Search Results

Search found 19256 results on 771 pages for 'css tables'.

Page 689/771 | < Previous Page | 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696  | Next Page >

  • Why this class assignment is not working in IE

    - by user550750
    I've wrote this peice of code, this works fine in FF and Chrome but not in IE. Why is it? <html> <header> <style type="text/css"> .red{ color: red; } .green{ color: green; } .yellow{ color: yellow; } </style> </header> <body> <div id="mydiv" style="height: 50px">Some contents</div> <div> <input type="radio" value="1" name="change" onclick="onClick(this)">Red</input> <input type="radio" value="2" name="change" onclick="onClick(this)">Green</input> <input type="radio" value="3" name="change" onclick="onClick(this)">Yellow</input> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> function onClick(el){ var className = ""; if(el.value == 1){ className = "red"; }else if(el.value == 2){ className = "green"; }else if(el.value == 3){ className = "yellow"; } document.getElementById("mydiv").setAttribute("class", className); } </script> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Displaying data from a linked table and displaying it as a list with HTML/PHP/MySQL

    - by user1672694
    I have three tables. students studentID | FirstName | LastName | Email | Form course CCode | Title courseenrolement courseenrolementid | studentID | ccode | complete | scode With the website, I have a page where I can view all the current enrolements and I wish to be able to view the list displaying the first name, surname and course title. I know I could do it with the following SQL (for the names): SELECT FirstName, LastName FROM student, courseenrolement WHERE courseenrolement.studentID = student.studentID But I am unsure how to get this to work using HTML/PHP. At present I only know how to display the studentID and CCode from the courseenrolement table using the following code: <ul> <?php foreach ($courseenrolements as $ce): ?> <li> <form action="" method="post"> <div> <?php htmlout($ce['studentID']); ?> <?php htmlout($ce['CCode']); ?> <input type="hidden" name="courseenrolementid" value="<?php echo $ce['courseenrolementid']; ?>"> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Edit"> <input type="submit" name="action" value="Delete"> </div> </form> </li> <?php endforeach; ?> </ul> which displays this: But I would like the names and course title. I managed to get it to show the names etc in the dropdown on the 'Add new' form, so I would assume it will be similar, but just unsure on how exactly. Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Hibernate Query for a List of Objects that matches a List of Objects' ids

    - by sal
    Given a classes Foo, Bar which have hibernate mappings to tables Foo, A, B and C public class Foo { Integer aid; Integer bid; Integer cid; ...; } public class Bar { A a; B b; C c; ...; } I build a List fooList of an arbitrary size and I would like to use hibernate to fetch List where the resulting list will look something like this: Bar[1] = [X1,Y2,ZA,...] Bar[2] = [X1,Y2,ZB,...] Bar[3] = [X1,Y2,ZC,...] Bar[4] = [X1,Y3,ZD,...] Bar[5] = [X2,Y4,ZE,...] Bar[6] = [X2,Y4,ZF,...] Bar[7] = [X2,Y5,ZG,...] Bar[8] = ... Where each Xi, Yi and Zi represents a unique object. I know I can iterate fooList and fetch each List and call barList.addAll(...) to build the result list with something like this: List<bar> barList.addAll(s.createQuery("from Bar bar where bar.aid = :aid and ... ") .setEntity("aid", foo.getAid()) .setEntity("bid", foo.getBid()) .setEntity("cid", foo.getCid()) .list(); ); Is there any easier way, ideally one that makes better use of hibernate and make a minimal number of database calls? Am I missing something? Is hibernate not the right tool for this?

