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  • PHP/Javascript limiting amount of checkboxes

    - by Carl294
    Hi everyone Im trying to limit the amount of checkboxes that can be checked, in this case only 3 can be checked. When using plain HTML this works fine. The code can be seen below. HTML example <td ><input type=checkbox name=ckb value=2 onclick='chkcontrol()';></td><td>Perl</td> Javascript Function <script type="text/javascript"> function chkcontrol(j) { var total=0; for(var i=0; i < document.form1.ckb.length; i++){ if(document.form1.ckb[i].checked){ total =total +1;} if(total > 3){ alert("Please Select only three") document.form1.ckb[j].checked = false; return false; } } } </script> The problem appears when replacing the fixed HTML values with values from a MYSQL database. All the information appears correctly, and can be posted to another page via a submit button. However, it seems like the 'value' assigned to each record from the database is not making its way too the javascript function. <td><input name="checkbox[]" type="checkbox" value="<?php echo $rows['TCA_QID'];?>" onclick="chkcontrol();"></td> I have tried changed the name in the javascript function to match the 'checkbox' name.Any advice would be greatly appreciated Thanks

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  • SQL Server INSERT, Scope_Identity() and physical writing to disc

    - by TheBlueSky
    Hello everyone, I have a stored procedure that does, among other stuff, some inserts in different table inside a loop. See the example below for clearer understanding: INSERT INTO T1 VALUES ('something') SET @MyID = Scope_Identity() ... some stuff go here INSERT INTO T2 VALUES (@MyID, 'something else') ... The rest of the procedure These two tables (T1 and T2) have an IDENTITY(1, 1) column in each one of them, let's call them ID1 and ID2; however, after running the procedure in our production database (very busy database) and having more than 6250 records in each table, I have noticed one incident where ID1 does not match ID2! Although normally for each record inserted in T1, there is record inserted in T2 and the identity column in both is incremented consistently. The "wrong" records were something like that: ID1 Col1 ---- --------- 4709 data-4709 4710 data-4710 ID2 ID1 Col1 ---- ---- --------- 4709 4710 data-4709 4710 4709 data-4710 Note the "inverted", ID1 in the second table. Knowing not that much about SQL Server underneath operations, I have put the following "theory", maybe someone can correct me on this. What I think is that because the loop is faster than physically writing to the table, and/or maybe some other thing delayed the writing process, the records were buffered. When it comes the time to write them, they were wrote in no particular order. Is that even possible if no, how to explain the above mentioned scenario? If yes, then I have another question to rise. What if the first insert (from the code above) got delayed? Doesn't that mean I won't get the correct IDENTITY to insert into the second table? If the answer of this is also yes, what can I do to insure the insertion in the two tables will happen in sequence with the correct IDENTITY? I appreciate any comment and information that help me understand this. Thanks in advance.

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  • What's the best way to transfer a large dataset over a .NET web service?

    - by Malvineous
    I've inherited a C# .NET application which talks to a web service, and the web service talks to an Oracle database. I need to add an export function to the UI, to produce an Excel spreadsheet of some of the data. I have created a web service function to run a database query, load the data into a DataTable and then return it, which works fine for a small number of rows. However there is enough data in the full run that the client application locks up for a few minutes and then returns a timeout error. Obviously this isn't the best way to retrieve such a large dataset. Before I go ahead and come up with some dodgy way of splitting the call, I'm wondering if there is already something in place that can handle this. At the moment I'm thinking of a startExport function then repeatedly calling a next50Rows function until there is no data left, but because web services are stateless this means I'm going to have to keep some sort of ID number around and deal with the associated permissions. It would mean that I don't have to load the entire data set into the web server's memory though, which is one good thing. So if anyone knows a better way to retrieve a large amount of data (in a table format) over a .NET web service, please let me know!

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  • ZF2 - How to use the Hydrator/exchangeArray() to populate a nested object

    - by Dominic Watson
    I've got an object with values that are stored in my database. My object also contains another object which is stored in the database using just the ID of it (foreign key). http://framework.zend.com/manual/2.0/en/modules/zend.stdlib.hydrator.html Before the Hydrator/exchangeArray functionality in ZF2 you would use a Mapper to grab everything you need to create the object. Now I'm trying to eliminate this extra layer by just using Hydration/exchangeArray to populate my objects but am a bit stuck on creating the nested object. Should my entity have the Inner object's table injected into it so I can create it if the ID of it is passed to my 'exchangeArray' ? Here are example entities as an example. // Village id, name, position, square_id // Map Square id, name, type Upon sending square_id to my Village's exchangeArray() function. It would get the mapTable and use hydrator to pull in the square using the ID I have. It doesn't seem right to be to have mapper instances inside my entity as I thought they should be disconnected from anything but it's own entity specific parameters and functionality?

