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  • Distinct or group by on some columns but not others

    - by Nazadus
    I have a view that I'm trying to filter with something similar to DISTINCT on some columns but not others. I have a view like this: Name LastName Zip Street1 HouseholdID (may not be unique because it may have multiple addresses -- think of it in the logical sense as grouping persons but not physical locations; If you lookup HouseholdID 4130, you may get two rows.. or more, because the person may have mutiple mailing locations) City State I need to pull all those columns but filter on LastName,Zip, and Street1. Here's the fun part: The filter is arbitrary -- meaning I don't care which one of the duplicates goes away. This is for a mail out type thing and the other information is not used for any other reason than than to look up a specific person if needed (I have no idea why). So.. given one of the records, you can easily figure out the removed ones. As it stands now, my Sql-Fu fails me and I'm filtering in C# which is incredibly slow and is pretty much a foreach that starts with an empty list and adds the row in if the combined last name, zip, and street aren't are not in the list. I feel like I'm missing a simple / basic part of SQL that I should be understanding.

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  • Is it possible to filter data used by pivot table based on filtering the rows in a source table in Excel?

    - by Geoffrey Stoel
    I have developed a dashboard in Excel 2007 that uses one source table in a sheet (being filled with a query on our data warehouse) and multiple pivot tables making different cross sections on this data. I use the GETPIVOTDATA in almost a hundred formulas to give me the right value for a specific indicator in my dashboard. This all works fine. However I now have received the question to make the dashboard for 5 different segments. As you can imagine I don't want to create 5 different workbooks for this and need to maintain the dashboard logic on all of them. So my question is the following. Is it possible to automatically (through VBA or any other means) filter the results in my source table which is the source for my pivot tables and thus for my dashboard values. So schematically: DATABASE_VIEW -- SOURCE_TABLE -- 12 pivot tables -- 100 GETPIVOTDATA functions Preferably I would like to load all the segments in the source_table (one view on my database) and then filter the data in the source table, which results in filterd source_dat for my pivots. This way I can (without requerying the db) quickly change between segments in the dashboards (refreshing pivots only). Data in the source table has the column: CUSTOMER_SEGMENT available to filter upon. Any help is appreciated. Geoffrey

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  • Is there a generic way of dealing with varying connection strings in C#?

    - by James Wiseman
    I have an application that needs to connect to a SQL database, and execute a SQL Agent Job. The connection string I am trying to access is stored in the registry, which is easily enough pulled out. This appliction is to be run on multiple computers, and I cannot guarantee the format of this connection string being consistent across these computers. Two that I have pulled out for example are: Data Source=Server1;Initial Catalog=DB1;Integrated Security=SSPI; Data Source=Server2;Initial Catalog=DB1;Provider=SQLNCLI.1;Integrated Security=SSPI;Auto Translate=False; I can use an object of type System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection to connect to the database with the first connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the second to it: keyword not supported: 'provider' Similarly, I can use the an object of type System.Data.OleDb.OleDbConnection to connect to the database with the second connection string, howevever, I get the following error when I pass the first to it: An OLEDB Provider was not specified in the ConnectionString' I can solve this by scanning the string for 'Provider' and doing the connect conditionally, however I can't help but feel that there is a better way of doing this, and handle the connection strings in a more generic fashion. Does anyone have any suggestions?

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  • Why should I care about RVM's Gemset feature when I use Bundler?

    - by t6d
    I just don't get it. I thought, Bundler was developed to resolve version conflicts between gems. So that I just have to require "bundler/setup" and everything is fine, knowing that Bundler will load the correct versions of all my gems and their dependencies. Now, RVM is great for managing multiple Rubies, I know, but why should I care about the Gemset feature? Do I miss something here? Can it make my development even easier? Maybe, some of you can give me some hints on the perfect RVM + Bundler workflow for both, development and production. I also don't know when RVM starts switching to another Ruby. I know that I can have an .rvmrc file in my project, but do I have to cd to this directory so that the switch happens? Furthermore, I usually use Passenger for development since, thanks to the Passenger.prefpane, integration in Mac OS is great. Can I still do that with RVM or is there a better way to do it? Does Passenger recognize .rvmrc files and switch to the correct Gemset?

