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  • Why is Chrome miscalculating jQuery submenu dimensions?

    - by chunkymonkey
    I'm trying to implement this dropdown menu with flyouts: http://jsfiddle.net/chunkymonkey/fr6x4/ In Chrome certain categories can be expanded to show their subcategories while others show nothing when opened up. For example: Alternative Rock can be expanded to show its multiple subcategories . . . BUT . . . World Music, which has as many subcategories, shows no subcategories when expanded. (SCREENSHOT: http://i.imgur.com/0WorR.jpg) I thought I had tracked this problem down to a problem with they way the dimensions of the dropdown elements are calculated in the original code: First change: - var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * 180; + var newLeftVal = - ($('.fg-menu-current').parents('ul').size() - 1) * container.width(); Second change: Remove: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { if (el.height() > options.maxHeight) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll') }; el.css({ height: options.maxHeight }); }; Add: var checkMenuHeight = function(el) { var max_height = options.maxHeight - breadcrumb.getTotalHeight(); if (el.height() > max_height) { el.addClass('fg-menu-scroll'); el.height(max_height); topList.height(max_height); } else { if (topList.height() < el.height()) { topList.height(el.height()); } } }; But it's still not working only on Chrome (version 8, Windows & Mac) (not sure why Chrome is different).

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  • How to get at specific HTML elements of a document using C# and Hide them/Show them etc.

    - by LaserBeak
    Basically I want to load a HTML document and using controls such as multiple check boxes which will be programmed to hide, delete or show HTML elements with certain ID's. So I am thinking I would have to set an inline CSS property for visibility to: false on the ones I want to hide or delete them altogether when necessary. I need this so I don't have to edit my Ebay HTML templates in dreamweaver all the time, where I usually have to scroll around messy code and manually delete or add tags and their respective content. Whereas I just want to create one master template in dreamweaver which has all the variations that my products have, since they are all of the same genre with slight changes here and there and I just need to enable and disable the visibility of these variants as required and copy + paste the final html. I haven's used Windows Forms before, but tried doing this in WebForms which I do know a bit. I am able to get the result that I want by wrapping any HTML elements in a <asp:PlaceHolder></asp:PlaceHolder> and just setting that place holders visibility to false after the associated checkbox is checked and a postback occurs, finally I add a checkbox/button control that removes all the checkboxes, including itself etc for final html. But this method seems just like too much pain in the ass as I have to add the placeholder tags around everything that I need control over as ordinary html elements do not run at server, also webforms injects a bunch of Javascript and ViewState data so I don't have clean HTML which I can just copy after viewing the page source. Any tips/code that you can suggest to achieve the desired effect with the least changes required to existing HTML documents? Ideally I would want to load the HTML document in, have a live design preview of it and underneath have a bunch of well labelled checkboxes programmed to hide, delete or show elements with certain ID's. Thanks...

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  • ASP Function that returns result from stored procedures

    - by Brad
    I am working on a project that requires me to hop into to separate DB's. So I have figured that I need to have multiple functions inside of my VB page. The only problem I am having,is I am not to sure how to get this all accomplished. So far I have figured out the overall structure, just need help implementing that structure. Here is my idea: The main Function would call two other functions. We can Call them Sub Function 1 and Sub Function 2. So, the main Function takes the saved sessions information for the E-mail address and dumps in into Sub Function 1. It needs to open up a new connection to the db/stored procedure and RUN the following procedure and then return the result. Here is the stored procedure and what i think is correct. CREATE PROCEDURE WEB_User ( @EMAIL_ADDRESS varchar(80) = [EMAIL_ADDRESS] ) AS SELECT MEMBER_NUMBER FROM WEB_LOGIN WHERE EMAIL_ADDRESS = @EMAIL_ADDRESS So my question is, what is the function suppose to look like? how do I send the session information to the procedure? and finally, how do I return the stored procedure results and push back into the main function so it can be carried into sub function 2? Thank you in advance for your help... I really appreciate it!

