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  • Ad distribution problem: an optimal solution?

    - by Mokuchan
    I'm asked to find a 2 approximate solution to this problem: You’re consulting for an e-commerce site that receives a large number of visitors each day. For each visitor i, where i € {1, 2 ..... n}, the site has assigned a value v[i], representing the expected revenue that can be obtained from this customer. Each visitor i is shown one of m possible ads A1, A2 ..... An as they enter the site. The site wants a selection of one ad for each customer so that each ad is seen, overall, by a set of customers of reasonably large total weight. Thus, given a selection of one ad for each customer, we will define the spread of this selection to be the minimum, over j = 1, 2 ..... m, of the total weight of all customers who were shown ad Aj. Example Suppose there are six customers with values 3, 4, 12, 2, 4, 6, and there are m = 3 ads. Then, in this instance, one could achieve a spread of 9 by showing ad A1 to customers 1, 2, 4, ad A2 to customer 3, and ad A3 to customers 5 and 6. The ultimate goal is to find a selection of an ad for each customer that maximizes the spread. Unfortunately, this optimization problem is NP-hard (you don’t have to prove this). So instead give a polynomial-time algorithm that approximates the maximum spread within a factor of 2. The solution I found is the following: Order visitors values in descending order Add the next visitor value (i.e. assign the visitor) to the Ad with the current lowest total value Repeat This solution actually seems to always find the optimal solution, or I simply can't find a counterexample. Can you find it? Is this a non-polinomial solution and I just can't see it?

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  • sybase - values from one table that aren't on another, on opposite ends of a 3-table join

    - by Lazy Bob
    Hypothetical situation: I work for a custom sign-making company, and some of our clients have submitted more sign designs than they're currently using. I want to know what signs have never been used. 3 tables involved: table A - signs for a company sign_pk(unique) | company_pk | sign_description 1 --------------------1 ---------------- small 2 --------------------1 ---------------- large 3 --------------------2 ---------------- medium 4 --------------------2 ---------------- jumbo 5 --------------------3 ---------------- banner table B - company locations company_pk | company_location(unique) 1 ------|------ 987 1 ------|------ 876 2 ------|------ 456 2 ------|------ 123 table C - signs at locations (it's a bit of a stretch, but each row can have 2 signs, and it's a one to many relationship from company location to signs at locations) company_location | front_sign | back_sign 987 ------------ 1 ------------ 2 987 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 876 ------------ 2 ------------ 1 456 ------------ 3 ------------ 4 123 ------------ 4 ------------ 3 So, a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location. What I want to try and find is how to query and get back that sign_pk 5 isn't at any location. Querying each sign_pk against all of the front_sign and back_sign values is a little impractical, since all the tables have millions of rows. Table a is indexed on sign_pk and company_pk, table b on both fields, and table c only on company locations. The way I'm trying to write it is along the lines of "each sign belongs to a company, so find the signs that are not the front or back sign at any of the locations that belong to the company tied to that sign." My original plan was: Select a.sign_pk from a, b, c where a.company_pk = b.company_pk and b.company_location = c.company_location and a.sign_pk *= c.front_sign group by a.sign_pk having count(c.front_sign) = 0 just to do the front sign, and then repeat for the back, but that won't run because c is an inner member of an outer join, and also in an inner join. This whole thing is fairly convoluted, but if anyone can make sense of it, I'll be your best friend.

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  • div content margin pushing container

    - by jef2904
    Hi, Im running into an issue that's really baffleing me. I have a container that I want to apply a background to an postion it in the top right of the browser screen. The div inside has a top margin of 4em and this is pushing the container div here is the CSS #container { background: transparent url("../images/house-bg.png") top right no-repeat scroll; } #wrapper { background: #FFF; width: 960px; height: 600px; margin: 4em auto 0; border: 10px solid #C3CF21; -moz-border-radius: 20px; -webkit-border-radius: 20px; border-radius: 20px; -moz-box-shadow: 0 0 25px #444; -webkit-box-shadow: 0 0 25px #444; box-shadow: 0 0 25px #444; } and heres the HTML <div id="container"> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"> </div> <div id="main"> </div> </div> <div id="footer"> &copy; Copyright <?php echo date("Y");?> Company, Inc. </div> </div> I want the margin of the wrapper to be inside the container div instead of outside. I've tried multiple display properties and position properties to no avail. The only thing that fixes it is inserting an "&nbsp;" before the start of the #wrapper but theres got to be a CSS fix to this. Thanks in Advanced, Jorge