    Read the article

  • stackoverflow tags and related tags

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website where a user can add tags to their posted books. It is similar to stackover flow, but I am keeping my tags in differnt table. so here are the tables/class in linq to entities. Books { bookId, Title } Tags { Id Tag } BooksTags { Id BookId TagId } Here are few sample records. Books BookId Title 113421 A 113422 B Tags Id Tag 1 ASP 2 C# 3 CSS 4 VB 5 VB.NET 6 PHP 7 java 8 pascal BooksTags Id BookId TagId 1 113421 1 2 113421 2 3 113421 3 4 113421 4 5 113422 1 6 113422 4 7 113422 8 Question 1 : I need to write something in linq to entities queries which gives me data according to the tags say if I want bookIds where tagid =1 it should return bookid 113421 and 113422 as it exists in both the books, but If I ask data for tags 1 and 2 it should return only book 113421 as that is the only book where both the tags are present. Question 2 : I need tags and their count too to show in related tags, so in first case my related tags class should have following result. RelatedTags Tag Count 2 1 3 1 4 2 8 1 in the second case when two tags are requested the result should be like RelatedTags Tag Count 3 1 4 1 I have get the first thing working by converting a sql query in linqer, but that seems like a hell. so want to know if there is any better idea. I have used dyanmic where clause to include two tags. So if someone can help. It will be much appreciated. Thanks Parminder

    Read the article

  • Multiple inequality conditions (range queries) in NoSQL

    - by pableu
    Hi, I have an application where I'd like to use a NoSQL database, but I still want to do range queries over two different properties, for example select all entries between times T1 and T2 where the noiselevel is smaller than X. On the other hand, I would like to use a NoSQL/Key-Value store because my data is very sparse and diverse, and I do not want to create new tables for every new datatype that I might come across. I know that you cannot use multiple inequality filters for the Google Datastore (source). I also know that this feature is coming (according to this). I know that this is also not possible in CouchDB (source). I think I also more or less understand why this is the case. Now, this makes me wonder.. Is that the case with all NoSQL databases? Can other NoSQL systems make range queries over two different properties? How about, for example, Mongo DB? I've looked in the Documentation, but the only thing I've found was the following snippet in their docu: Note that any of the operators on this page can be combined in the same query document. For example, to find all document where j is not equal to 3 and k is greater than 10, you'd query like so: db.things.find({j: {$ne: 3}, k: {$gt: 10} }); So they use greater-than and not-equal on two different properties. They don't say anything about two inequalities ;-) Any input and enlightenment is welcome :-)

    Read the article

  • How do I use price data in one table for a calculation that is stored in another table?

    - by shane
    I'm still leanring PHP/MySQL but have learned quite a bit thanks to codies on StackOverflow. I'm trying to setup a sort of room reservations system using two tables: SETUP: Room price table: Has, prices for a type room a client may want to rent as well as the dates (day of week) they wish to use it. Pricing varies based on day of the week and per room. I've setup a different table for each room type as each room type carries different pricing for each day of the week. So, There is an Alpha room table, Bravo room, etc. Within Alpha table are headers for the days of the week with pricing pre-entered into the rows. Client info table: Has the name, address, date of room use, etc data for the specific client. EXAMPLE: Alpha-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Bravo-room price table: Sun = $100; Mon = $200; Tue=$300 and so on. Client data table: ClientName; date-of-room-use; address; day_subtotal; grand_total. QUESTION: I'm trying to find PHP code that will: look at the date of room use in the client data table, look up the associated cost for that date in the specific room pricing table, record that unit cost in the day subtotal of the client data table and sum a grand total in the grand total row of the client data table (assuming the room may be used more than one day by the customer). I know there's something to do with join but I'm finding it difficult to grasp the concept and, if someone can demonstrate using this example, I think I will have a better understanding of how to work this sort of transaction. Thank you ALL in advance for your suggestions or alternatvie approaches.

    Read the article

  • jQuery sliding animation not working

    - by Jake Zeitz
    I have three divs stacked on each other but offset so that a part of each div is visible. When one of the bottom divs is clicked I want the top div to animate out and back into the stack at the bottom, then the div that is clicked will appear at the top. So far I only have the code for when the middle div is clicked, but I cannot get it to work properly. What am I doing wrong? (I also realize that the code I wrote is probably terrible, this is the first jQuery code I have written.) The css is very very simple: .first { z-index: 3; } .second { z-index: 2; } .third { z-index: 1; } The basic html is this: <div class="first"></div> <div class="second"></div> <div class="third"></div> Here is my code: $("div.second").click(function () { $("div.first").animate({ left: "-=200px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.first").removeClass("first").addClass("third").animate({left: "+=350px", top: "+=60px"}, "fast"); } }); $("div.second").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.second").removeClass("second").addClass("first"); } }); $("div.third").animate({ left: "-=24px", top: "-=30px"}, {duration: "fast", complete: function () { $("div.third").removeClass("third").addClass("second"); } }); }); I can get the div.first to move to the side and back. But now I can't get the classes to stay changed. What keeps happening is the div.second will remove it's class and add .first in the animation, but when the animation is complete, it acts like it still has a class of .second.