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  • Indexing and Searching Over Word Level Annotation Layers in Lucene

    - by dmcer
    I have a data set with multiple layers of annotation over the underlying text, such as part-of-tags, chunks from a shallow parser, name entities, and others from various natural language processing (NLP) tools. For a sentence like The man went to the store, the annotations might look like: Word POS Chunk NER ==== === ===== ======== The DT NP Person man NN NP Person went VBD VP - to TO PP - the DT NP Location store NN NP Location I'd like to index a bunch of documents with annotations like these using Lucene and then perform searches across the different layers. An example of a simple query would be to retrieve all documents where Washington is tagged as a person. While I'm not absolutely committed to the notation, syntactically end-users might enter the query as follows: Query: Word=Washington,NER=Person I'd also like to do more complex queries involving the sequential order of annotations across different layers, e.g. find all the documents where there's a word tagged person followed by the words arrived at followed by a word tagged location. Such a query might look like: Query: "NER=Person Word=arrived Word=at NER=Location" What's a good way to go about approaching this with Lucene? Is there anyway to index and search over document fields that contain structured tokens?

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  • SQL trigger to delete rows from database

    - by wpearse
    I have an industrial system that logs alarms to a remotely hosted MySQL database. The industrial system inserts a new row whenever a property of the alarm changes (such as the time the alarm was activated, acknowledged or switched off) into a table named 'alarms'. I don't want multiple records for each alarm, so I have set up two database triggers. The first trigger mirrors each new record to a second table, creating/updating rows as required: CREATE TRIGGER `mirror_alarms` BEFORE INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW INSERT INTO `alarm_display` (Tag,...,OffTime) VALUES (new.Tag,...,new.OffTime) ON DUPLICATE KEY UPDATE OnDate=new.OnDate,...,OffTime=new.OffTime The second trigger should execute after the first and (ideally) delete all rows from the alarms table. (I used the Tag property of the alarm because the Tag property never changes, although I suspect I could just use a 'DELETE FROM alarms WHERE 1' statement to the same effect). CREATE TRIGGER `remove_alarms` AFTER INSERT ON `alarms` FOR EACH ROW DELETE FROM alarms WHERE Tag=new.Tag My problem is that the second trigger doesn't appear to run, or if it does, the second trigger doesn't delete any rows from the database. So here's the question: why does my second trigger not do what I expect it to do?

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  • Why should I care about RVM's Gemset feature when I use Bundler?

    - by t6d
    I just don't get it. I thought, Bundler was developed to resolve version conflicts between gems. So that I just have to require "bundler/setup" and everything is fine, knowing that Bundler will load the correct versions of all my gems and their dependencies. Now, RVM is great for managing multiple Rubies, I know, but why should I care about the Gemset feature? Do I miss something here? Can it make my development even easier? Maybe, some of you can give me some hints on the perfect RVM + Bundler workflow for both, development and production. I also don't know when RVM starts switching to another Ruby. I know that I can have an .rvmrc file in my project, but do I have to cd to this directory so that the switch happens? Furthermore, I usually use Passenger for development since, thanks to the Passenger.prefpane, integration in Mac OS is great. Can I still do that with RVM or is there a better way to do it? Does Passenger recognize .rvmrc files and switch to the correct Gemset?

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  • Spring Integration 1.0 RC2: Streaming file content?

    - by gdm
    I've been trying to find information on this, but due to the immaturity of the Spring Integration framework I haven't had much luck. Here is my desired work flow: New files are placed in an 'Incoming' directory Files are picked up using a file:inbound-channel-adapter The file content is streamed, N lines at a time, to a 'Stage 1' channel, which parses the line into an intermediary (shared) representation. This parsed line is routed to multiple 'Stage 2' channels. Each 'Stage 2' channel does its own processing on the N available lines to convert them to a final representation. This channel must have a queue which ensures no Stage 2 channel is overwhelmed in the event that one channel processes significantly slower than the others. The final representation of the N lines is written to a file. There will be as many output files as there were routing destinations in step 4. *'N' above stands for any reasonable number of lines to read at a time, from [1, whatever I can fit into memory reasonably], but is guaranteed to always be less than the number of lines in the full file. How can I accomplish streaming (steps 3, 4, 5) in Spring Integration? It's fairly easy to do without streaming the files, but my files are large enough that I cannot read the entire file into memory. As a side note, I have a working implementation of this work flow without Spring Integration, but since we're using Spring Integration in other places in our project, I'd like to try it here to see how it performs and how the resulting code compares for length and clarity.