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  • asp.net webpages content block and helper differences

    - by metanaito
    In asp.net webpages framework what is the difference between using a content block versus a helper? They both seem to be used to output HTML to multiple pages. They both can contain code and both can pass parameters. Are there other differences? When should you use a helper versus a content block? More info: With Content Blocks we create a .cshtml (for example _MakeNote.cshtml) file to hold the content we want to insert into a page. Then we use: @RenderPage("/Shared/_MakeNote.cshtml") to insert the content into a page. We can pass parameters to the content block like this: @RenderPage("/Shared/_MakeNote.cshtml", new { content = "hello from content block" }) It's somewhat like an include file, but I think does not share scope with the parent page. With Helpers we create a .cshtml page in the App_Code folder (for example MyHelpers.cshtml) and place methods in that page which we want to call. The method looks something like this: @helper MakeNote(string content) { <div>@content</div> } The helper is called by using: @MyHelpers.MakeNote("Hello from helper")

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  • API-based solutions for sending payments to people without bank accounts

    - by Tauren
    I'm looking for inexpensive ways to send payments to hundreds or thousands of individual contractors, even if they do not have a bank account. Currently I only need to support payment in the USA, but may eventually be international. Here's the scenario: I offer a service that allows an organization or manager-type person to coordinate contractors for very short term jobs. These jobs are typically only an hour or two in length. A contractor may get only one job over an entire month, several jobs spread out over a month, multiple jobs on a single day, or any other combination. Thus, a single contractor could earn as little as one job's payment up to potentially payment for dozens. Payment for a month could be as little as $10 up to $1000's. Right now, the system provides payroll reports to the manager and it is the manager's responsibility to produce checks, stuff envelopes, and send mail via the US postal service. I'd like to remove this burden from the manager and have all the payments taken care of for them automatically by the system. I'm not sure where to start or what the best options would be. I'm starting to look into the following solutions, but don't know specifics yet and would like some advice before pursuing them. I'd also like to hear about other ideas or suggestions. PayPal (Send Money, Adaptive Payments, x.com, other???) Amazon (Flexible Payments System?) Fund some sort of pre-paid debit card? Web service with API that mails checks for you? Direct deposit via a bank API (for users with bank accounts)? The problem is that many of these contractors may not be able to obtain bank accounts or credit cards within the USA. I don't mind doing a hybrid of solutions, but are there any that would work well with this issue? I want the solution to be easy to use for the contractors, meaning that they can get the money easily (via check in the mail, debit card ATM withdrawal, etc.)

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  • Have you considered doing revenue sharing to fund development of a mobile app? How would you do it?

    - by Brennan
    I am looking to build multiple mobile apps which leverage existing content and resources by enabling these mobile apps with web services. I will duplication much of the same features which are also in place and add more features that are possible on a mobile device like address book, maps and calendar integration to make the service much more useful. To fund these projects I see that I have 2 options. First I could simply quote them for the project based on my hourly rate and the estimate in hours that I will take the to complete the job. That may be a high number. The second option would be to do shared revenue with ads placed in the app. I could then take a percentage of any revenue that is generated from the app. There is also a hybrid where I might charge for a percentage of the estimated quote and then take a percentage of the revenue sharing. So my question is how much should I propose for the revenue sharing? Should it be 30%? Or maybe I should make it 70% up to a point that a certain dollar amount is reached? And should the revenue sharing agreement be for 12 months, 24 months or more? Should I include in the proposal an agreement that they will help promote this app with their content and resources? Ultimately this system will benefit both sides because it extends their reach into the mobile space instead of where they are currently with just print and web. I have tried to find some examples with a few Google searches but I keep hitting content about the Google and Apple revenue sharing models. I would like to get some solid examples that are working to compare against so that my proposal do build these apps is not completely off base.

