Search Results

Search found 18346 results on 734 pages for 'form'.

Page 695/734 | < Previous Page | 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702  | Next Page >

  • meteor mongodb _id changing after insert (and UUID property as well)

    - by lommaj
    I have meteor method that does an insert. Im using Regulate.js for form validation. I set the game_id field to Meteor.uuid() to create a unique value that I also route to /game_show/:game_id using iron router. As you can see I'm logging the details of the game, this works fine. (image link to log below) Meteor.methods({ create_game_form : function(data){ Regulate.create_game_form.validate(data, function (error, data) { if (error) { console.log('Server side validation failed.'); } else { console.log('Server side validation passed!'); // Save data to database or whatever... //console.log(data[0].value); var new_game = { game_id: Meteor.uuid(), name : data[0].value, game_type: data[1].value, creator_user_id: Meteor.userId(), user_name: Meteor.user().profile.name, created: new Date() }; console.log("NEW GAME BEFORE INSERT: ", new_game); GamesData.insert(new_game, function(error, new_id){ console.log("GAMES NEW MONGO ID: ", new_id) var game_data = GamesData.findOne({_id: new_id}); console.log('NEW GAME AFTER INSERT: ', game_data); Session.set('CURRENT_GAME', game_data); }); } }); } }); All of the data coming out of the console.log at this point works fine After this method call the client routes to /game_show/:game_id Meteor.call('create_game_form', data, function(error){ if(error){ return alert(error.reason); } //console.log("post insert data for routing variable " ,data); var created_game = Session.get('CURRENT_GAME'); console.log("Session Game ", created_game); Router.go('game_show', {game_id: created_game.game_id}); }); On this view, I try to load the document with the game_id I just inserted Template.game_start.helpers({ game_info: function(){ console.log(this.game_id); var game_data = GamesData.find({game_id: this.game_id}); console.log("trying to load via UUID ", game_data); return game_data; } }); sorry cant upload images... :-( https://www.evernote.com/shard/s21/sh/c07e8047-de93-4d08-9dc7-dae51668bdec/a8baf89a09e55f8902549e79f136fd45 As you can see from the image of the console log below, everything matches the id logged before insert the id logged in the insert callback using findOne() the id passed in the url However the mongo ID and the UUID I inserted ARE NOT THERE, the only document in there has all the other fields matching except those two! Not sure what im doing wrong. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • How to query data from a password protected https website

    - by Addie
    I'd like my application to query a csv file from a secure website. I have no experience with web programming so I'd appreciate detailed instructions. Currently I have the user login to the site, manually query the csv, and have my application load the file locally. I'd like to automate this by having the user enter his login information, authenticating him on the website, and querying the data. The application is written in C# .NET. The url of the site is: https://www2.emidas.com/default.asp. I've tested the following code already and am able to access the file once the user has already authenticated himself and created a manual query. System.Net.WebClient Client = new WebClient(); Stream strm = Client.OpenRead("https://www3.emidas.com/users/<username>/file.csv"); Here is the request sent to the site for authentication. I've angle bracketed the real userid and password. POST /pwdVal.asp HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, application/x-shockwave-flash, */* User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; Tablet PC 2.0; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Cookie: ASPSESSIONID<unsure if this data contained password info so removed>; ClientId=<username> Host: www3.emidas.com Content-Length: 36 Connection: Keep-Alive Cache-Control: no-cache Accept-Language: en-US client_id=<username>&password=<password>

    Read the article

  • C# Serialization Surrogate - Cannot access a disposed object

    - by crushhawk
    I have an image class (VisionImage) that is a black box to me. I'm attempting to serialize the image object to file using Serialization Surrogates as explained on this page. Below is my surrogate code. sealed class VisionImageSerializationSurrogate : ISerializationSurrogate { public void GetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; byte[,] temp = image.ImageToArray().U8; info.AddValue("width", image.Width); info.AddValue("height", image.Height); info.AddValue("pixelvalues", temp, temp.GetType()); } public Object SetObjectData(Object obj, SerializationInfo info, StreamingContext context, ISurrogateSelector selector) { VisionImage image = (VisionImage)obj; Int32 width = info.GetInt32("width"); Int32 height = info.GetInt32("height"); byte[,] temp = new byte[height, width]; temp = (byte[,])info.GetValue("pixelvalues", temp.GetType()); PixelValue2D tempPixels = new PixelValue2D(temp); image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); return image; } } I've stepped through it to write to binary. It seems to be working fine (file is getting bigger as the images are captured). I tried to test it read the file back in. The values read back in are correct as far as the "info" object is concerned. When I get to the line image.ArrayToImage(tempPixels); It throws the "Cannot access a disposed object" exception. Upon further inspection, the object and the resulting image are both marked as disposed. My code behind the form spawns an "acquisitionWorker" and runs the following code. void acquisitionWorker_LoadImages(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // This is the main function of the acquisition background worker thread. // Perform image processing here instead of the UI thread to avoid a // sluggish or unresponsive UI. BackgroundWorker worker = (BackgroundWorker)sender; try { uint bufferNumber = 0; // Loop until we tell the thread to cancel or we get an error. When this // function completes the acquisitionWorker_RunWorkerCompleted method will // be called. while (!worker.CancellationPending) { VisionImage savedImage = (VisionImage) formatter.Deserialize(fs); CommonAlgorithms.Copy(savedImage, imageViewer.Image); // Update the UI by calling ReportProgress on the background worker. // This will call the acquisition_ProgressChanged method in the UI // thread, where it is safe to update UI elements. Do not update UI // elements directly in this thread as doing so could result in a // deadlock. worker.ReportProgress(0, bufferNumber); bufferNumber++; } } catch (ImaqException ex) { // If an error occurs and the background worker thread is not being // cancelled, then pass the exception along in the result so that // it can be handled in the acquisition_RunWorkerCompleted method. if (!worker.CancellationPending) e.Result = ex; } } What am I missing here? Why would the object be immediately disposed?