    Read the article

  • jQuery: Show and hide child div when hovering

    - by Björn
    Hi there, I've got a set of items. Each item has two images and some text. For the images I've created a parent div which has an overflow:hidden CSS value. I want to achieve an mouseover effect. As soon as you hover over the images I want to hide the current div and show the second div. Here's a small snippet: <div class="product-images"> <div class="product-image-1"><img src="image1.gif>" /></div> <div class="product-image-2"><img src="images2.gif" /></div> </div> I've created a small jQuery snippet: jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery('.product-images').mouseover(function() { jQuery('.product-image-1').hide(); }).mouseout(function() { jQuery('.product-image-1').show(); }); }); Now the problem is that not only the currently hovered child is hidden. Instead all other existing childs are hidden as well. I need something like "this" or "current" but I don't know which jQuery function is the right one. Any idea? Thanks, BJ

    Read the article

  • Performance of VIEW vs. SQL statement

    - by Matt W.
    I have a query that goes something like the following: select <field list> from <table list> where <join conditions> and <condition list> and PrimaryKey in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) and PrimaryKey not in (select PrimaryKey from <table list> where <join list> and <condition list>) The sub-select queries both have multiple sub-select queries of their own that I'm not showing so as not to clutter the statement. One of the developers on my team thinks a view would be better. I disagree in that the SQL statement uses variables passed in by the program (based on the user's login Id). Are there any hard and fast rules on when a view should be used vs. using a SQL statement? What kind of performance gain issues are there in running SQL statements on their own against regular tables vs. against views. (Note that all the joins / where conditions are against indexed columns, so that shouldn't be an issue.) EDIT for clarification... Here's the query I'm working with: select obj_id from object where obj_id in( (select distinct(sec_id) from security where sec_type_id = 494 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) and sec_obj_id in ( select obj_id from object where obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) ) ) ) or (obj_ot_id in (select of_ot_id from obj_form left outer join obj_type on ot_id = of_ot_id where ot_app_id = 87 and of_id in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 493 and ( (sec_usergroup_id = 3278 and sec_usergroup_type_id = 230) or (sec_usergroup_id in (select ug_gi_id from user_group where ug_ui_id = 3278) and sec_usergroup_type_id = 231) ) ) and of_usage_type_id = 131 ) and obj_id not in (select sec_obj_id from security where sec_type_id = 494) )

    Read the article

  • Update SQL Server 2000 to SQL Server 2008: Benefits please?

    - by Ciaran Archer
    Hi there I'm looking for the benefits of upgrading from SQL Server 2000 to 2008. I was wondering: What database features can we leverage with 2008 that we can't now? What new TSQL features can we look forward to using? What performance benefits can we expect to see? What else will make management go for it? And the converse: What problems can we expect to encounter? What other problems have people found when migrating? Why fix something that isn't (technically) broken? We work in a Java shop, so any .NET / CLR stuff won't rock our world. We also use Eclipse as our main development so any integration with Visual Studio won't be a plus. We do use SQL Server Management Studio however. Some background: Our main database machine is a 32bit Dell Intel Xeon MP CPU 2.0GHz, 40MB of RAM with Physical Address Extension running Windows Server 2003 Enterprise Edition. We will not be changing our hardware. Our databases in total are under a TB with some having more than 200 tables. But they are busy and during busy times we see 60-80% CPU utilisation. Apart form the fact that SQL Server 2000 is coming close to end of life, why should we upgrade? Any and all contributions are appreciated!