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  • Testing approach for multi-threaded software

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    I have a piece of mature geospatial software that has recently had areas rewritten to take better advantage of the multiple processors available in modern PCs. Specifically, display, GUI, spatial searching, and main processing have all been hived off to seperate threads. The software has a pretty sizeable GUI automation suite for functional regression, and another smaller one for performance regression. While all automated tests are passing, I'm not convinced that they provide nearly enough coverage in terms of finding bugs relating race conditions, deadlocks, and other nasties associated with multi-threading. What techniques would you use to see if such bugs exist? What techniques would you advocate for rooting them out, assuming there are some in there to root out? What I'm doing so far is running the GUI functional automation on the app running under a debugger, such that I can break out of deadlocks and catch crashes, and plan to make a bounds checker build and repeat the tests against that version. I've also carried out a static analysis of the source via PC-Lint with the hope of locating potential dead locks, but not had any worthwhile results. The application is C++, MFC, mulitple document/view, with a number of threads per doc. The locking mechanism I'm using is based on an object that includes a pointer to a CMutex, which is locked in the ctor and freed in the dtor. I use local variables of this object to lock various bits of code as required, and my mutex has a time out that fires my a warning if the timeout is reached. I avoid locking where possible, using resource copies where possible instead. What other tests would you carry out?

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  • xml schema putting both sequence and all under one complexType node

    - by exiang
    Here is the xml file: <section> <number>1</number> <title>A Title goes here...</title> <code>TheCode</code> <element></element> <element></element> </section> In section node, there are number, title and code node. Their sequence must not be fixed. Then, there are multiple element under section node as well. The idea is to use the following schema: <xs:complexType name="Type-section"> <xs:all> <xs:element name="number" minOccurs="0"></xs:element> <xs:element name="code" minOccurs="1"></xs:element> <xs:element name="title" minOccurs="1"></xs:element> </xs:all> <xs:sequence> <xs:element maxOccurs="unbounded" name="element"></xs:element> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> But it is invalid. I just cant put "sequence" and "all" together in the same level. How can i fix it?

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  • Jquery Returning values to original

    - by Cam
    So my script works perfectly, but here is the issue, I have buttons (Sprite action here) that are 40px height, but the top 20 only shows perfectly. When you click the button ie img the bottom 20px show perfecto! but... Issue, i included in my script a way to return all others to there default (only one should be selected) now, how can I fix this issue that I seem unable to correct as I can select multiple of them ** USERS can switch ** The last part of the script that is the issue. Thanks $(document).ready(function() { $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').show(); $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').removeClass('active'); }); $('.sub_theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').hide(); $('.form_sub').show(); $('.theader').removeClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').addClass('active'); }); $('.top_head_img').click(function() { $(this).css({ position: 'relative', bottom: '20px' }).siblings().css( 'bottom', '0' ); }); }); <ul class="top_head"> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('top');"><img src="custom/images/top2.jpg" alt="Left" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('center');"><img src="custom/images/mid2.jpg" alt="Center" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('bottom');"><img src="custom/images/bot2.jpg" alt="Right" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> </ul>

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  • ASP Function that returns result from stored procedures

    - by Brad
    I am working on a project that requires me to hop into to separate DB's. So I have figured that I need to have multiple functions inside of my VB page. The only problem I am having,is I am not to sure how to get this all accomplished. So far I have figured out the overall structure, just need help implementing that structure. Here is my idea: The main Function would call two other functions. We can Call them Sub Function 1 and Sub Function 2. So, the main Function takes the saved sessions information for the E-mail address and dumps in into Sub Function 1. It needs to open up a new connection to the db/stored procedure and RUN the following procedure and then return the result. Here is the stored procedure and what i think is correct. CREATE PROCEDURE WEB_User ( @EMAIL_ADDRESS varchar(80) = [EMAIL_ADDRESS] ) AS SELECT MEMBER_NUMBER FROM WEB_LOGIN WHERE EMAIL_ADDRESS = @EMAIL_ADDRESS So my question is, what is the function suppose to look like? how do I send the session information to the procedure? and finally, how do I return the stored procedure results and push back into the main function so it can be carried into sub function 2? Thank you in advance for your help... I really appreciate it!

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  • MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

    - by Martin Tóth
    Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

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  • GROUP BY ID range?