    Read the article

  • Hidden divs for "lazy javascript" loading? Possible security/other issues?

    - by xyld
    I'm curious about people's opinion's and thoughts about this situation. The reason I'd like to lazy load javascript is because of performance. Loading javascript at the end of the body reduces the browser blocking and ends up with much faster page loads. But there is some automation I'm using to generate the html (django specifically). This automation has the convenience of allowing forms to be built with "Widgets" that output content it needs to render the entire widget (extra javascript, css, ...). The problem is that the widget wants to output javascript immediately into the middle of the document, but I want to ensure all javascript loads at the end of the body. When the following widget is added to a form, you can see it renders some <script>...</script> tags: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<script type="text/javascript"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </script>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output What I'm proposing is that if someone uses a <div class=".lazy-js">...</div> with some css (.lazy-js { display: none; }) and some javascript (jQuery('.lazy-js').each(function(index) { eval(jQuery(this).text()); }), you can effectively force all javascript to load at the end of page load: class AutoCompleteTagInput(forms.TextInput): class Media: css = { 'all': ('css/jquery.autocomplete.css', ) } js = ( 'js/jquery.bgiframe.js', 'js/jquery.ajaxQueue.js', 'js/jquery.autocomplete.js', ) def render(self, name, value, attrs=None): output = super(AutoCompleteTagInput, self).render(name, value, attrs) page_tags = Tag.objects.usage_for_model(DataSet) tag_list = simplejson.dumps([tag.name for tag in page_tags], ensure_ascii=False) return mark_safe(u'''<div class="lazy-js"> jQuery("#id_%s").autocomplete(%s, { width: 150, max: 10, highlight: false, scroll: true, scrollHeight: 100, matchContains: true, autoFill: true }); </div>''' % (name, tag_list,)) + output Nevermind all the details of my specific implementation (the specific media involved), I'm looking for a consensus on whether the method of using lazy-loaded javascript through hidden a hidden tags can pose issues whether security or other related? One of the most convenient parts about this is that it follows the DRY principle rather well IMO because you don't need to hack up a specific lazy-load for each instance in the page. It just "works". UPDATE: I'm not sure if django has the ability to queue things (via fancy template inheritance or something?) to be output just before the end of the </body>?

    Read the article

  • Simple Modal with Autocomplete in ASP.NET

    - by DanielJaymes
    Hello, I am quite new to this so any help is very much appreciated. I am generating a modal pop using Simple Modal, this works ok. I now want to add jquery autocomplete to the element txtEmail. When I run the page outside of Simple Modal I can use Autocomplete, however when the page is loaded through Simple Modal it does not work. I have checked to ensure the element is loaded, and it is allowing me to change the text color, but I can not add autocomplete to it. The code is /** * @author Daniel */ jQuery(function($) { $("input.ema, a.ema").click(function(e) { e.preventDefault(); $("#osx-modal-content").modal({ appendTo: 'form', overlayId: 'osx-overlay', containerId: 'osx-container', closeHTML: '<div class="close"><a href="#" class="simplemodal-close">X</a></div>', minHeight: 80, opacity: 65, position: ['0', ], overlayClose: true, onOpen: OSX.open, onClose: OSX.close, onShow: OSX.show }); }); var OSX = { container: null, open: function(d) { var self = this; $.ajax({ url: "/Message/UserMessage/", type: 'GET', dataType: 'html', // <-- to expect an html response success: function(result) { var data = "Core Selectors Attributes Traversing Manipulation CSS Events Effects Ajax Utilities".split(" "); $('div#osx-modal-data').html(result).find("#txtEmail").css('color', '#c00'); if ($('div#osx-modal-data').find("#txtEmail").length) { // implies *not* zero $('div#osx-modal-data').find("#txtEmail").autocomplete(data); alert('We found img elements on the page using "img"'); } else { alert('No txtEmail elements found'); } } }); self.container = d.container[0]; d.overlay.fadeIn('slow', function() { $("#osx-modal-content", self.container).show(); $('div#osx-modal-title').html("Send Email"); var title = $("#osx-modal-title", self.container); title.show(); d.container.slideDown('slow', function() { setTimeout(function() { var h = $("#osx-modal-data", self.container).height() + title.height() + 20; // padding d.container.animate({ height: h }, 200, function() { $("div.close", self.container).show(); $("#osx-modal-data", self.container).show(); }); }, 300); }); }) }, close: function(d) { var self = this; d.container.animate({ top: "-" + (d.container.height() + 20) }, 500, function() { self.close(); // or $.modal.close(); }); }, show: function(d) { // $('div#osx-modal-data').find("#txtEmail").css('color', '#ccc') } }; });

    Read the article

  • How to compute a unicode string which bidirectional representation is specified?

    - by valdo
    Hello, fellows. I have a rather pervert question. Please forgive me :) There's an official algorithm that describes how bidirectional unicode text should be presented. http://www.unicode.org/reports/tr9/tr9-15.html I receive a string (from some 3rd-party source), which contains latin/hebrew characters, as well as digits, white-spaces, punctuation symbols and etc. The problem is that the string that I receive is already in the representation form. I.e. - the sequence of characters that I receive should just be presented from left to right. Now, my goal is to find the unicode string which representation is exactly the same. Means - I need to pass that string to another entity; it would then render this string according to the official algorithm, and the result should be the same. Assuming the following: The default text direction (of the rendering entity) is RTL. I don't want to inject "special unicode characters" that explicitly override the text direction (such as RLO, RLE, etc.) I suspect there may exist several solutions. If so - I'd like to preserve the RTL-looking of the string as much as possible. The string usually consists of hebrew words mostly. I'd like to preserve the correct order of those words, and characters inside those words. Whereas other character sequences may (and should) be transposed. One naive way to solve this is just to swap the whole string (this takes care of the hebrew words), and then swap inside it sequences of non-hebrew characters. This however doesn't always produce correct results, because actual rules of representation are rather complex. The only comprehensive algorithm that I see so far is brute-force check. The string can be divided into sequences of same-class characters. Those sequences may be joined in random order, plus any of them may be reversed. I can check all those combinations to obtain the correct result. Plus this technique may be optimized. For instance the order of hebrew words is known, so we only have to check different combinations of their "joining" sequences. Any better ideas? If you have an idea, not necessarily the whole solution - it's ok. I'll appreciate any idea. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • how to update only the updated rows in gridview?