    Read the article

  • SQL Server Long Query

    - by thormj
    Ok... I don't understand why this query is taking so long (MSSQL Server 2005): [Typical output 3K rows, 5.5 minute execution time] SELECT dbo.Point.PointDriverID, dbo.Point.AssetID, dbo.Point.PointID, dbo.Point.PointTypeID, dbo.Point.PointName, dbo.Point.ForeignID, dbo.Pointtype.TrendInterval, coalesce(dbo.Point.trendpts,5) AS TrendPts, LastTimeStamp = PointDTTM, LastValue=PointValue, Timezone FROM dbo.Point LEFT JOIN dbo.PointType ON dbo.PointType.PointTypeID = dbo.Point.PointTypeID LEFT JOIN dbo.PointData ON dbo.Point.PointID = dbo.PointData.PointID AND PointDTTM = (SELECT Max(PointDTTM) FROM dbo.PointData WHERE PointData.PointID = Point.PointID) LEFT JOIN dbo.SiteAsset ON dbo.SiteAsset.AssetID = dbo.Point.AssetID LEFT JOIN dbo.Site ON dbo.Site.SiteID = dbo.SiteAsset.SiteID WHERE onlinetrended =1 and WantTrend=1 PointData is the biggun, but I thought its definition should allow me to pick up what I want easily enough: CREATE TABLE [dbo].[PointData]( [PointID] [int] NOT NULL, [PointDTTM] [datetime] NOT NULL, [PointValue] [real] NULL, [DataQuality] [tinyint] NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_PointData_1] PRIMARY KEY CLUSTERED ( [PointID] ASC, [PointDTTM] ASC ) WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] ) ON [PRIMARY] GO CREATE NONCLUSTERED INDEX [IX_PointDataDesc] ON [dbo].[PointData] ( [PointID] ASC, [PointDTTM] DESC )WITH (PAD_INDEX = OFF, STATISTICS_NORECOMPUTE = OFF, SORT_IN_TEMPDB = OFF, IGNORE_DUP_KEY = OFF, DROP_EXISTING = OFF, ONLINE = OFF, ALLOW_ROW_LOCKS = ON, ALLOW_PAGE_LOCKS = ON) ON [PRIMARY] GO PointData is 550M rows, and Point (source of PointID) is only 28K rows. I tried making an Indexed View, but I can't figure out how to get the Last Timestamp/Value out of it in a compatible way (no Max, no subquery, no CTE). This runs twice an hour, and after it runs I put more data into those 3K PointID's that I selected. I thought about creating LastTime/LastValue tables directly into Point, but that seems like the wrong approach. Am I missing something, or should I rebuild something? (I'm also the DBA, but I know very little about A'ing a DB!)

    Read the article

  • Alignment in assembly

    - by jena
    Hi, I'm spending some time on assembly programming (Gas, in particular) and recently I learned about the align directive. I think I've understood the very basics, but I would like to gain a deeper understanding of its nature and when to use alignment. For instance, I wondered about the assembly code of a simple C++ switch statement. I know that under certain circumstances switch statements are based on jump tables, as in the following few lines of code: .section .rodata .align 4 .align 4 .L8: .long .L2 .long .L3 .long .L4 .long .L5 ... .align 4 aligns the following data on the next 4-byte boundary which ensures that fetching these memory locations is efficient, right? I think this is done because there might be things happening before the switch statement which caused misalignment. But why are there actually two calls to .align? Are there any rules of thumb when to call .align or should it simply be done whenever a new block of data is stored in memory and something prior to this could have caused misalignment? In case of arrays, it seems that alignment is done on 32-byte boundaries as soon as the array occupies at least 32 byte. Is it more efficient to do it this way or is there another reason for the 32-byte boundary? I'd appreciate any explanation or hint on literature.

    Read the article

  • one table is shared between several websites

    - by sami
    I have a static table that's shared by several websites. By static, I mean that the data is read but never updated by the websites. Currently, all websites are served from the same server but that may change. I want to minimize the need for creating/maintaining this table for each of the websites, so I thought about turning it to an xml file that's stored in a shared library that all websites have access to. The problem is I use an ORM and use forign key constraints to ensure integrity of the ids used from that table, so by removing that table out of the MySQL database into an XML file, will this affect the integrity of the ids coming from that table? My table looks like this <table name="entry"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="title" type="VARCHAR" size="500" required="true" /> </table> and I use it as a foreign key in other tables <table name="refer"> <column name="id" type="INTEGER" primaryKey="true" autoIncrement="true" /> <column name="linkto" type="INTEGER"/> <foreign-key foreignTable="entry"> <reference local="linkto" foreign="id" /> </foreign-key> </table> So I'm wondering if I remove that table out of the database, is there a way to retain that referential integrity? And of course are these any other efficient ways to do the same thing? I just don't want to have to repeat that table for several websites.