    - by d0ugal
    Given a data set like this; +-----+---------------------+--------+ | id | date | result | +-----+---------------------+--------+ | 121 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 122 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 123 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 124 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 125 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 126 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 127 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 128 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 129 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 130 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 131 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 132 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 133 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 134 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 135 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 136 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 137 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | | 138 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | 1 | | 139 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | 0 | | 140 | 2009-07-11 13:23:24 | -1 | +-----+---------------------+--------+ How would I go about grouping the results by day 5 records at a time. The above results is part of the live data, there is over 100,000 results rows in the table and its growing. Basically I want to measure the change over time, so want to take a SUM of the result every X records. In the real data I'll be doing it ever 100 or 1000 but for the data above perhaps every 5. If i could sort it by date I would do something like this; SELECT DATE_FORMAT(date, '%h%i') ym, COUNT(result) 'Total Games', SUM(result) as 'Score' FROM nn_log GROUP BY ym; I can't figure out a way of doing something similar with numbers. The order is sorted by the date but I hope to split the data up every x results. It's safe to assume there are no blank rows. Doing it above with the data you could do multiple selects like; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 0,5; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 5,5; SELECT SUM(result) FROM table LIMIT 10,5; Thats obviously not a very good way to scale up to a bigger problem. I could just write a loop but I'd like to reduce the number of queries.

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  • Link error for user defined class type template parameter

    - by isurulucky
    Hi, I implemented a Simple STL map in C++. Factored out the comparison as a type as I was instructed to, then implemented the comparison as shown below: template <typename T> int KeyCompare<T>::operator () (T tKey1, T tKey2) { if(tKey1 < tKey2) return -1; else if(tKey1 > tKey2) return 1; else return 0; } here, tKey1 and tKet2 are the two keys I'm comparing. This worked well for all the basic data types and string. I added a template specialization to compare keys of a user defined type named Test and added a specialization as follows: int KeyCompare<Test>::operator () (Test tKey1, Test tKey2) { if(tKey1.a < tKey2.a) return -1; else if(tKey1.a > tKey2.a) return 1; else return 0; } when I run this, I get a linking error saying SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: int __thiscall KeyCompare::operator()(class Test,class Test)" (??R?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAEHVTest@@0@Z) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::~KeyCompare(void)" (??1?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::KeyCompare(void)" (??0?$KeyCompare@VTester@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj MapTest.cpp is the test harness class in which I wrote the test case. I have used include guards as well, to stop multiple inclusions. Any idea what the matter is?? Thank you very much!!

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  • OnConnect event not firing when using TClientSocket inside a TThread on non-blocking mode

    - by mathematician1975
    I am trying to make use of Borlands TClientSocket component in non-blocking mode inside a multithreaded C++ Windows application. I am creating multiple threads (classes derived from TThread), each of which creates its own TClientSocket object. I then assign member functions of the thread class to act as event handlers for the OnConnect, OnDisconnect and OnSocketError events of the socket. The problem I am having here is that whenever I call the TClientSocket::Open() function from within the TThread::Execute() function, the OnConnect event never fires. However, When I call the Open() function from the VCL thread prior to the TThread::Execute() function getting called, all of the events fire and I can use the thread-socket combination as I would like. Now I have not read anything in documentation that says that TClientSocket should not be used in non-blocking mode when used inside a thread, but it appears to me that there is perhaps something wrong conceptually in the way I am trying to use this class. Borland documentation is quite poor on the subject and these components have now been deprecated so reliable information is hard to come by. Despite being deprecated I have to use them as there is no alternative in the Builder 6 package I have. Can anyone please advise me if there is a right/wrong way to use TThread and a non-blocking TClientSocket in combination. I have never had problems using it as part of the VCL thread and never had problems using TServerSocket before and I really cannot understand why some events are not firing.

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  • PHP OOP singleton doesn't return object

    - by Misiur
    Weird trouble. I've used singleton multiple times but this particular case just doesn't want to work. Dump says that instance is null. define('ROOT', "/"); define('INC', 'includes/'); define('CLS', 'classes/'); require_once(CLS.'Core/Core.class.php'); $core = Core::getInstance(); var_dump($core->instance); $core->settings(INC.'config.php'); $core->go(); Core class class Core { static $instance; public $db; public $created = false; private function __construct() { $this->created = true; } static function getInstance() { if(!self::$instance) { self::$instance = new Core(); } else { return self::$instance; } } public function settings($path = null) { ... } public function go() { ... } } Error code Fatal error: Call to a member function settings() on a non-object in path It's possibly some stupid typo, but I don't have any errors in my editor. Thanks for the fast responses as always.