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  • Unable to get data from a WCF client

    - by Scott
    I am developing a DLL that will provide sychronized time stamps to multiple applications running on the same machine. The timestamps are altered in a thread that uses a high performance timer and a scalar to provide the appearance of moving faster than real-time. For obvious reasons I want only 1 instance of this time library, and I thought I could use WCF for the other processes to connect to this and poll for timestamps whenever they want. When I connect however I never get a valid time stamp, just an empty DateTime. I should point out that the library does work. The original implementation was a single DLL that each application incorporated and each one was synced using windows messages. I'm fairly sure it has something to do with how I'm setting up the WCF stuff, to which I am still pretty new. Here are the contract definitions: public interface ITimerCallbacks { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void TimerElapsed(String id); } [ServiceContract(SessionMode = SessionMode.Required, CallbackContract = typeof(ITimerCallbacks))] public interface ISimTime { [OperationContract] DateTime GetTime(); } Here is my class definition: [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single)] public class SimTimeServer: ISimTime The host setup: // set up WCF interprocess comms host = new ServiceHost(typeof(SimTimeServer), new Uri[] { new Uri("net.pipe://localhost") }); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ISimTime), new NetNamedPipeBinding(), "SimTime"); host.Open(); and the implementation of the interface function server-side: public DateTime GetTime() { if (ThreadMutex.WaitOne(20)) { RetTime = CurrentTime; ThreadMutex.ReleaseMutex(); } return RetTime; } Lastly the client-side implementation: Callbacks myCallbacks = new Callbacks(); DuplexChannelFactory pipeFactory = new DuplexChannelFactory(myCallbacks, new NetNamedPipeBinding(), new EndpointAddress("net.pipe://localhost/SimTime")); ISimTime pipeProxy = pipeFactory.CreateChannel(); while (true) { string str = Console.ReadLine(); if (str.ToLower().Contains("get")) Console.WriteLine(pipeProxy.GetTime().ToString()); else if (str.ToLower().Contains("exit")) break; }

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  • How is external memory, internal memory, and cache organized?

    - by goldenmean
    Consider a system as follows:= A hardware board having say ARM Cortex-A8 and Neon Vector coprocessor, and Embedded Linux OS running on Cortex-A8. On this environment, if there is some application - say, a video decoder is executing - then: How is it decided that which buffers would be in external memory, which ones would be allocated in internal SRAM, etc. When one says calloc/malloc on such system/code, the pointer returned is from which memory: internal or external? Can a user make buffers to be allocated to the memories of his choice (internal/external)? In ARM architectures, there is another memory called as Tightly coupled memory (TCM). What is that and how can user enable and use it? Can I declare buffers in this memory? Do I need to see the memory map (if any) of the hardware board to understand about all these different physical memories present in a typical hardware board? How much of a role does the OS play in distinguishing these different memories? Sorry for multiple questions, but i think they all are interlinked.

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  • Web pages that a long time to load keep on reloading, just on vista on my work n/w...

    - by Ralpharama
    I have a curious problem at work which I've been struggling with since the advent of Windows Vista. We send our own email newsletter out to 40,000+ people once a week. The sending code has been in place for years, it's in classic ASP/VBscript called through a browser and simply loops through each email address, sending it to them. The page takes 40 mins or more to run, so has a big timeout value to allow it to do so. All well and good, suddenly, after Windows Vista is installed on the work PCs, the email sending page behaved oddly - after a period of time it seems to reload the page, endlessly, so the first 20% of our users get multiple copies of the newsletter until we kill the process! If we run the code on an XP machine in the on the same office network, it works fine. If we run it on Vista outside the office, so, say, on my own ISP, then it also works fine! Note, same effect in IE and FF... So, something about my office network and Vista is causing this... I recently re-wrote the newsletter code so it would split the task into chunks of 100 users at a time, hoping this would fix it, but my most recent test shows that the office n/w vista machine once again reloads the same page over any over, even though it takes 1/10th of the time to run... Does anyone have any ideas what it might be, how I can prove it, or, better, how I can get round it? Thanks for your advice :)

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  • Re-order list in Python to ensure it starts with check values.