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  • I need to sort php jquery gallery script alphabetically

    - by David Cahill
    know nothing about php, but I have this script that reads a folder and displays a thumbnail gallery, problem is it dosent display alphabetically. Have searched the net and seen that sort does this but have no idea where to start any help would be much appreciated. heres the script $sitename = $row_wigsites['id']; $directory = 'sites/'.$sitename.'/pans'; $allowed_types=array('jpg','jpeg','gif','png'); $file_parts=array(); $ext=''; $title=''; $i=0; $dir_handle = @opendir($directory) or die("There is an error with your image directory!"); while ($file = readdir($dir_handle)) { if($file=='.' || $file == '..') continue; $file_parts = explode('.',$file); $ext = strtolower(array_pop($file_parts)); $title = implode('.',$file_parts); $title = htmlspecialchars($title); $nomargin=''; if(in_array($ext,$allowed_types)) { if(($i+1)%4==0) $nomargin='nomargin'; echo ' <div class="pic '.$nomargin.'" style="background:url('.$directory.'/'.$file.') no-repeat 50% 50%;"> <a href="'.$directory.'/'.$file.'" title="Panoramic Stills taken at '.$title.'°" rel="pan1" target="_blank">'.$title.'</a> </div>'; $i++; } } closedir($dir_handle);

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  • jquery equivalent for css3 transition ease-in

    - by Sebsemillia
    I want to make a jquery version of this css3 effect so that it also works in ff and ie: a:hover {color: #354250; -webkit-transition:background 500ms ease-in;} a.more:hover, a.more:focus, a.more:active {background-position: 0 -18px;} a.more:link, a.more:visited { background: url(images/moreButton.png) no-repeat 0 0; display: inline-block; height:18px; margin-top:10px; text-indent: -9999px; width:77px; } My tries didn't work, here is what I' ve got so far. $("a.more").hover(function() { $(this).stop().animate({ color: '#354250', backgroundPosition: '0px -18px' }, slow, function() { $(this).stop().animate({ color: '#ad5332', backgroundPosition: '0px 0px'}, 0); }); }, function() { $(this).stop().animate({ color: '#ad5332', backgroundPosition: '0px 0px' }, 0); }); Do you have any idea how to fix this? Thank you very much!

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  • CSS "Cover" - No scroll bars?

    - by Lynda
    I am using the cover property to create a background image that fills the background and resizes with the browser. But I run into one issue, the page has a lot of content and no scroll bars appear for me to scroll down! Here is the code I am using: body{ background: url(path.jpg) no-repeat center center fixed; -webkit-background-size: cover; -moz-background-size: cover; -o-background-size: cover; /* Cover for IE 7/8 */ filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); -ms-filter: progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.AlphaImageLoader(src='path.jpg', sizingMethod='scale'); /* End Cover for IE 7/8 */ background-size: cover; background-color: transparent !important; position:fixed; top: 0; left: 0; width: 100%; height:100%; max-width:2500px; max-height:1500px; z-index:1; } If I remove position:fixed; I get the scroll bars back but the background image disappears. What is the best way to tackle this and have both scroll bars and the background cover image? Note: I am using jQuery and would use a JS answer if it works (though I prefer a CSS only answer.)

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  • increase number of photos from flickr using json

    - by Andrew Welch
    Hi this is my code: Is is possible to get more photos from flickr. What is the standard / default number? $(document).ready(function(){ $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?id=48719970@N07&lang=en-us&format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ $.each(data.items, function(i, item){ var newurl = 'url(' + item.media.m + ')'; $("<div class='images'/>").css('background', newurl).css('backgroundPosition','top center').css('backgroundRepeat','no-repeat').appendTo("#images").wrap("<a target=\"_blank\ href='" + item.link + "'></a>"); }) $("#title").html(data.title); $("#description").html(data.description); $("#link").html("<a href='" + data.link + "' target=\"_blank\">Visit the Viget Inspiration Pool!</a>"); //Notice that the object here is "data" because that information sits outside of "items" in the JSON feed $('.jcycleimagecarousel').cycle({ fx: 'fade', speed: 300, timeout: 3000, next: '#next', prev: '#prev', pause: 1, random: 1 }); }); });

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  • can I acces a struct inside of a struct without using the dot operator?