    - by user603007
    what is the handiest way to update only the updated rows (only the checkbox column) in this gridview? what is a handy way to check wether the row was updated? c# public partial class _Default : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { List<customer> listCustomer = new List<customer>(); customer cust1 = new customer(){name="fred",email="[email protected]",jobless="true"}; customer cust2 = new customer(){name="mark",email="[email protected]",jobless="false"}; listCustomer.Add(cust1); listCustomer.Add(cust2); GridView1.DataSource=listCustomer; GridView1.DataBind(); } } protected void btnUpdate_Click1(object sender, EventArgs e) { foreach (GridViewRow rw in GridView1.Rows) { CheckBox thiscontrol = (CheckBox)rw.Cells[0].FindControl("cb"); var ch = thiscontrol.Checked; //only update the updated rows? } } public class customer { public string name { get; set; } public string email { get; set; } public string jobless { get; set; } } html <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="Default.aspx.cs" Inherits="gridviewUpdate._Default" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:GridView ID="GridView1" AutoGenerateColumns="false" runat="server"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField> <ItemTemplate> <asp:CheckBox ID="jobless" runat="server" Checked='<%# Eval("jobless").ToString().Equals("true") %>' /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:BoundField DataField="email" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="name" /> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </div>

    Read the article

  • getting Cannot identify image file when trying to create thumbnail in django

    - by Mo J. Mughrabi
    Am trying to create a thumbnail in django, am trying to build a custom class specifically to be used for generating thumbnails. As following from StringIO import StringIO from PIL import Image class Thumbnail(object): source = '' size = (50, 50) output = '' def __init__(self): pass @staticmethod def load(src): self = Thumbnail() self.source = src return self def generate(self, size=(50, 50)): if not isinstance(size, tuple): raise Exception('Thumbnail class: The size parameter must be an instance of a tuple.') self.size = size # resize properties box = self.size factor = 1 fit = True image = Image.open(self.source) # Convert to RGB if necessary if image.mode not in ('L', 'RGB'): image = image.convert('RGB') while image.size[0]/factor > 2*box[0] and image.size[1]*2/factor > 2*box[1]: factor *=2 if factor > 1: image.thumbnail((image.size[0]/factor, image.size[1]/factor), Image.NEAREST) #calculate the cropping box and get the cropped part if fit: x1 = y1 = 0 x2, y2 = image.size wRatio = 1.0 * x2/box[0] hRatio = 1.0 * y2/box[1] if hRatio > wRatio: y1 = int(y2/2-box[1]*wRatio/2) y2 = int(y2/2+box[1]*wRatio/2) else: x1 = int(x2/2-box[0]*hRatio/2) x2 = int(x2/2+box[0]*hRatio/2) image = image.crop((x1,y1,x2,y2)) #Resize the image with best quality algorithm ANTI-ALIAS image.thumbnail(box, Image.ANTIALIAS) # save image to memory temp_handle = StringIO() image.save(temp_handle, 'png') temp_handle.seek(0) self.output = temp_handle return self def get_output(self): return self.output.read() the purpose of the class is so i can use it inside different locations to generate thumbnails on the fly. The class works perfectly, I've tested it directly under a view.. I've implemented the thumbnail class inside the save method of the forms to resize the original images on saving. in my design, I have two fields for thumbnails. I was able to generate one thumbnail, if I try to generate two it crashes and I've been stuck for hours not sure whats the problem. Here is my model class Image(models.Model): article = models.ForeignKey(Article) title = models.CharField(max_length=100, null=True, blank=True) src = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/') r128 = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/128/', blank=True, null=True) r200 = models.ImageField(upload_to='publication/image/200/', blank=True, null=True) uploaded_at = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) Here is my forms class ImageForm(models.ModelForm): """ """ class Meta: model = Image fields = ('src',) def save(self, commit=True): instance = super(ImageForm, self).save(commit=True) file = Thumbnail.load(instance.src) instance.r128 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, file.generate((128, 128)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) instance.r200 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, file.generate((200, 200)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) if commit: instance.save() return instance the strange part is, when i remove the line which contains instance.r200 in the form save. It works fine, and it does the thumbnail and stores it successfully. Once I add the second thumbnail it fails.. Any ideas what am doing wrong here? Thanks Update: I tried earlier doing the following but I still got the same error class ImageForm(models.ModelForm): """ """ class Meta: model = Image fields = ('src',) def save(self, commit=True): instance = super(ImageForm, self).save(commit=True) instance.r128 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, Thumbnail.load(instance.src).generate((128, 128)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) instance.r200 = SimpleUploadedFile( instance.src.name, Thumbnail.load(instance.src).generate((200, 200)).get_output(), content_type='image/png' ) if commit: instance.save() return instance