    Read the article

  • Oracle ODBC x64 - getting 0 when selecting a number(9) column

    - by MatsL
    I'm having a really weird problem with a third party web service that uses an ODBC connection to Oracle 10.2.0.3.0. I've written a .NET client that generates the same SQL as the web service so I can find out what's going on. The web service is hosted by IIS 6 that's in x64 mode so we use Oracle x64 client. The oracle client version is 10.2.0.1.0. I have a table that looks like this (I've removed some columns and names): SQL> describe tablename; Name Null? Type ----------------------------------------- -------- ---------------------------- KOD VARCHAR2(30) ORDNING NUMBER(5) AVGIFT NUMBER(9) I then in SQL*Plus issue the following statement: SELECT KOD as kod, AVGIFT as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING And I get the following result: KOD RISKPOANG ------------------------------ ---------- Hög risk 55 Mellan risk 35 Låg risk 15 Mycket låg risk 5 But when I execute the exact same SQL using the same DSN on the same machine I get this: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 0 If I first cast the number to varchar and then back again to number, like this: SELECT KOD as kod, to_number(to_char(AVGIFT, '99'), '9999999999') as riskPoang FROM tablename Where upper(KODTYP) = 'OBJLIVSV_RISKVERKSAMTYP' ORDER BY ORDNING I get the correct result: Values Kod: Hög risk RiskPoäng: 55 Kod: Mellan risk RiskPoäng: 35 Kod: Låg risk RiskPoäng: 15 Kod: Mycket låg risk RiskPoäng: 5 Has anyone else experiences this? It's incredibly annoying and I'm completely stuck and not sure what to do next. We have a third party web service that use these tables so I must get the original SQL-statement to work since I can't modify its code. And pointers are greatly appreciated! :-) Best regards, Mats

    Read the article

  • Website. AJAX and FIREFOX problems. I dont think Firefox likes ajax..?

    - by DJDonaL3000
    Working on an AJAX website (HTML,CSS,JavaScript, AJAX, PHP, MySQL). I have multiple javascript functions which take rows from mysql, wrap them in html tags, and embed them in the HTML (the usual usage of AJAX). THE PROBLEM: Everything is working perfect, except when I run the site with Firefox (for once its not InternetExplorer causing the trouble). The site is currently in the developmental stage, so its offline, but running on the localhost (WampServer, apache, Windows XP SP3,VISTA,7). All other cross-browser conflicts have been removed, and works perfectly on all major browsers including IE, Chrome, Opera and Safari, but I get absolutely nothing from the HTTPRequest (AJAX) if the browser is Firefox. All browsers have the latest versions. THE CODE: I have a series of javascript functions, all of which are structured as follows: function getDatay(){ var a = document.getElementById( 'item' ).innerHTML; var ajaxRequest; try{//Browser Support Code: // code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari: ajaxRequest = new XMLHttpRequest(); } catch (e){ // code for IE6, IE5: try{ ajaxRequest = new ActiveXObject("Msxml2.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e) { try{ ajaxRequest = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } catch (e){ // Something went wrong alert("Your browser is not compatible - Browser Incompatibility Issue."); return false; } } } // Create a function that will receive data sent from the server ajaxRequest.onreadystatechange = function(){ if(ajaxRequest.readyState < 4){ document.getElementById( 'theDiv' ).innerHTML = 'LOADING...'; } if(ajaxRequest.readyState == 4){ document.getElementById( 'theDiv' ).innerHTML = ajaxRequest.responseText; } } //Post vars to PHP Script and wait for response: var url="01_retrieve_data_7.php"; url=url+"?a="+a; ajaxRequest.open("POST", url, false);//must be false here to wait for ajaxRequest to complete. ajaxRequest.send(null); } My money is on the final five lines of code being the cause of the problem. Any suggestions how to get Firefox and AJAX working together are most welcome...