    - by yan bellavance
    I have 2 structures that have 90% of their fields the same. I want to group those fields in a structure but I do not want to use the dot operator to access them. The reason is I already coded with the first structure and have just created the second one. before: struct{ int a; int b; int c; object1 name; }str1; struct{ int a; int b; int c; object2 name; }str2; now I would create a third struct: struct{ int a; int b; int c; }str3; and would change the str1 and atr2 to this: struct{ str3 str; object1 name; }str1; struct { str3 str; object2 name; }str2; Finally I would like to be able to access a,b and c by doing: str1 myStruct; myStruct.a; myStruct.b; myStruct.c; and not: myStruct.str.a; myStruct.str.b; myStruct.str.c; Is there a way to do such a thing. The reason for doing this is I want keep the integrety of the data if chnges to the struct were to occur and to not repeat myself and not have to change my existing code and not have fields nested too deeply.

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  • http_access.log on WebSphere 6.1.0.29

    - by DavidG
    I am running WebSphere 6.1.0.29 and I need to track the requests being made to an Enterprise Application. Previously I did this by routing the requests through a proxy server, but I need to repeat the exercise and I figure there must be a simpler way. Does anyone know how to enable HTTP access logging? I have been through the console an thought I had enabled http_access.log and http_error.log via: Application servers server1 HTTP error and NCSA access logging (where 'server1' is the application server) I've enabled the service at startup, and ticked the boxes to enable access logging and error logging - however... nothing has happened. I have restarted the server, restarted the Enterprise apps and even did a "find . -name" for the log files - but they don't seem to be anywhere on the system. I saw on a JavaRanch thread someone suggested writing a custom filter for requests in an application, but this seems like wild overkill - plus I am doing the logs to test a pre-built binary, so I don't want to mess with the code. Anyone have any ideas/suggestions? Help! :-)

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  • What is the Pythonic way to implement a simple FSM?

    - by Vicky
    Yesterday I had to parse a very simple binary data file - the rule is, look for two bytes in a row that are both 0xAA, then the next byte will be a length byte, then skip 9 bytes and output the given amount of data from there. Repeat to the end of the file. My solution did work, and was very quick to put together (even though I am a C programmer at heart, I still think it was quicker for me to write this in Python than it would have been in C) - BUT, it is clearly not at all Pythonic and it reads like a C program (and not a very good one at that!) What would be a better / more Pythonic approach to this? Is a simple FSM like this even still the right choice in Python? My solution: #! /usr/bin/python import sys f = open(sys.argv[1], "rb") state = 0 if f: for byte in f.read(): a = ord(byte) if state == 0: if a == 0xAA: state = 1 elif state == 1: if a == 0xAA: state = 2 else: state = 0 elif state == 2: count = a; skip = 9 state = 3 elif state == 3: skip = skip -1 if skip == 0: state = 4 elif state == 4: print "%02x" %a count = count -1 if count == 0: state = 0 print "\r\n"

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  • Moving Multiple Divs With Same Class Inside Parent

    - by superzilla
    So, My website is hosted on enjin.com and when you give users a tag with an image it appears on the forums under their name, however it's a vertical list with the tag names. I want to organize it so all of the tag images appear on one line and all of the tag names appear on a horizontal list below it. They use div tags somewhat like this <div class="tag"> <div class="tag-image"></div> <!-- If the tag lacks an image this is excluded --> <div class="tag-text">Tag Name</div> <!-- If you want the name to be hidden this is excluded --> </div> They then pretty much repeat this for every tag. Somewhat the same thing is used for forum posts too. So, I want to move all the tag-image divs together on a single line and all of the tag-text divs down and give each it's own line. I only want to move them within their parent element (to avoid images/tags from one forum user from going to another). I know how to append things with jquery and have googled how to move elements around, but I'm afraid that they're all going to end up together under another user's avatar.