    Read the article

  • cakephp datetime insertion behaviour

    - by littlechad
    hi everyone this is a cakePHP question about datetime database insertion mismatch, i jumped in to this project while the whole thing is already built around 70%. here's what happen, every time i insert a data that contain a datetime, the inserted time doesn't match the inputted date, and the mismatch has no pattern or what ever, in some table the differences is 5 hours, while in others it could be 12 hours, 7 hours, or even 15 hours. i have traced this by investigating the controller, the model, the app_controller, everything but i don't find anything that indicate a datetime insertion rules. if the view : echo $form->input('start_date', array('label' => __l('start date')); i can't even find in the controller anything like: $this->data['current_controller']['start_date'] = $this->data['current_controller']['start_date']; when i use pr($this-data); to print the posted data, this is shown: [start_date] => Array ( [month] => 02 [day] => 16 [year] => 2011 [hour] => [min] => [meridian] => ) so i figured doing something like: $yearMonDay = $this->data['current_controller']['start_date']['year']."-"; $yearMonDay .= $this->data['current_controller']['start_date']['month']."-"; $yearMonDay .= $this->data['current_controller']['start_date']['day']; if(!empty($this->data['current_controller']['start_date']['hour'])){ $hourMinSec = $this->data['current_controller']['start_date']['hour'].":"; $hourMinSec .= $this->data['current_controller']['start_date']['min'].":"; $hourMinSec .= $this->data['current_controller']['start_date']['meridian']; }else{ $hourMinSec = "00:00:00"; } $this->data['Deal']['start_date'] = $yearMonDay." ".$hourMinSec; just to make sure the funny thing is that those posted datetime is inserted into the database with the mismatch value anyway. it's getting pretty frustrating, is there any suggestion on where else should i find the codes that define how the datetime should be inserted? or probably give me a clue on how to override those mismatched insertion rules? thanks

    Read the article

  • Issues in Ajax based applications

    - by Sinuhe
    I'm very interested in developing Ajax based applications. This is, loading almost all of the content of the application via XMLHttpRequest, instead of only some combos and widgets. But if I try to do this form scratch, soon I find some problems without an easy solution. I wonder if there is some framework (both client and server side) to deal with this issues. As far as I know, there isn't (but I've searched mainly in Java world). So I am seriously thinking of doing my own framework, at least for my projects. Therefore, in this question I ask for several things. First, the possible problems of an ajax based development. Then, I'm looking for some framework or utility in order to deal with them. Finally, if there is no framework available, what features must it have. Here are the issues I thought: 1 - JavaScript must be enabled. Security paranoia isn't the only problem: a lot of mobile devices couldn't use the application, too. 2 - Sometimes you need to update more than one DIV (e.g. main content, menu and breadcrumbs). 3 - Unknown response type: when you make an Ajax call, you set the callback function too, usually specifying if expected response is a javascript object or in which DIV put the result. But this fails when you get another type of response: for example when the session has expired and the user must log in again. 4 - Browser's refresh, back and forward buttons can be a real pain. User will expect different behaviors depending on the situation. 5 - When search engines indexes a site, only follow links. Thus, content load by Ajax won't "exist" for who doesn't know about it yet. 6 - Users can ask for open a link in a different window/tab. 7 - Address bar doesn't show the "real" page you are in. So, you can't copy the location and send it to a friend or bookmark the page. 8 - If you want to monetize the site, you can put some advertisings. As you don't refresh entire page and you want to change the ad after some time, you have to refresh only the DIV where the ad is. But this can violate the Terms and Conditions of your ad service. In fact, it can go against AdSense TOS. 9 - When you refresh an entire page, all JavaScript gets "cleaned". But in Ajax calls, all JavaScript objects will remain. 10 - You can't easily change your CSS properties.

    Read the article

  • Converting a list into a select with jquery

    - by Davemof
    I'm trying to convert the following list into a select list so it can be submitted via a form - the element within the lists will become the value of each option: <ul class="selected connected-list ui-sortable" style="height: 279px;"> <li class="ui-helper-hidden-accessible" style=""></li> <li title="Owner Name 1 - " class="ui-state-default ui-element ui-draggable" style="display: block; position: relative; top: 0px; left: 0px;"><span class="ui-icon-arrowthick-2-n-s ui-icon"></span>Owner Name 1 - <em class="thenumber">4.4796E+11</em><a class="action" href="#"><span class="ui-corner-all ui-icon ui-icon-minus"></span></a></li> <li title="David Moffat - " class="ui-state-default ui-element" style="display: block; position: relative; top: 0px; left: 0px;"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-arrowthick-2-n-s"></span>David Moffat - <em class="thenumber">07730423005</em><a class="action" href="#"><span class="ui-corner-all ui-icon ui-icon-minus"></span></a></li> </ul> This should convert to the following format: <select style="display:none" class="selectoption" name="p_num[]" multiple="multiple"> <option value="">4.4796E+11</option> <option value="">07730423007</option> </select> I have tried the following jquery code, but after many hours I'm pulling my hair out: $('a.sendform').click(function(){ $('ul.selected').each(function() { var $select = $('<select />'); $(this).find('li').each(function() { var $option = $('<option />'); $option.attr('value', $(this).('em')).html($(this).html()); $select.append($option); }); $(this).replaceWith($select); }); }); Any help might save my remaining hair. Many thanks David

    Read the article

  • Assign value to HTML textbox from JSP

    - by prakash_d22
    Hello I am creating a web page to add some information about given product.I need to enter id,name,description and image as information.I need the id to be auto generated.I am using jsp and database as access.I am fetching the count(*)+1 value from database and assigning to my html text box but its showing as null.can i get some help? Code: <body> <%@page import="java.sql.*"%> <%! String no; %> <% try{ Class.forName("sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver"); Connection con = DriverManager.getConnection("jdbc:odbc:pd"); ResultSet rs = null; Statement st = con.createStatement(); String sql = ("select count(*)+1 from products"); st.executeUpdate(sql); while (rs.next()) { no=rs.getString("count(*)+1"); } rs.close(); st.close(); con.close(); } catch(Exception e){} %> <Form name='Form1' action="productcode.jsp" method="post"> <table width="1024" border="0"> <tr> <td width="10">&nbsp;</td> <td width="126">Add Product: </td> <td width="277">&nbsp;</td> <td width="583">&nbsp;</td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;</td> <td>Product Id:</td> <td><label> <input type="text" name="id" value="<%= no%>"/> </label></td> <td>&nbsp;</td> .... and so on