    Read the article

  • Process-to-port mapping with SNMP and/or wmi/wmic in java

    - by Niddy888
    I'm trying to use SNMP to map outgoing ports on my host computer with the application running on the computer that is responsible for that communication. When running "netstat -ano" I get access to Protocol, Local Address (with port), Foreign Address (with port), State and PID. But I want to do this entirely without having to execute "cmd" from Java. By using SNMP OID: .1.3.6.1.2.1.25.4 (.iso.org.dod.internet.mgmt.mib-2.host.hrSWRun) I get access to PID (ex. 1704), Name (ex. cmd.exe), Path (ex. C:\Windows\system32) among others. There is an SNMP OID: .1.3.6.1.2.1.6.13 (.iso.org.dod.internet.mgmt.mib-2.tcp.tcpConnTable) that give you access to TCP connection state, local address, local port, remote address, remote port. But NO PID. So to sum up. My question again: Is there a way to "map" these tables together? Either directly in SNMP with other OID's or in conjunction with WMI / WMIC?

    Read the article

  • How to Specify Columntype in fluent nHibernate?

    - by Bipul
    I have a class CaptionItem public class CaptionItem { public virtual int SystemId { get; set; } public virtual int Version { get; set; } protected internal virtual IDictionary<string, string> CaptionValues {get; private set;} } I am using following code for nHibernate mapping Id(x => x.SystemId); Version(x => x.Version); Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); HasMany(x => x.CaptionValues) .KeyColumn("CaptionItem_Id") .AsMap<string>(idx => idx.Column("CaptionSet_Name"), elem => elem.Column("Text")) .Not.LazyLoad() .Cascade.Delete() .Table("CaptionValue") .Cache.ReadWrite().IncludeAll(); So in database two tables get created. One CaptionValue and other CaptionItem. In CaptionItem table has three columns 1. CaptionItem_Id int 2. Text nvarchar(255) 3. CaptionSet_Name nvarchar(255) Now, my question is how can I make the columnt type of Text to nvarchar(max)? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Membership, Get new UserID

    - by Vishal Bharakhda
    I am trying to register a new user and also understand how to get the new userID so i can start creating my own user tables with a userID mapping to the asp.net membership user table. Below is my code: [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Register(string userName, string email, string position, string password, string confirmPassword) { ViewData["PasswordLength"] = MembershipService.MinPasswordLength; ViewData["position"] = new SelectList(GetDeveloperPositionList()); if (ValidateRegistration(userName, email, position, password, confirmPassword)) { // Attempt to register the user MembershipCreateStatus createStatus = MembershipService.CreateUser(userName, password, email); if (createStatus == MembershipCreateStatus.Success) { FormsAuth.SignIn(userName, false /* createPersistentCookie */); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home"); } else { ModelState.AddModelError("_FORM", ErrorCodeToString(createStatus)); } } // If we got this far, something failed, redisplay form return View(); } I've done some research and many sites inform me to use Membership.GetUser().ProviderUserKey; but this throws an error as Membership is NULL. I placed this line of code just above "return RedirectToAction("Index", "Home");" within the if statement. Please can someone advise me on this... Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • Why can't I get the value of this text input?

    - by Spilot
    It seems simple enough, but nothing I try is working. I have a jquery ui datepicker, I use val() to get the value of that input on button click(), then log it. The click event is working. I can log a string I write myself, but when I pass console.log() the variable that stores the datepicker value...nothing. I've tried using html() and text() instead of val(), still nothing //JS $(function(){ $("button").button(); $("#date").datepicker(); var date = $("#date").val(); $("button").click(function(){ // this logs console.log("event working"); // but this logs nothing console.log(date); });//close click });//closes function //HTML <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="http://www.parsecdn.com/js/parse-1.2.8.min.js"></script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.10.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/ui/1.10.3/jquery-ui.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="http://myDomain/bn/lbStyle.css"/> <script src="http://myDomain/index.js"></script> <title> Welcome to The Bringer Network </title> </head> <body> <form id="dialog"> <p>Date <input type="text" id="date"/></p> <button>Submit</button> </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Consolidate multiple site files into single location