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  • Putting all methods in class definition

    - by Amnon
    When I use the pimpl idiom, is it a good idea to put all the methods definitions inside the class definition? For example: // in A.h class A { class impl; boost::scoped_ptr<impl> pimpl; public: A(); int foo(); } // in A.cpp class A::impl { // method defined in class int foo() { return 42; } // as opposed to only declaring the method, and defining elsewhere: float bar(); }; A::A() : pimpl(new impl) { } int A::foo() { return pimpl->foo(); } As far as I know, the only problems with putting a method definition inside a class definition is that (1) the implementation is visible in files that include the class definition, and (2) the compiler may make the method inline. These are not problems in this case since the class is defined in a private file, and inlining has no effect since the methods are called in only one place. The advantage of putting the definition inside the class is that you don't have to repeat the method signature. So, is this OK? Are there any other issues to be aware of?

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  • How to deploy to multiple redundant production servers with "cap deploy"?

    - by Chad Johnson
    Capistrano is working great to deploy to a single server. However, I have multiple production API servers for my web application. When I deploy, my code needs to get deployed to every API server at once. Specifying each server manually is NOT the solution I am looking for (e.g. I don't want to do "cap api1 deploy; cap api2 deploy"). Is there a way, using Capistrano, to deploy to all servers at once, with just a simple "cap deploy"? I'm wondering what changes I would need to make to a typical deploy.rb file, whether I'd need to create a separate file for each server, and whether and how the Capfile would need to be changed. Also, I need to be able to specify a different deploy_to path for each server. And ideally, I wouldn't have to repeat things in different config files for different servers (eg. wouldn't have to specify :repository, :application, etc. multiple times). I have spent hours searching Google on this and looking through tutorials, but I have found nothing helpful. Here is a snippet from my current deploy.rb file: set :application, "testapplication" set :repository, "ssh://domain.com//srv/hg/#{application}" set :scm, :mercurial set :deploy_to, "/srv/www/#{application}" role :web, "domain.com" role :app, "domain.com" role :db, "domain.com", :primary => true, :norelease => true Should I just use the multistage extension and do this? task :deploy_everything do system "cap api1 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" system "cap api2 deploy" end That could work, but I feel like this isn't what this extension is meant for...

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  • Finding a list of indices from master array using secondary array with non-unique entries

    - by fideli
    I have a master array of length n of id numbers that apply to other analogous arrays with corresponding data for elements in my simulation that belong to those id numbers (e.g. data[id]). Were I to generate a list of id numbers of length m separately and need the information in the data array for those ids, what is the best method of getting a list of indices idx of the original array of ids in order to extract data[idx]? That is, given: a=numpy.array([1,3,4,5,6]) # master array b=numpy.array([3,4,3,6,4,1,5]) # secondary array I would like to generate idx=numpy.array([1,2,1,4,2,0,3]) The array a is typically in sequential order but it's not a requirement. Also, array b will most definitely have repeats and will not be in any order. My current method of doing this is: idx=numpy.array([numpy.where(a==bi)[0][0] for bi in b]) I timed it using the following test: a=(numpy.random.uniform(100,size=100)).astype('int') b=numpy.repeat(a,100) timeit method1(a,b) 10 loops, best of 3: 53.1 ms per loop Is there a better way of doing this?

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  • Beginner SQL section: avoiding repeated expression

    - by polygenelubricants
    I'm entirely new at SQL, but let's say that on the StackExchange Data Explorer, I just want to list the top 15 users by reputation, and I wrote something like this: SELECT TOP 15 DisplayName, Id, Reputation, Reputation/1000 As RepInK FROM Users WHERE RepInK > 10 ORDER BY Reputation DESC Currently this gives an Error: Invalid column name 'RepInK', which makes sense, I think, because RepInK is not a column in Users. I can easily fix this by saying WHERE Reputation/1000 > 10, essentially repeating the formula. So the questions are: Can I actually use the RepInK "column" in the WHERE clause? Do I perhaps need to create a virtual table/view with this column, and then do a SELECT/WHERE query on it? Can I name an expression, e.g. Reputation/1000, so I only have to repeat the names in a few places instead of the formula? What do you call this? A substitution macro? A function? A stored procedure? Is there an SQL quicksheet, glossary of terms, language specification, anything I can use to quickly pick up the syntax and semantics of the language? I understand that there are different "flavors"?