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  • Displaying same record twice- SQL Reporting Services

    - by RyanW
    Ok, here's the situation: I need to display the same record in two different sections. stupid i know, but here's why. The Report I am building is grouped by one Field, called Day. Each record has date/times, an expected arrival date time, and an expected departure date/time. so, at this point we have something like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5.............18/5 9.00am.........19/5 11.00am The boss only wants to show times that relate to the current day in the arrive/depart coloumns (easy enough with expressions), which ends up like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5..............9.00am.........................- the next thing he wants is to display the departing time in the correct day 'group', but as you can imagine as soon as you move to the next row, well you move to the next row of the table. So the question is: is there anyway to display the same record on multiple coloumns? Have i missed something or have i got an unsolvable problem? NOTE: this is not the only data in my table either. there is (for example) a name coloumn which also needs to be displayed on both days.

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  • Client-server synchronization pattern / algorithm?

    - by tm_lv
    I have a feeling that there must be client-server synchronization patterns out there. But i totally failed to google up one. Situation is quite simple - server is the central node, that multiple clients connect to and manipulate same data. Data can be split in atoms, in case of conflict, whatever is on server, has priority (to avoid getting user into conflict solving). Partial synchronization is preferred due to potentially large amounts of data. Are there any patterns / good practices for such situation, or if you don't know of any - what would be your approach? Below is how i now think to solve it: Parallel to data, a modification journal will be held, having all transactions timestamped. When client connects, it receives all changes since last check, in consolidated form (server goes through lists and removes additions that are followed by deletions, merges updates for each atom, etc.). Et voila, we are up to date. Alternative would be keeping modification date for each record, and instead of performing data deletes, just mark them as deleted. Any thoughts?

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  • Implementing a c/c++ style union as a column in MySQL

    - by user81338
    Friends, I have a strange need and cannot think my way through the problem. The great and mighty Google is of little help due to keyword recycling (as you'll see). Can you help? What I want to do is store data of multiple types in a single column in MySQL. This is the database equivalent to a C union (and if you search for MySQL and Union, you obviously get a whole bunch of stuff on the UNION keyword in SQL). [Contrived and simplified case follows] So, let us say that we have people - who have names - and STORMTROOPERS - who have TK numbers. You cannot have BOTH a NAME and a TK number. You're either BOB SMITH -or- TK409. In C I could express this as a union, like so: union { char * name; int tkNo; } EmperialPersonnelRecord; This makes it so that I am either storing a pointer to a char array or an ID in the type EmperialPersonnelRecord, but not both. I am looking for a MySQL equivalent on a column. My column would store either an int, double, or varchar(255) (or whatever combination). But would only take up the space of the largest element. Is this possible? (of course anything is possible given enough time, money and will - I mean is it possible if I am poor, lazy and on a deadline... aka "out of the box")

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  • Why is Chrome miscalculating jQuery submenu dimensions?

    - by chunkymonkey
    I'm trying to implement this dropdown menu with flyouts: http://jsfiddle.net/chunkymonkey/fr6x4/ In Chrome certain categories can be expanded to show their subcategories while others show nothing when opened up. For example: Alternative Rock can be expanded to show its multiple subcategories . . . BUT . . . World Music, which has as many subcategories, shows no subcategories when expanded. (SCREENSHOT: http://i.imgur.com/0WorR.jpg) I thought I had tracked this problem down to a problem with they way the dimensions of the dropdown elements are calculated in the original code: First change: - var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * 180; + var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * container.width(); Second change: Remove: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { if (el.height() > options.maxHeight) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll') }; el.css({ height: options.maxHeight }); }; Add: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { var max_height = options.maxHeight - breadcrumb.getTotalHeight(); if (el.height() > max_height) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll'); el.height(max_height); topList.height(max_height); } else { if (topList.height() < el.height()) { topList.height(el.height()); } } }; But it's still not working only on Chrome (version 8, Windows & Mac) (not sure why Chrome is different).

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  • How do I switch out Views in a Cocoa application?