    - by S_Swede
    Dear all, I'm reading in serial data using Pyserial, to populate a list of 17 values (1byte each) at a sampling rate of 256Hz. The bytes I ultimately want to use are the 5th to 8th in the list. Providing no bytes are dropped, the first two values of the stream are always the same ('165','90'). I'm getting quite a few dropped values though, and my list values are shifting, so when I read the 5th-8th bytes, they aren't the correct values. I've partially combatted this by ensuring that before the wanted segement is captured, the first few values are checked against what they should be (i.e. if mylist[0]==165 &....). This is crude but ok since the chances of these two values appearing adjacent to each other in the list elsewhere is small. The problem is that this means as soon as the bytes shift, I'm losing a load of values, until it eventually realigns. My question is: what code can I use to either: a) Force the list to realign once it has been detected that it no longer starts with 165,90. (elif....). b) Detect where '165' & '90' are (next to each other) in the list and extract the values I want in relation to their position (next but one, onwards). Thanks in advance S_S Just noticed from the related Qs that I could use mylist.append(mylist.pop(0)) multiple times until they are in the right place. Is there a better way that anyone can suggest?

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  • API-based solutions for sending payments to people without bank accounts

    - by Tauren
    I'm looking for inexpensive ways to send payments to hundreds or thousands of individual contractors, even if they do not have a bank account. Currently I only need to support payment in the USA, but may eventually be international. Here's the scenario: I offer a service that allows an organization or manager-type person to coordinate contractors for very short term jobs. These jobs are typically only an hour or two in length. A contractor may get only one job over an entire month, several jobs spread out over a month, multiple jobs on a single day, or any other combination. Thus, a single contractor could earn as little as one job's payment up to potentially payment for dozens. Payment for a month could be as little as $10 up to $1000's. Right now, the system provides payroll reports to the manager and it is the manager's responsibility to produce checks, stuff envelopes, and send mail via the US postal service. I'd like to remove this burden from the manager and have all the payments taken care of for them automatically by the system. I'm not sure where to start or what the best options would be. I'm starting to look into the following solutions, but don't know specifics yet and would like some advice before pursuing them. I'd also like to hear about other ideas or suggestions. PayPal (Send Money, Adaptive Payments, x.com, other???) Amazon (Flexible Payments System?) Fund some sort of pre-paid debit card? Web service with API that mails checks for you? Direct deposit via a bank API (for users with bank accounts)? The problem is that many of these contractors may not be able to obtain bank accounts or credit cards within the USA. I don't mind doing a hybrid of solutions, but are there any that would work well with this issue? I want the solution to be easy to use for the contractors, meaning that they can get the money easily (via check in the mail, debit card ATM withdrawal, etc.)

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  • MySQL SELECT combining 3 SELECTs INTO 1

    - by Martin Tóth
    Consider following tables in MySQL database: entries: creator_id INT entry TEXT is_expired BOOL other: creator_id INT entry TEXT userdata: creator_id INT name VARCHAR etc... In entries and other, there can be multiple entries by 1 creator. userdata table is read only for me (placed in other database). I'd like to achieve a following SELECT result: +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | creator_id | entries | expired | other | +------------+---------+---------+-------+ | 10951 | 59 | 55 | 39 | | 70887 | 41 | 34 | 108 | | 88309 | 38 | 20 | 102 | | 94732 | 0 | 0 | 86 | ... where entries is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries GROUP BY creator_id, expired is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 0 GROUP BY creator_id and other is equal to SELECT COUNT(entry) FROM other GROUP BY creator_id. I need this structure because after doing this SELECT, I need to look for user data in the "userdata" table, which I planned to do with INNER JOIN and select desired columns. I solved this problem with selecting "NULL" into column which does not apply for given SELECT: SELECT creator_id, COUNT(any_entry) as entries, COUNT(expired_entry) as expired, COUNT(other_entry) as other FROM ( SELECT creator_id, entry AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, entry AS expired_entry, NULL AS other_enry FROM entries WHERE is_expired = 1 UNION SELECT creator_id, NULL AS any_entry, NULL AS expired_entry, entry AS other_enry FROM other ) AS tTemp GROUP BY creator_id ORDER BY entries DESC, expired DESC, other DESC ; I've left out the INNER JOIN and selecting other columns from userdata table on purpose (my question being about combining 3 SELECTs into 1). Is my idea valid? = Am I trying to use the right "construction" for this? Are these kind of SELECTs possible without creating an "empty" column? (some kind of JOIN) Should I do it "outside the DB": make 3 SELECTs, make some order in it (let's say python lists/dicts) and then do the additional SELECTs for userdata? Solution for a similar question does not return rows where entries and expired are 0. Thank you for your time.