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  • Visual Studio 2010 / ASP.NET MVC 2 / Publish

    - by SevenCentral
    I just did a clean install on Windows 7 x64 Professional with the final release of Visual Studio 2010 Premium. In order to duplicate what I'm experiencing do the following in: Create a new ASP.NET MVC 2 Web Application Right click the project and select Properties On the Web tab, select "Use Local IIS Web Server" Click on Create Virtual Directory Save all Unload the project Edit the project file Change MvcBuildViews to true Save all Reload project Right click the project and select Publish Choose the file system publish method Enter a target location Choose Delete all existing files Select Publish Right click the project Select Publish Each time I do the above I get the following errror: "It is an error to use a section registered as allowDefinition='MachineToApplication' beyond application level..." The error originates from obj\debug\package\packagetmp\web.config, relative to the project directory. I can repeat this all day long with any MVC 2 project I've built. In order to fix this problem, I need to set MvcBuildViews to false in the project file. That's not really an option. This wasn't a problem in Visual Studio 2008 and it seems to be an issue with the way the Publish command stages files beneath the project directory. Can anyone else duplicate this error? Is this a bug or by design? Is there a fix, workaround, etc...? Thanks.

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  • Why Does My Vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> Mysteriously Get Cleared?

    - by Eric
    Hello everyone, I am making a program that reads and stores data from Windows EventLog files (.evt) in C++. I am using the calls OpenBackupEventLog(ServerName, FileName) and ReadEventLog(...). Also using this: PEVENTLOGRECORD Anyway, without supplying all of the code, here is the basic idea: 1. I get a handle to the .evt file using OpenBackupEventLog() and passing in a file name. 2. I then use ReadEventLog() to fill up a buffer with an unknown number of EventLog messages. 3. I traverse through the buffer and add each message to a vector 4. I keep filling up buffers (repeat steps 2 and 3) until I reach the end of the file. Here is my code for filling the vector: vector<PEVENTLOGRECORD> allRecords; while(_status == ERROR_SUCCESS) { if(!ReadEventLog(...)) CheckStatus(); else FillVectorFromBuffer(allRecords) } // Function FillVectorFromBuffer FillVectorFromBuffer(vector(PEVENTLOGRECORD) &allRecords) { int bytesExamined = 0; PBYTE pRecord = (PBYTE)_lpBuffer; // This is one of the params in ReadEventLog() while(bytesExamined < _pnBytesRead) // Another param from ReadEventLog { PEVENTLOGRECORD currentRecord = (PEVENTLOGRECORD)(pRecord); allRecords.push_back(currentRecord); pRecord += currentRecord->Length; bytesExamined += currentRecord->Length; } } Anyway, whenever I run this, it will get all the EventLogs in the file, and the vector will have everything I want it to. But as soon as this line: if(!ReadEventLog()) gets called and returns true (aka ReadEventLog() returns false), then every field in my vector gets set to zero. The vector will still contain the correct number of elements, it's just that all of the fields in the PEVENTLOGRECORD struct are now zero. Anyone with better debugging experience have any ideas? Thanks.

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  • Handling multiple media queries in Sass with Twitter Bootstrap

    - by Keith
    I have a Sass mixin for my media queries based on Twitter Bootstrap's responsive media queries: @mixin respond-to($media) { @if $media == handhelds { /* Landscape phones and down */ @media (max-width: 480px) { @content; } } @else if $media == small { /* Landscape phone to portrait tablet */ @media (max-width: 767px) {@content; } } @else if $media == medium { /* Portrait tablet to landscape and desktop */ @media (min-width: 768px) and (max-width: 979px) { @content; } } @else if $media == large { /* Large desktop */ @media (min-width: 1200px) { @content; } } @else { @media only screen and (max-width: #{$media}px) { @content; } } } And I call them throughout my SCSS file like so: .link { color:blue; @include respond-to(medium) { color: red; } } However, sometimes I want to style multiple queries with the same styles. Right now I'm doing them like this: .link { color:blue; /* this is fine for handheld and small sizes*/ /*now I want to change the styles that are cascading to medium and large*/ @include respond-to(medium) { color: red; } @include respond-to(large) { color: red; } } but I'm repeating code so I'm wondering if there is a more concise way to write it so I can target multiple queries. Something like this so I don't need to repeat my code (I know this doesn't work): @include respond-to(medium, large) { color: red; } Any suggestions on the best way to handle this?