    - by seengee
    We have a custom PHP/MySQL CMS running on Linux/Apache thats rolled out to multiple sites (20+) on the same server. Each site uses exactly the same CMS files with a few files for each site being customised. The customised files for each site are: /library/mysql_connect.php /public_html/css/* /public_html/ftparea/* /public_html/images/* There's also a couple of other random files inside /public_html/includes/ that are unique to each site. Other than this each site on the server uses the exact same files. Each site sitting within /home/username/. There is obviously a massive amount of replication here as each time we want to deploy a system update we need to update to each user account. Given the common site files are all stored in SVN it would make far more sense if we were able to simply commit to SVN and deploy to a single location direct from there. Unfortunately, making a major architecture change at this stage could be problematic. In my mind the ideal scenario would mean creating an account like /home/commonfiles/ and each site using these common files unless an account specific file exists, for example a request is made to /home/user/public_html/index.php but as this file doesnt exist the request is then redirected to /home/commonfiles/public_html/index.php. I know that generally this approach is possible, similar to how Zend Framework (and probably others) redirect all requests that dont match a specific file to index.php. I'm just not sure about how exactly to go about implementing it and whether its actually advisable. Would really welcome any input/ideas people have got. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • deep linking in Excel sheets exported to html

    - by pomarc
    hello everybody, I am working on a project where I must export to html a lot of Excel files. This is pretty straightforward using automation and saving as html. The problem is that many of these sheets have links to worksheets of some other files. I must find a way to write a link to a single inner worksheet. When you export a multisheet excel file to html, excel creates a main htm file, a folder named filename_file, and inside this folder it writes down several files: a css, an xml list of files, a file that creates the tab bar and several html files named sheetxxx.htm, each one representing a worksheet. When you open the main file, you can click the menu bar at the bottom which lets you select the appropriate sheet. This is in fact a link, which replaces a frame content with the sheetxxx.htm file. When this file is loaded a javascript function that selects the right tab gets called. The exported files will be published on a web site. I will have to post process each file and replace every link to the other xls files to the matching htm file, finding a way to open the right worksheet. I think that I could add a parameter to the processed htm file link url, such as myfile.htm?sh=sheet002.htm if I want to link to the second worksheet of myfile.htm (ex myfile.xls). After I've exported them, I could inject a simple javascript into each of the main files which, when they are loaded, could retrieve the sh parameter with jQuery (this is easy) and use this to somehow replace the frSheet frame contents (where the sheets get loaded), opening the right inner sheet and not the default sheet (this is what I call deep linking) mimicking what happens when a user clicks on a tab. This last step is missing... :) I am considering different options, such as replacing the source of the $("frSheet") frame after document.ready. I'd like to hear from you any advice on what could be the best way to realize that in your opinion. any help is greately appreciated, many thanks.

    Read the article

  • reactivating or binding a hover function in jquery??

    - by mathiregister
    hi guys, with the following three lines: $( ".thumb" ).bind( "mousedown", function() { $('.thumb').not(this).unbind('mouseenter mouseleave'); }); i'm unbinding this hover-function: $(".thumb").hover( function () { $(this).not('.text, .file, .video, .audio').stop().animate({"height": full}, "fast"); $(this).css('z-index', z); z++; }, function () { $(this).stop().animate({"height": small}, "fast"); } ); i wonder how i can re-bind the exact same hover function again on mouseup? the follwoing three lines arent't working! $( ".thumb" ).bind( "mouseup", function() { $('.thumb').bind('mouseenter mouseleave'); }); to get what i wanna do here's a small explanation. I want to kind of deactivate the hover function for ALL .thumbs-elements when i click on one. So all (but not this) should not have the hover function assigned while i'm clicking on an object. If i release the mouse again, the hover function should work again like before. Is that even possible to do? thank you for your help!