    Read the article

  • jquery use of :last and val()

    - by dole doug
    I'm trying to run the code from http://jsfiddle.net/ddole/AC5mP/13/ on my machine and the approach I've use is below or here. Do you know why that code doesn't work on my machine. Firebug doesn't help me and I can't solve the problem. I think that I need another pair of eyes :((( <!DOCTYPE html> <html lang="en"> <head> <meta charset="utf-8"> <title>jQuery UI Dialog - Modal form</title> <link type="text/css" href="css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.21.custom.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-ui-1.8.21.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" > jQuery(function($) { $('.helpDialog').hide(); $('.helpButton').each(function() { $.data(this, 'dialog', $(this).next('.helpDialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false, modal: true, width: 300, height: 250, buttons: { "Save": function() { alert($('.helpText:last').val()); $(this).dialog( "close" ); }, Cancel: function() { $(this).dialog( "close" ); } } }) ); }).click(function() { $.data(this, 'dialog').dialog('open'); return false; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <span class="helpButton">Button</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> <span class="helpButton">Button 2</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> <span class="helpButton">Button 3</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> <span class="helpButton">Button 4</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> <span class="helpButton">Button 5</span> <div class="helpDialog"> <input type="text" class="helpText" /> </div> </body>

    Read the article

  • Correct way to use Drupal 7 Entities and Field API

    - by Martin Petts
    I'm trying to use Drupal 7's entities and field API to correctly build a new module. What I have been unable to understand from the documentation is the correct way to use the new API to create a 'content type' (not a node type) with a number of set fields, such as Body. I'm trying to set up the entity using hook_entity_info, then I believe I need to add the body field using field_create_instance, but I can't seem to get it to work. In mycontenttype.module: /** * Implements hook_entity_info(). */ function mycontenttype_entity_info() { $return = array( 'mycontenttype' => array( 'label' => t('My Content Type'), 'controller class' => 'MyContentTypeEntityController', 'base table' => 'content_type', 'uri callback' => 'content_type_uri', 'entity keys' => array( 'id' => 'cid', 'label' => 'title' ), 'bundles' => array( 'mycontenttype' => array( 'label' => 'My Content Type', 'admin' => array( 'path' => 'admin/contenttype', 'access arguments' => array('administer contenttype') ) ) ), 'fieldable' => true ) ); return $return; } /** * Implements hook_field_extra_fields(). */ function mycontenttype_field_extra_fields() { $return['mycontenttype']['mycontenttype'] = array( 'form' = array( 'body' = array( 'label' = 'Body', 'description' = t('Body content'), 'weight' = 0, ), ), ); return $return; } Then does this go in the .install file? function mycontenttype_install() { $field = array( 'field_name' => 'body', 'type' => 'text_with_summary', 'entity_types' => array('survey'), 'translatable' => TRUE, ); field_create_field($field); $instance = array( 'entity_type' => 'mycontenttype', 'field_name' => 'body', 'bundle' => 'mycontenttype', 'label' => 'Body', 'widget_type' => 'text_textarea_with_summary', 'settings' => array('display_summary' => TRUE), 'display' => array( 'default' => array( 'label' => 'hidden', 'type' => 'text_default', ), 'teaser' => array( 'label' => 'hidden', 'type' => 'text_summary_or_trimmed', ) ) ); field_create_instance($instance); }

    Read the article

  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

    Read the article

  • gcc optimization? bug? and its practial implication to project

    - by kumar_m_kiran
    Hi All, My questions are divided into three parts Question 1 Consider the below code, #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main( int argc, char *argv[]) { const int v = 50; int i = 0X7FFFFFFF; cout<<(i + v)<<endl; if ( i + v < i ) { cout<<"Number is negative"<<endl; } else { cout<<"Number is positive"<<endl; } return 0; } No specific compiler optimisation options are used or the O's flag is used. It is basic compilation command g++ -o test main.cpp is used to form the executable. The seemingly very simple code, has odd behaviour in SUSE 64 bit OS, gcc version 4.1.2. The expected output is "Number is negative", instead only in SUSE 64 bit OS, the output would be "Number is positive". After some amount of analysis and doing a 'disass' of the code, I find that the compiler optimises in the below format - Since i is same on both sides of comparison, it cannot be changed in the same expression, remove 'i' from the equation. Now, the comparison leads to if ( v < 0 ), where v is a constant positive, So during compilation itself, the else part cout function address is added to the register. No cmp/jmp instructions can be found. I see that the behaviour is only in gcc 4.1.2 SUSE 10. When tried in AIX 5.1/5.3 and HP IA64, the result is as expected. Is the above optimisation valid? Or, is using the overflow mechanism for int not a valid use case? Question 2 Now when I change the conditional statement from if (i + v < i) to if ( (i + v) < i ) even then, the behaviour is same, this atleast I would personally disagree, since additional braces are provided, I expect the compiler to create a temporary built-in type variable and them compare, thus nullify the optimisation. Question 3 Suppose I have a huge code base, an I migrate my compiler version, such bug/optimisation can cause havoc in my system behaviour. Ofcourse from business perspective, it is very ineffective to test all lines of code again just because of compiler upgradation. I think for all practical purpose, these kinds of error are very difficult to catch (during upgradation) and invariably will be leaked to production site. Can anyone suggest any possible way to ensure to ensure that these kind of bug/optimization does not have any impact on my existing system/code base? PS : When the const for v is removed from the code, then optimization is not done by the compiler. I believe, it is perfectly fine to use overflow mechanism to find if the variable is from MAX - 50 value (in my case).

