't provide a destObject, use parent if (settings.destElem === null) { settings.destElem = jQuery(sys.elem).parent(); } // need to make sure the user set the parent's position. Things go bonker's if not set. // valid values: absolute|relative|fixed if (jQuery(settings.destElem).css("position") === "static") { jQuery(settings.destElem).css({ "position": "relative" }); } // if our object to scale is an image, we need to make sure it's loaded before we continue. if (typeof sys.elem === "object" && typeof settings.destElem === "object" && typeof settings.method === "string") { // if the user supplied a fade amount, hide our image if (settings.fade > 0) { jQuery(sys.elem).hide(); } if (sys.elem.nodeName === "IMG") { // to fix the weird width/height caching issue we set the image dimensions to be auto; jQuery(sys.elem).width("auto"); jQuery(sys.elem).height("auto"); // wait until the image is loaded before scaling jQuery(sys.elem).imagesLoaded(function () { scaleObj(this); }); } else { scaleObj(jQuery(sys.elem)); } } else { console.debug("CJ Object Scaler could not initialize."); return; } }); }; })(jQuery);

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