    Read the article

  • Convert SQL to LINQ in MVC3 with Ninject

    - by Jeff
    I'm using MVC3 and still learning LINQ. I'm having some trouble trying to convert a query to LINQ to Entities. I want to return an employee object. SELECT E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName, MAX(EO.EmployeeOperationDate) AS "Last Operation" FROM Employees E INNER JOIN EmployeeStatus ES ON E.EmployeeID = ES.EmployeeID INNER JOIN EmployeeOperations EO ON ES.EmployeeStatusID = EO.EmployeeStatusID INNER JOIN Teams T ON T.TeamID = ES.TeamID WHERE T.TeamName = 'MyTeam' GROUP BY E.EmployeeID, E.FirstName, E.LastName ORDER BY E.FirstName, E.LastName What I have is a few tables, but I need to get only the newest status based on the EmployeeOpertionDate. This seems to work fine in SQL. I'm also using Ninject and set my query to return Ienumerable. I played around with the group by option but it then returns IGroupable. Any guidance on converting and returning the property object type would be appreciated. Edit: I started writing this out in LINQ but I'm not sure how to properly return the correct type or cast this. public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamName == "MyTeam" group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G; return q; } Edit2: This seems to work for me public IQueryable<Employee> GetEmployeesByTeam(int teamID) { var q = from E in context.Employees join ES in context.EmployeeStatuses on E.EmployeeID equals ES.EmployeeID join EO in context.EmployeeOperations.OrderByDescending(eo => eo.EmployeeOperationDate) on ES.EmployeeStatusID equals EO.EmployeeStatusID join T in context.Teams on ES.TeamID equals T.TeamID where T.TeamID == teamID group E by E.EmployeeID into G select G.FirstOrDefault(); return q; }

    Read the article

  • Fast, easy, and secure method to perform DB actions with GET

    - by rob - not a robber
    Hey All, Sort of a methods/best practices question here that I am sure has been addressed, yet I can't find a solution based on the vague search terms I enter. I know starting off the question with "Fast and easy" will probably draw out a few sighs, so my apologies. Here is the deal. I have a logged in area where an ADMIN can do a whole host of POST operations to input data relating to their profile. The way I have data structured is pretty distinct and well segmented in most tables as it relates to the ID of the admin. Now, I have a table where I dump one type of data into and differentiate this data by assigning the ADMIN's unique ID to each record. In other words, all ADMINs have this one type of data writing to this table. I just differentiate by the ADMIN ID with each record. I was planning on letting the ADMIN remove these records by clicking on a link with a query string - obviously using GET. Obviously, the query structure is in the link so any logged in admin could then exploit the URL and delete a competitor's records. Is the only way to safely do this through POST or should I pass through the session info that includes password and validate it against the ADMIN ID that is requesting the delete? This is obviously much more work for me. As they said in the auto repair biz I used to work in... there are 3 ways to do a job: Fast, Good, and Cheap. You can only have two at a time. Fast and cheap will not be good. Good and cheap will not have fast turnaround. Fast and good will NOT be cheap. haha I guess that applies here... can never have Fast, Easy and Secure all at once ;) Thanks in advance...

    Read the article

  • Linq to Entities custom ordering via position mapping table

    - by Bigfellahull
    Hi, I have a news table and I would like to implement custom ordering. I have done this before via a positional mapping table which has newsIds and a position. I then LEFT OUTER JOIN the position table ON news.newsId = position.itemId with a select case statement CASE WHEN [position] IS NULL THEN 9999 ELSE [position] END and order by position asc, articleDate desc. Now I am trying to do the same with Linq to Entities. I have set up my tables with a PK, FK relationship so that my News object has an Entity Collection of positions. Now comes the bit I can't work out. How to implement the LEFT OUTER JOIN. I have so far: var query = SelectMany (n => n.Positions, (n, s) => new { n, s }) .OrderBy(x => x.s.position) .ThenByDescending(x => x.n.articleDate) .Select(x => x.n); This kinda works. However this uses a INNER JOIN so not what I am after. I had another idea: ret = ret.OrderBy(n => n.ShufflePositions.Select(s => s.position)); However I get the error DbSortClause expressions must have a type that is order comparable. I also tried ret = ret.GroupJoin(tse.ShufflePositions, n => n.id, s => s.itemId, (n, s) => new { n, s }) .OrderBy(x => x.s.Select(z => z.position)) .ThenByDescending(x => x.n.articleDate) .Select(x => x.n); but I get the same error! If anyone can help me out, it would be much appreciated!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 685 686 687 688 689 690 691 692 693 694 695 696  | Next Page >