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  • Have you considered doing revenue sharing to fund development of a mobile app? How would you do it?

    - by Brennan
    I am looking to build multiple mobile apps which leverage existing content and resources by enabling these mobile apps with web services. I will duplication much of the same features which are also in place and add more features that are possible on a mobile device like address book, maps and calendar integration to make the service much more useful. To fund these projects I see that I have 2 options. First I could simply quote them for the project based on my hourly rate and the estimate in hours that I will take the to complete the job. That may be a high number. The second option would be to do shared revenue with ads placed in the app. I could then take a percentage of any revenue that is generated from the app. There is also a hybrid where I might charge for a percentage of the estimated quote and then take a percentage of the revenue sharing. So my question is how much should I propose for the revenue sharing? Should it be 30%? Or maybe I should make it 70% up to a point that a certain dollar amount is reached? And should the revenue sharing agreement be for 12 months, 24 months or more? Should I include in the proposal an agreement that they will help promote this app with their content and resources? Ultimately this system will benefit both sides because it extends their reach into the mobile space instead of where they are currently with just print and web. I have tried to find some examples with a few Google searches but I keep hitting content about the Google and Apple revenue sharing models. I would like to get some solid examples that are working to compare against so that my proposal do build these apps is not completely off base.

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  • Jquery Returning values to original

    - by Cam
    So my script works perfectly, but here is the issue, I have buttons (Sprite action here) that are 40px height, but the top 20 only shows perfectly. When you click the button ie img the bottom 20px show perfecto! but... Issue, i included in my script a way to return all others to there default (only one should be selected) now, how can I fix this issue that I seem unable to correct as I can select multiple of them ** USERS can switch ** The last part of the script that is the issue. Thanks $(document).ready(function() { $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').show(); $('.form_sub').hide(); $('.theader').addClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').removeClass('active'); }); $('.sub_theader_t').click(function() { $('.form_header').hide(); $('.form_sub').show(); $('.theader').removeClass('active'); $('.sub_theader').addClass('active'); }); $('.top_head_img').click(function() { $(this).css({ position: 'relative', bottom: '20px' }).siblings().css( 'bottom', '0' ); }); }); <ul class="top_head"> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('top');"><img src="custom/images/top2.jpg" alt="Left" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('center');"><img src="custom/images/mid2.jpg" alt="Center" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> <li> <a href="javascript:void(0)" onClick="selectPic5('bottom');"><img src="custom/images/bot2.jpg" alt="Right" border="0" class="top_head_img"/></a> </li> </ul>

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  • Compare values in serialized column in Doctrine with Query Builder

    - by ReynierPM
    I'm building a FormType for a Symfony2 project but I need some Query Builder on the field since I need to compare some values with the one stored on DB and show the results. This is what I have: .... ->add('servicio', 'entity', array( 'mapped' => false, 'class' => 'ComunBundle:TipoServicio', 'property' => 'nombre', 'required' => true, 'label' => false, 'expanded' => true, 'multiple' => true, 'query_builder' => function (EntityRepository $er) { return $er->createQueryBuilder('ts') ->where('ts.tipo_usuario = (:tipo)') ->setParameter('tipo', 1); } )) .... But tipo_usuario at DB table is stored as serialized text for example: record1: value1 | a:1:{i:0;s:1:"1";} record2: value2 | a:4:{i:0;s:1:"1";i:1;s:1:"2";i:2;s:1:"3";i:3;s:1:"4";} I'll have two different forms (I don't know how to pass the Request to a form) in the first one I'll only show the first record and for the second one the first and second record for example: First form will show: checkbox: value1 Second form will show: checkbox: value1 checkbox: value2 I achieve this? Any help?

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  • PHP OOP singleton doesn't return object

    - by Misiur
    Weird trouble. I've used singleton multiple times but this particular case just doesn't want to work. Dump says that instance is null. define('ROOT', "/"); define('INC', 'includes/'); define('CLS', 'classes/'); require_once(CLS.'Core/Core.class.php'); $core = Core::getInstance(); var_dump($core->instance); $core->settings(INC.'config.php'); $core->go(); Core class class Core { static $instance; public $db; public $created = false; private function __construct() { $this->created = true; } static function getInstance() { if(!self::$instance) { self::$instance = new Core(); } else { return self::$instance; } } public function settings($path = null) { ... } public function go() { ... } } Error code Fatal error: Call to a member function settings() on a non-object in path It's possibly some stupid typo, but I don't have any errors in my editor. Thanks for the fast responses as always.