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  • Python coin-toss

    - by Andy
    i am new to Python, and i can't wrap my head around this. I have following function defined: def FlipCoins(num_flips): heads_rounds_won = 0 for i in range(10000): heads = 0 tails = 0 for j in range(num_flips): dice = random.randint(0,1) if dice==1: heads += 1 else: tails += 1 if heads > tails: heads_rounds_won += 1 return heads_rounds_won Here is what it should do (but apparently doesn't): flip a coin num_flip times, count heads and tails, and see if there are more heads than tails. If yes, increment head_rounds_won by 1. Repeat 10000 times. I would assume that head_rounds_won will approximate 5000 (50%). And it does that for odd numbers as input. For example, 3, 5 or 7 will produce about 50%. However, even numbers will produce much lower results, more like 34%. Small numbers especially, with higher even numbers, like for example 800, the difference to 50% is much narrower. Why is this the case? Shouldn't any input produce about 50% heads/tails?

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  • Rand(); with exclusion to and already randomly generated number..?

    - by Stefan
    Hey, I have a function which calls a users associated users from a table. The function then uses the rand(); function to chose from the array 5 randomly selected userID's however!... In the case where a user doesnt have many associated users but above the min (if below the 5 it just returns the array as it is) then it gives bad results due to repeat rand numbers... How can overcome this or exclude a previously selected rand number from the next rand(); function call. Here is the section of code doing the work. Bare in mind this must be highly efficient as this script is used everywhere. $size = sizeof($users)-1; $nusers[0] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[1] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[2] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[3] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; $nusers[4] = $users[rand(0,$size)]; return $nusers; Thanks in advance! Stefan

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  • Quickest way to compare a bunch of array or list of values.

    - by zapping
    Can you please let me know on the quickest and efficient way to compare a large set of values. Its like there are a list of parent codes(string) and each code has a series of child values(string). The child lists have to be compared with each other and find out duplicates and count how many times they repeat. code1(code1_value1, code1_value2, code3_value3, ..., code1_valueN); code2(code2_value1, code1_value2, code2_value3, ..., code2_valueN); code3(code2_value1, code3_value2, code3_value3, ..., code3_valueN); . . . codeN(codeN_value1, codeN_value2, codeN_value3, ..., codeN_valueN); The lists are huge say like there are 100 parent codes and each has about 250 values in them. There will not be duplicates within a code list. Doing it in java and the solution i could figure out is. Store the values of first set of code in as codeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount). The count initialized to 0. Then compare the rest of the values with this. If its in the map then increment the count otherwise append it to the map. The downfall of this is to get the duplicates. Another iteration needs to be performed on a very large list. An alternative is to maintain another hashmap for duplicates like duplicateCodeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount) and change the initial hashmap to codeMap.put(codeValue, codeValue). Speed is what is requirement. Hope one of you can help me with it.

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  • Java - Removing duplicates in an ArrayList

    - by Will
    I'm working on a program that uses an ArrayList to store Strings. The program prompts the user with a menu and allows the user to choose an operation to perform. Such operations are adding Strings to the List, printing the entries etc. What I want to be able to do is create a method called removeDuplicates().This method will search the ArrayList and remove any duplicated values. I want to leave one instance of the duplicated value(s) within the list. I also want this method to return the total number of duplicates removed. I've been trying to use nested loops to accomplish this but I've been running into trouble because when entries get deleted, the indexing of the ArrayList gets altered and things don't work as they should. I know conceptually what I need to do but I'm having trouble implementing this idea in code. Here is some pseudo code: start with first entry; check each subsequent entry in the list and see if it matches the first entry; remove each subsequent entry in the list that matches the first entry; after all entries have been examined, move on to the second entry; check each entry in the list and see if it matches the second entry; remove each entry in the list that matches the second entry; repeat for entry in the list Here's the code I have so far: public int removeDuplicates() { int duplicates = 0; for ( int i = 0; i < strings.size(); i++ ) { for ( int j = 0; j < strings.size(); j++ ) { if ( i == j ) { // i & j refer to same entry so do nothing } else if ( strings.get( j ).equals( strings.get( i ) ) ) { strings.remove( j ); duplicates++; } } } return duplicates; }