    Read the article

  • invalid postback event instead of dropdown to datagrid

    - by rima
    I faced with funny situation. I created a page which is having some value, I set these value and control my post back event also. The problem is happening when I change a component index(ex reselect a combobox which is not inside my datagrid) then I dont know why without my page call the Page_Load it goes to create a new row in grid function and all of my parameter are null! I am just receiving null exception. So in other word I try to explain the situation: when I load my page I am initializing some parameter. then everything is working fine. in my page when I change selected item of my combo box, page suppose to go and run function related to that combo box, and call page_load, but it is not going there and it goes to rowcreated function. I am trying to illustrate part of my page. Please help me because I am not receiving any error except null exception and it triger wrong even which seems so complicated for me. public partial class W_CM_FRM_02 : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (Page.IsPostBack && !loginFail) return; InitializeItems(); } } private void InitializeItems() { cols = new string[] { "v_classification_code", "v_classification_name" }; arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION = (ArrayList)db.Select(cols, "CMMM_CLASSIFICATION", "v_classification_code <> 'N'", " ORDER BY v_classification_name"); } } protected void DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated(object sender, GridViewRowEventArgs e) { //db = (Database)Session["oCon"]; foreach (DataRow dr in arrlstCMMM_CLASSIFICATION) ((DropDownList)DGV_RFA_DETAILS.Rows[index].Cells[4].FindControl("OV_RFA_CLASSIFICATION")).Items.Add(new ListItem(dr["v_classification_name"].ToString(), dr["v_classification_code"].ToString())); } protected void V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "xxx" || V_CUSTOMER.SelectedValue == "ddd") V_IMPACTED_FUNCTIONS.Enabled = true; } } my form: <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/MasterPage.master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="W_CM_FRM_02.aspx.cs" Inherits="W_CM_FRM_02" Title="W_CM_FRM_02" enableeventvalidation="false" EnableViewState="true"%> <td>Project name*</td> <td><asp:DropDownList ID="V_CUSTOMER" runat="server" AutoPostBack="True" onselectedindexchanged="V_CUSTOMER_SelectedIndexChanged" /></td> <td colspan = "8"> <asp:GridView ID="DGV_RFA_DETAILS" runat="server" ShowFooter="True" AutoGenerateColumns="False" CellPadding="1" ForeColor="#333333" GridLines="None" OnRowDeleting="grvRFADetails_RowDeleting" Width="100%" Style="text-align: left" onrowcreated="DGV_RFA_DETAILS_RowCreated"> <RowStyle BackColor="#FFFBD6" ForeColor="#333333" /> <Columns> <asp:BoundField DataField="ON_RowNumber" HeaderText="SNo" /> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="RFA/RAD/Ticket No*"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:TextBox ID="OV_RFA_NO" runat="server" Width="120"></asp:TextBox> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField>

    Read the article

  • How to page multiple data sets in ASP.NET MVC

    - by REA_ANDREW
    On a single view I will have three sets of paged data. Which means for each model I will have The Objects The Page Index The Page Size My initial thought was for example: public class PagedModel<T> where T:class { public IList<T> Objects { get; set; } public int ModelPageIndex { get; set; } public int ModelPageSize { get; set; } } Then having a model which is to be supplied to the action as for example: public class TypesViewModel { public PagedModel<ObjectA> Types1 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectB> Typed2 { get; set; } public PagedModel<ObjectC> Types3 { get; set; } } So if I then for example have the Index view inherit from the type: System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<uk.co.andrewrea.forum.Web.Models.TypesViewModel> Now my initial aciton method for the index is simply: public ActionResult Index() { var forDisplayPurposes = new TypesViewModel(); return View(forDisplayPurposes); } If I then want to page, it is here where I am struggling to decide which action to take. Lets say that I select the next page of the Types2 PageModel. What should the action look like for this in order to return the new view showing the second page of the Types2 PageModel I was thinking possibly to duplicate the action but use it with POST [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Index(TypesViewModel model) { return View(model); } Is this a good way to approach it. I understand there is always Session, but I was just wondering how such a thing is achieved currently out there. If any best methods have been mutually accepted and things. So simply, one page with multiple paged models. How to persist the data for each using a wrapper model. Which way should you pass in the model and which way should you page the data, i.e. Form Post Lastly, I have seen the routes take this into account i.e. {controller}/{action}/{id}/{pageindex}/{pagesize} but this only accounts for one model and I do not really wwant to repeat the pagesize and pageindex values for the number of models I have inside the wrapper model. Thanks for your time!! Andrew

    Read the article

  • How do you programmatically set a Style on a View?

    - by Greg
    I would like to do something like this: <Button android:id="@+id/button" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_cotent" style="@style/SubmitButtonType" /> But in code The xml approach works fine provided that SubmitButtonType is defined. Now what I assume happens is that the appt parser runs through this xml, generates an AttributeSet. That AttributeSet when passed to context/theme#obtainStyledAttributes() will have the style ref mask anything that is not written inline in this tag. Great that's fine! Now how do we do this programmatically. Button, as well as other View types, has a constructor that has the form: <Widget>(Context context, AttributeSet set, int defStyle). So I thought this would work. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.style.SubmitButtonType); However, I am finding that defStyle is badly documented as it really should be written to be a resourceId to an attribute (from R.attrs) that will be passed to obtainStyledAttributes() as the attribute resource, and not the style resource. After looking at the code, all the view implementations seem to pass 0 as the styleRef. I don't see the harm in having it passed as both the attr and the style resource (more flexible and negligible overhead) However I might be approaching this all wrong. How do you do this in code then other than by setting each individual element of the style to the specific widget you want to style (only possible by looking a the code to see what param maps to which method or set of methods). The only way I have found to do this is: <declare-styleable> <attr name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case" format="reference"> </declare-styleable> <style name="MyAlreadyExistantTheme" > ... ... <item name="totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case">@style/SubmitButtonType</item> </style> And instead of passing R.style.SubmitButtonType as defStyle, I pass the new R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case. Button button = new Button(context, null, R.attr.totallyAdhoc_attribute_just_for_this_case); This works but sounds way too complicated.