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  • Maven3 Issues with building a multi-module enterprise project

    - by Sujit K
    I just migrated from Maven2 to Maven3 and I'm able to build each module individually or all the modules in one shot by calling mvn clean install. However, in Maven2, since we have multi-module enterprise project, we build multiple ear's and each ear is built as its own module with its own child pom. To build an individual ear with its dependents, the below command works fine in Maven2 but not in Maven3. Let me explain the issue in Maven3 a bit later. mvn -pl ear_module -rf first_dependent_module -am clean install In Maven2 when the reactor lists the build order, I see first_dependent_module second_dependent_module ear_module End of the day I have my ear module also part of the reactor which is how it should be. The reason we call -rf is we don't want to delete the target folder at the main ${project.basedir} (so not to delete the output created in target from building the other ear modules). With Maven3, however, this is all I see when the reactor lists the build order: first_dependent_module second_dependent_module Maven3 totally ignores the argument (ear_module) set to -pl flag to be also built after its dependents have been. Not sure what I'm missing here. Any help/tips would be greatly appreciated. P.S: The build I'm making is similar to the one below.... Build specific module in multi-module project Thanks, SK

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  • PHP: how to access variables inside a function that have been declared outside of it?

    - by Chris
    Please, I am very new and have not been confronted with OOP and all this related stuff, which I guess may be related to this issue (public, private, ...). So, any help and suggestions are very appreciated! :) At the very beginning of each page I include a file that starts the SESSION etc, lets call it session.php. In this file session.php, I include a file that contains a function, let's call it function1.php, because I need the function to be available in session.php. However, later in the main page I also include function2.php which needs to access variables set in session.php, so I additionally tried to include session.php in function2.php. The problem is that an error occurs as function1 will be declared multiple times... Fatal error: Cannot redeclare function1() (previously declared in ... So, what would be a more elegant and clean(er) solution for this? How could you solve it? Basically, I'd need to access variables inside a function that have been included in the main page before... Thank you very much in advance!

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  • Displaying same record twice- SQL Reporting Services

    - by RyanW
    Ok, here's the situation: I need to display the same record in two different sections. stupid i know, but here's why. The Report I am building is grouped by one Field, called Day. Each record has date/times, an expected arrival date time, and an expected departure date/time. so, at this point we have something like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5.............18/5 9.00am.........19/5 11.00am The boss only wants to show times that relate to the current day in the arrive/depart coloumns (easy enough with expressions), which ends up like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5..............9.00am.........................- the next thing he wants is to display the departing time in the correct day 'group', but as you can imagine as soon as you move to the next row, well you move to the next row of the table. So the question is: is there anyway to display the same record on multiple coloumns? Have i missed something or have i got an unsolvable problem? NOTE: this is not the only data in my table either. there is (for example) a name coloumn which also needs to be displayed on both days.

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  • SQLAlchemy sessions - DetachedInstanceError?

    - by benjaminhkaiser
    I have a function that attempts to take a list of usernames, look each one up in a user table, and then add them to a membership table. If even one username is invalid, I want the entire list to be rolled back, including any users that have already been processed. I thought that using sessions was the best way to do this but I'm running into a DetachedInstanceError: DetachedInstanceError: Instance <Organization at 0x7fc35cb5df90> is not bound to a Session; attribute refresh operation cannot proceed Full stack trace is here. The error seems to trigger when I attempt to access the user (model) object that is returned by the query. From my reading I understand that it has something to do with there being multiple sessions, but none of the suggestions I saw on other threads worked for me. Code is below: def add_members_in_bulk(organization_eid, users): """Add users to an organization in bulk - helper function for add_member()""" """Returns "success" on success and id of first failed student on failure""" session = query_session.get_session() session.begin_nested() users = users.split('\n') for u in users: try: user = user_lookup.by_student_id(u) except ObjectNotFoundError: session.rollback() return u if user: membership.add_user_to_organization( user.entity_id, organization_eid, '', [] ) session.flush() session.commit() return 'success' here's the membership.add_user_to_organization: def add_user_to_organization(user_eid, organization_eid, title, tag_ids): """Add a User to an Organization with the given title""" user = user_lookup.by_eid(user_eid) organization = organization_lookup.by_eid(organization_eid) new_membership = OrganizationMembership( organization_eid=organization.entity_id, user_eid=user.entity_id, title=title) new_membership.tags = [get_tag_by_id(tag_id) for tag_id in tag_ids] crud.add(new_membership) and here is the lookup by ID query: def by_student_id(student_id, include_disabled=False): """Get User by RIN""" try: return get_query_set(include_disabled).filter(User.student_id == student_id).one() except NoResultFound: raise ObjectNotFoundError("User with RIN %s does not exist." % student_id)