    - by David Garcia
    So I'm beginning to learn how to use Cocoa. I think I've pretty much got it but I'm hung up on creating and switching views. I'm rewriting a game I made a little bit ago for practice. All I want is one window (preferably not resizable) and I want to be able to switch out views for different screens in the game. First, I have the main menu (Start Game, High Scores, Exit). Then I need a window for each screen (Gameplay screen, Highscore screen). What I'm getting confused with is how to design this. I looked up NSViewController thinking it manages views but it doesn't. It only manages one view by loading it really. I don't understand why I'd need to use NSViewController then. Couldn't I just have a window class that contains multiple subclasses of NSView and load them like that? I'm not sure I understand the purpose of the ViewController. Does my Window Class really need to subclass NSWindowController? I was trying to follow the example of Apple's ViewController example and it has a window controller class that's a subclass of NSWindowController. I don't see what the purpose was of subclassing that. All NSWindowController seems to add is - initWithPath:(NSString *)newPath but I fail to see the use in that either when I can just edit the plist file to open the window on start up. Apple's example also has an NSView variable and an NSViewController variable. Don't you only need one variable to store the current view? Thanks in advance guys, I'm really confused as to how this works.

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  • SQL trigger to delete rows from database

    - by wpearse
    I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

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  • InvalidOperationException: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was

    - by McN
    I got the following exception: Exception Type: System.InvalidOperationException Exception Message: The Undo operation encountered a context that is different from what was applied in the corresponding Set operation. The possible cause is that a context was Set on the thread and not reverted(undone). Exception Stack: at System.Threading.SynchronizationContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContextSwitcher.Undo() at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.runFinallyCode(Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteBackoutCodeHelper(Object backoutCode, Object userData, Boolean exceptionThrown) at System.Runtime.CompilerServices.RuntimeHelpers.ExecuteCodeWithGuaranteedCleanup(TryCode code, CleanupCode backoutCode, Object userData) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.RunInternal(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state) at System.Net.ContextAwareResult.Complete(IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.LazyAsyncResult.ProtectedInvokeCallback(Object result, IntPtr userToken) at System.Net.Sockets.BaseOverlappedAsyncResult.CompletionPortCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* nativeOverlapped) at System.Threading._IOCompletionCallback.PerformIOCompletionCallback(UInt32 errorCode, UInt32 numBytes, NativeOverlapped* pOVERLAP) Exception Source: mscorlib Exception TargetSite.Name: Undo Exception HelpLink: The application is a Visual Studio 2005 (.Net 2.0) console application. It is a server for multiple TCP/IP connections, doing asynchronous socket reads and synchronous socket writes. In searching for an answer I came across this post which talks about a call to Application.Doevents() which I don't use in my code. I also found this post which has a resolution involved with Component which I also don't use in my code. The application does reference a library that I created that contains custom user controls and components, but they are not being used by the application. Question: What caused this to happen and how do I prevent this from happening again? Or a more realistic question: What does this exception actually mean? How is "context" defined in this situation? Anything that can help me understand what is going on would be very much appreciated.

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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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  • What is the corrrect way to increment a field making up part of a composit key

    - by Tr1stan
    I have a bunch of tables whose primary key is made up of the foreign keys of other tables (Composite key). Therefore for example the attributes (as a very cut down version) might look like this: A[aPK, SomeFields] 1:M B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields] 1:M C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields] as data this could look like: A[aPK, SomeFields]: 1, Foo 2, Bar B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, FooData1 2, 1, FooData2 1, 2, BarData1 2, 2, BarData2 C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, 1, FooData1More 2, 1, 1, FooData1More 1, 2, 1, FooData2More 2, 2, 1, FooData2More 1, 1, 2, BarData1More 2, 1, 2, BarData1More 1, 2, 2, BarData2More 2, 2, 2, BarData2More I've got this running in a MSSQL DBMS and I'm looking for the best way to increment the left most column, in each table when a new tuple is added to it. I can't use the Auto Increment Identity Specification option as that has no idea that it is part of a composite key. I also don't want to use any aggregate function such as: MAX(field)+1 as this will have adverse affects with multiple users inputting data, rolling back etc. There might however be a nice trigger based option here, but I'm not sure. This must be a common issue so I'm hoping that someone has a lovely solution. As a side which may or may not affect the answer, I'm using Entity Framework 1.0 as my ORM, within a c# MVC application.

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