    Read the article

  • emacs: how do I use edebug on code that is defined in a macro?

    - by Cheeso
    I don't even know the proper terminology for this lisp syntax, so I don't know if the words I'm using to ask the question, make sense. But the question makes sense, I'm sure. So let me just show you. cc-mode (cc-fonts.el) has things called "matchers" which are bits of code that run to decide how to fontify a region of code. That sounds simple enough, but the matcher code is in a form I don't completely understand, with babckticks and comma-atsign and just comma and so on, and furthermore it is embedded in a c-lang-defcost, which itself is a macro. And I want to run edebug on that code. Look: (c-lang-defconst c-basic-matchers-after "Font lock matchers for various things that should be fontified after generic casts and declarations are fontified. Used on level 2 and higher." t `(;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. (The enum type ;; name is handled by `c-simple-decl-matchers' or ;; `c-complex-decl-matchers' below. ,@(when (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds) `((,(c-make-font-lock-search-function (concat "\\<\\(" (c-make-keywords-re nil (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds)) "\\)\\>" ;; Disallow various common punctuation chars that can't come ;; before the '{' of the enum list, to avoid searching too far. "[^\]\[{}();,/#=]*" "{") '((c-font-lock-declarators limit t nil) (save-match-data (goto-char (match-end 0)) (c-put-char-property (1- (point)) 'c-type 'c-decl-id-start) (c-forward-syntactic-ws)) (goto-char (match-end 0))))))) I am reading up on lisp syntax to figure out what those things are and what to call them, but aside from that, how can I run edebug on the code that follows the comment that reads ;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. ? I know how to run edebug on a defun - just invoke edebug-defun within the function's definition, and off I go. Is there a corresponding thing I need to do to edebug the cc-mode matcher code forms?

    Read the article

  • HTTP Handlers in Win2008/IIS7

    - by Keith Barrows
    We are migrating our web sites from Win2003/IIS6 to Win2008/IIS7. Our .NET code is in a WAP form with compiled binaries. I do dev work on a Win7/IIS7 box so had to learn early how to set up HTTP Handlers in this newer environment. What I have that has worked fine on my box is: <system.webServer> <handlers> <remove name="WebServiceHandlerFactory-Integrated" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactory" /> <remove name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" /> <remove name="ScriptResource" /> <add name="RivWorks" path="*.riv" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="RivWorks2" path="*.riv2" verb="*" modules="IsapiModule" scriptProcessor="C:\Windows\Microsoft.NET\Framework\v2.0.50727\aspnet_isapi.dll" resourceType="Unspecified" requireAccess="Script" preCondition="classicMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness32" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactory" verb="*" path="*.asmx" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptHandlerFactoryAppServices" verb="*" path="*_AppService.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptHandlerFactory, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> <add name="ScriptResource" verb="GET,HEAD" path="ScriptResource.axd" preCondition="integratedMode" type="System.Web.Handlers.ScriptResourceHandler, System.Web.Extensions, Version=3.5.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31BF3856AD364E35" /> </handlers> All I am getting on the new web site when I try to call into the *.riv handler is: 404 - File or directory not found. The resource you are looking for might have been removed, had its name changed, or is temporarily unavailable. OK. You see interesting things when writing out these questions. Our server is setup in integrated mode and runs on a x64 system. So, I changed the precondition clause to: preCondition="integratedMode,runtimeVersionv2.0,bitness64" Now I get this instead: 500 - Internal server error. There is a problem with the resource you are looking for, and it cannot be displayed. Any ideas of what I should be doing, where I should be looking? TIA

    Read the article

  • MVC EditorFor bind to type in array

    - by BradBrening
    I have a ViewModel that, among other properties, contains an array of 'EmailAddress' objects. EmailAddress itself has properties such as "Address", and "IsPrimary". My view model breakdown is: public class UserDetailsViewModel { public BUser User { get; set; } public string[] Roles { get; set; } public EmailAddress[] EmailAddresses { get; set; } } I am showing a "User Details" page that is pretty standard. For example, I'm displaying data using @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.UserName) and @Html.DisplayFor(model => model.User.Comment) I also have a section on the page that lists all of the EmailAddress objects associated with the user: @if(Model.EmailAddresses.Length > 0) { foreach (var address in Model.EmailAddresses) { <div> @Html.DisplayFor(model => address.Address) </div> } } else { <div class="center">User does not have any email addresses.</div> } My problem is that I would like to show an "Add Email Address" form above the list of email addresses. I thought I would take the "normal" approach thusly: @using(Html.BeginForm(new { id=Model.User.UserName, action="AddUserEmailAddress" })) { <text>Address:</text> @Html.EditorFor(model => ** HERE I AM STUCK **) <input type="submit" value="Add Email" class="button" /> } As you may be able to tell, I am stuck here. I've tried model => Model.EmailAddresses[0] and model => Model.EmailAddresses.FirstOrDefault(). Both of these have failed horribly. I am sure that I am going about this all wrong. I've even thought of adding a "dummy" property to my ViewModel of type EmailAddress just so that I can bind to that in my EditorFor - but that seems to be a really bad hack. There has to be something simple that I'm overlooking! I would appreciate any help anyone can offer with this matter. Thank you in advance!