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  • Connecting to an RMI object without registry

    - by Mark Probst
    I think I need to connect to a remote RMI object without going through the registry, but I don't know how. My situation is this: I'm implementing a simple job distribution service which consists of one distributor and multiple workers. The distributor has a registered RMI object to which clients connect to send jobs, and workers connect to accept jobs. Unfortunately the distributor and worker hosts are behind a firewall. To get to the distributor host I am tunneling two ports (one for the registry, one for the distributor object) via SSH, so I can get to the registry and the distributor from outside the firewall. To make that work I have to set "-Djava.rmi.server.hostname=localhost" on the distributor JVM so that the clients connect to their local, tunneled port, instead of the port on the actual distributor host, which is blocked. This creates a problem for the workers, though, because they need to connect to the distributor directly, but because of the "localhost" redirection they behave like clients and try to connect to a port on their own host, which is not available, because I'm not tunneling on the workers (it is impractical). Now, if I could connect to a remote object directly by giving the hostname and port, I could do away both with the registry on the distributor and the "localhost" hack, and make the workers connect properly. How do I do that? Or is there a different solution to this problem?

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  • Link error for user defined class type template parameter

    - by isurulucky
    Hi, I implemented a Simple STL map in C++. Factored out the comparison as a type as I was instructed to, then implemented the comparison as shown below: template <typename T> int KeyCompare<T>::operator () (T tKey1, T tKey2) { if(tKey1 < tKey2) return -1; else if(tKey1 > tKey2) return 1; else return 0; } here, tKey1 and tKet2 are the two keys I'm comparing. This worked well for all the basic data types and string. I added a template specialization to compare keys of a user defined type named Test and added a specialization as follows: int KeyCompare<Test>::operator () (Test tKey1, Test tKey2) { if(tKey1.a < tKey2.a) return -1; else if(tKey1.a > tKey2.a) return 1; else return 0; } when I run this, I get a linking error saying SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: int __thiscall KeyCompare::operator()(class Test,class Test)" (??R?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAEHVTest@@0@Z) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::~KeyCompare(void)" (??1?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::KeyCompare(void)" (??0?$KeyCompare@VTester@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj MapTest.cpp is the test harness class in which I wrote the test case. I have used include guards as well, to stop multiple inclusions. Any idea what the matter is?? Thank you very much!!

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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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  • Design Philosophy Question - When to create new functions

    - by Eclyps19
    This is a general design question not relating to any language. I'm a bit torn between going for minimum code or optimum organization. I'll use my current project as an example. I have a bunch of tabs on a form that perform different functions. Lets say Tab 1 reads in a file with a specific layout, tab 2 exports a file to a specific location, etc. The problem I'm running into now is that I need these tabs to do something slightly different based on the contents of a variable. If it contains a 1 I may need to use Layout A and perform some extra concatenation, if it contains a 2 I may need to use Layout B and do no concatenation but add two integer fields, etc. There could be 10+ codes that I will be looking at. Is it more preferable to create an individual path for each code early on, or attempt to create a single path that branches out only when absolutely required. Creating an individual path for each code would allow my code to be extremely easy to follow at a glance, which in turn will help me out later on down the road when debugging or making changes. The downside to this is that I will increase the amount of code written by calling some of the same functions in multiple places (for example, steps 3, 5, and 9 for every single code may be exactly the same. Creating a single path that would branch out only when required will be a bit messier and more difficult to follow at a glance, but I would create less code by placing conditionals only at steps that are unique. I realize that this may be a case-by-case decision, but in general, if you were handed a previously built program to work on, which would you prefer?

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