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  • Optimizing T-SQL where an array would be nice

    - by Polatrite
    Alright, first you'll need to grab a barf bag. I've been tasked with optimizing several old stored procedures in our database. This SP does the following: 1) cursor loops through a series of "buildings" 2) cursor loops through a week, Sunday-Saturday 3) has a huge set of IF blocks that are responsible for counting how many Objects of what Types are present in a given building Essentially what you'll see in this code block is that, if there are 5 objects of type #2, it will increment @Type_2_Objects_5 by 1. IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 0 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_0 = @Type_1_Objects_0 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 1 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_1 = @Type_1_Objects_1 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 2 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_2 = @Type_1_Objects_2 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_1_Objects = 3 BEGIN SET @Type_1_Objects_3 = @Type_1_Objects_3 + 1 END [... Objects_4 through Objects_20 for Type_1] IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 0 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_0 = @Type_2_Objects_0 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 1 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_1 = @Type_2_Objects_1 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 2 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_2 = @Type_2_Objects_2 + 1 END IF @Number_Type_2_Objects = 3 BEGIN SET @Type_2_Objects_3 = @Type_2_Objects_3 + 1 END [... Objects_4 through Objects_20 for Type_2] In addition to being extremely hacky (and limited to a quantity of 20 objects), it seems like a terrible way of handling this. In a traditional language, this could easily be solved with a 2-dimensional array... objects[type][quantity] += 1; I'm a T-SQL novice, but since writing stored procedures often uses a lot of temporary tables (which could essentially be a 2-dimensional array) I was wondering if someone could illuminate a better way of handling a situation like this with two dynamic pieces of data to store. Requested in comments: The columns are simply Number_Type_1_Objects, Number_Type_2_Objects, Number_Type_3_Objects, Number_Type_4_Objects, Number_Type_5_Objects, and CurrentDateTime. Each row in the table represents 5 minutes. The expected output is to figure out what percentage of time a given quantity of objects is present throughout each day. Sunday - Object Type 1 0 objects - 69 rows, 5:45, 34.85% 1 object - 85 rows, 7:05, 42.93% 2 objects - 44 rows, 3:40, 22.22% On Sunday, there were 0 objects of type 1 for 34.85% of the day. There was 1 object for 42.93% of the day, and 2 objects for 22.22% of the day. Repeat for each object type.

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  • Android opengl releasing textures

    - by user1642418
    I have a bit of a problem. I am developing a game for android + engine and I got stuck. I am getting OpenGL out of memory error and either app crashes or phone hangs after loading a scene multiple times. For example: app launches, shows main menu, 1st level/scene is loaded. Then I go back to main menu, and repeat. It doesnt matter which scene I load, after 4-6 times the error occurs. Some background: Each time when scene is loaded all the resources are released and upon first frame render - needed stuff gets loaded. The performance is more or less ok. Note that I am calling glDeleteTexture method, but I think its not doing its job and releasing memory. Thing is that -when I minimize and open it again - problem doesn't occur, but almost the same things are executed. Problem doesn't occur. This way android releases memory. How do I release/get rid of unused textures properly? This happens on HTC Desire HD ( ice cream sandwich 4.0.4) . Other games works fine, so I bet this is not the problem in ROM.

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  • .Net in HTML tp return true if reader object not null, otherwise return false

    - by Phill Healey
    I'm using a DataList to show some data from the database and populating the fields on the html side. I now have a requirement to change the visibility of a panel based on whether or not a db field has data or not. I need to be able to show the panel if the relevant data field has content, and hide it if it doesn't. Eg: <asp:Panel ID="pnlNew" runat="server" Style="margin:0; padding:0; width:42px; height:18px; bottom:5px; right:10px; float:right; position:relative; background:url(../_imgVideoBadge.png) no-repeat;" Visible='<%# Eval("cheese") != null %>' ToolTip="available"></asp:Panel> Obviously this doesn't work in terms of the visible property. But hopefully it gives an idea of what I'm trying to achieve. Any help would be greatly appreciated. I've seen examples previously of doing something along the lines of: a ?? b:c How could this be applied to the above requirement?? Thanks in advance.

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