    Read the article

  • All possible combinations of length 8 in a 2d array

    - by CodeJunki
    Hi, I've been trying to solve a problem in combinations. I have a matrix 6X6 i'm trying to find all combinations of length 8 in the matrix. I have to move from neighbor to neighbor form each row,column position and i wrote a recursive program which generates the combination but the problem is it generates a lot of duplicates as well and hence is inefficient. I would like to know how could i eliminate calculating duplicates and save time. int a={{1,2,3,4,5,6}, {8,9,1,2,3,4}, {5,6,7,8,9,1}, {2,3,4,5,6,7}, {8,9,1,2,3,4}, {5,6,7,8,9,1}, } void genSeq(int row,int col,int length,int combi) { if(length==8) { printf("%d\n",combi); return; } combi = (combi * 10) + a[row][col]; if((row-1)>=0) genSeq(row-1,col,length+1,combi); if((col-1)>=0) genSeq(row,col-1,length+1,combi); if((row+1)<6) genSeq(row+1,col,length+1,combi); if((col+1)<6) genSeq(row,col+1,length+1,combi); if((row+1)<6&&(col+1)<6) genSeq(row+1,col+1,length+1,combi); if((row-1)>=0&&(col+1)<6) genSeq(row-1,col+1,length+1,combi); if((row+1)<6&&(row-1)>=0) genSeq(row+1,col-1,length+1,combi); if((row-1)>=0&&(col-1)>=0) genSeq(row-1,col-1,length+1,combi); } I was also thinking of writing a dynamic program basically recursion with memorization. Is it a better choice?? if yes than I'm not clear how to implement it in recursion. Have i really hit a dead end with approach??? Thankyou Edit Eg result 12121212,12121218,12121219,12121211,12121213. the restrictions are that you have to move to your neighbor from any point, you have to start for each position in the matrix i.e each row,col. you can move one step at a time, i.e right, left, up, down and the both diagonal positions. Check the if conditions. i.e if your in (0,0) you can move to either (1,0) or (1,1) or (0,1) i.e three neighbors. if your in (2,2) you can move to eight neighbors. so on...

    Read the article

  • Effective Data Validation

    - by John Conde
    What's an effective way to handle data validation, say, from a form submission? Originally I had a bunch of if statements that checked each value and collected invalid values in an array for later retrieval (and listing). // Store errors here $errors = array(); // Hypothetical check if a string is alphanumeric if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $fieldvalue)) { $errors[$fieldname] = 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'; } // etc... What I did next was create a class that handles various data validation scenarios and store the results in an internal array. After data validation was complete I would check to see if any errors occurred and handle accordingly: class Validation { private $errorList = array(); public function isAlphaNumeric($string, $field, $msg = '') { if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $string)) { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } } // more methods here public function creditCard($cardNumber, $field, $msg = '') { // Validate credit card number } // more methods here public function hasErrors() { return count($this->errorList); } } /* Client code */ $validate = new Validation(); $validate->isAlphaNumeric($fieldvalue1, $fieldname1, 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'); $validate->creditCard($fieldvalue2, $fieldname2, 'Please enter a valid credit card number'); if ($validate->hasErrors()) { // Handle as appropriate } Naturally it didn't take long before this class became bloated with the virtually unlimited types of data to be validated. What I'm doing now is using decorators to separate the different types of data into their own classes and call them only when needed leaving generic validations (i.e. isAlphaNumeric()) in the base class: class Validation { private $errorList = array(); public function isAlphaNumeric($string, $field, $msg = '') { if (!preg_match('/^[a-z\d]+$/i', $string)) { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } } // more generic methods here public function setError($field, $msg = '') { $this->errorList[$field] = $msg; } public function hasErrors() { return count($this->errorList); } } class ValidationCreditCard { protected $validate; public function __construct(Validation $validate) { $this->validate = $validate; } public function creditCard($cardNumber, $field, $msg = '') { // Do validation // ... // if there is an error $this->validate->setError($field, $msg); } // more methods here } /* Client code */ $validate = new Validation(); $validate->isAlphaNumeric($fieldvalue, $fieldname, 'Please only use letters and numbers for your street address'); $validateCC = new ValidationCreditCard($validate); $validateCC->creditCard($fieldvalue2, $fieldname2, 'Please enter a valid credit card number'); if ($validate->hasErrors()) { // Handle as appropriate } Am I on the right track? Or did I just complicate data validation more then I needed to?

    Read the article

  • jQuery - Show field based on value of a type-hidden on refresh.

    - by Sebhael
    Hello, I'm trying to create something in jQuery and having a bit of problems with it. I'm not too adept on the framework, so I'm sure this is all wrong. Anyways, the ultimate goal is a full form that contains 3 radio buttons - depending on the value of the button, a LI is shown. I have all of that done, but my problem is coming with validation. If something fails then the page is reloaded and the div that was selected doesn't show without clicking another radio first, then back to the original. This process is basically the same as someone came up with here. Here's what I got so far. HTML <li> <label> License (radio) </label> <label for="commercial" class="checkBox"> Commercial </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="commercial" id="commercial" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'commercial'); ?> /> <label for="abandonware" class="checkBox"> Abandonware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="abandonware" id="abandonware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'abandonware'); ?> /> <label for="freeware" class="checkBox"> Freeware </label> <input type="radio" name="license" value="freeware" id="freeware" class="checkBox" <?php echo set_radio('license', 'freeware'); ?> /> </li> This is followed by three LI's that contain id="commercial, abandonware, and freeware" and class="licenseli" My jQuery is, as said, something from here. $('li.licenseli').hide(); $('input[name=license]:radio').change(function(){ var Type = $(this).val(); // Get value of radio $('li.licenseli').slideUp(); // Hide non-selected $('li#'+Type).slideDown(); // Show Selected }); So what I need help with is I have a hidden input that retrieves the value of the radio box from validation - I want to take this value (or the radio's if possible?) and have the original selected option's LI already visible.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 691 692 693 694 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702  | Next Page >