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  • Basic security, PHP mySQl

    - by yuudachi
    So I am making a basic log-in page. I have a good idea of what to do, but I'm still unsure of some things. I have a database full of students and a password column of course. I know I'm going to use md5 encryption in that column. The student enters their e-mail and student ID, and they get e-mailed a password if correct. But, where do I create the password? Do I have to manually add the password (which is just a randomly generated string) in mySQL to all the students? And I am suppose to send the password to the student; how will I know what to send the student if the password is encrypted? I was thinking about generating the password when the student first enters their e-mail and student ID. They get an e-mail of the random string, and at the same time, I add the same random string to the database, encrypted. Is that how it's suppose to work though? And it feels unsafe doing that all on the same page. Sorry for the long-winded, newbish question. I find this all facisnating at the same time as well (AES and RSA encryption :O)

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  • Are there good reasons not to use an ORM?

    - by hangy
    During my apprenticeship, I have used NHibernate for some smaller projects which I mostly coded and designed on my own. Now, before starting some bigger project, the discussion arose how to design data access and whether or not to use an ORM layer. As I am still in my apprenticeship and still consider myself a beginner in enterprise programming, I did not really try to push in my opinion, which is that using an object relational mapper to the database can ease development quite a lot. The other coders in the development team are much more experienced than me, so I think I will just do what they say. :-) However, I do not completely understand two of the main reasons for not using NHibernate or a similar project: One can just build one’s own data access objects with SQL queries and copy those queries out of Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio. Debugging an ORM can be hard. So, of course I could just build my data access layer with a lot of SELECTs etc, but here I miss the advantage of automatic joins, lazy-loading proxy classes and a lower maintenance effort if a table gets a new column or a column gets renamed. (Updating numerous SELECT, INSERT and UPDATE queries vs. updating the mapping config and possibly refactoring the business classes and DTOs.) Also, using NHibernate you can run into unforeseen problems if you do not know the framework very well. That could be, for example, trusting the Table.hbm.xml where you set a string’s length to be automatically validated. However, I can also imagine similar bugs in a “simple” SqlConnection query based data access layer. Finally, are those arguments mentioned above really a good reason not to utilise an ORM for a non-trivial database based enterprise application? Are there probably other arguments they/I might have missed? (I should probably add that I think this is like the first “big” .NET/C# based application which will require teamwork. Good practices, which are seen as pretty normal on Stack Overflow, such as unit testing or continuous integration, are non-existing here up to now.)

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  • NHibernate correct way to reattach cached entity to different session

    - by Chris Marisic
    I'm using NHibernate to query a list of objects from my database. After I get the list of objects over them I iterate over the list of objects and apply a distance approximation algorithm to find the nearest object. I consider this function of getting the list of objects and apply the algorithm over them to be a heavy operation so I cache the object which I find from the algorithm in HttpRuntime.Cache. After this point whenever I'm given the supplied input again I can just directly pull the object from Cache instead of having to hit the database and traverse the list. My object is a complex object that has collections attached to it, inside the query where I return the full list of objects I don't bring back any of the sub collections eagerly so when I read my cached object I need lazy loading to work correctly to be able to display the object fully. Originally I tried using this to re-associate my cached object back to a new session _session.Lock(obj, LockMode.None); However when accessing the page concurrently from another instance I get the error Illegal attempt to associate a collection with two open sessions I then tried something different with _session.Merge(obj); However watching the output of this in NHProf shows that it is deleting and re-associating my object's contained collections with my object, which is not what I want although it seems to work fine. What is the correct way to do this? Neither of these seem to be right.

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  • How can I shared controller logic in ASP.NET MVC for 2 controllers, where they are overriden

    - by AbeP
    Hello, I am trying to implement user-friendly URLS, while keeping the existing routes, and was able to do so using the ActionName tag on top of my controller (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/436866/can-you-overload-controller-methods-in-asp-net-mvc) I have 2 controllers: ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { ... } public ActionResult Index(long id) { ... } Basically, what I am trying to do is I store the user-friendly URL in the database for each project. If the user enters the URL /Project/TopSecretProject/, the action UserFriendlyProjectIndex gets called. I do a database lookup and if everything checks out, I want to apply the exact same logic that is used in the Index action. I am basically trying to avoid writing duplicate code. I know I can separate the common logic into another method, but I wanted to see if there is a built-in way of doing this in ASP.NET MVC. Any suggestions? I tried the following and I go the View could not be found error message: [ActionName("UserFriendlyProjectIndex")] public ActionResult Index(string projectName) { var filteredProjectName = projectName.EscapeString().Trim(); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(filteredProjectName)) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); using (var db = new PIMPEntities()) { var project = db.Project.Where(p => p.UserFriendlyUrl == filteredProjectName).FirstOrDefault(); if (project == null) return RedirectToAction("PageNotFound", "Error"); return View(Index(project.ProjectId)); } } Here's the error message: The view 'UserFriendlyProjectIndex' or its master could not be found. The following locations were searched: ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Project/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.aspx ~/Views/Shared/UserFriendlyProjectIndex.ascx Project\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark Shared\UserFriendlyProjectIndex.spark I am using the SparkViewEngine as the view engine and LINQ-to-Entities, if that helps. thank you!

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  • Trouble with building up a string in Clojure

    - by Aki Iskandar
    Hi gang - [this may seem like my problem is with Compojure, but it isn't - it's with Clojure] I've been pulling my hair out on this seemingly simple issue - but am getting nowhere. I am playing with Compojure (a light web framework for Clojure) and I would just like to generate a web page showing showing my list of todos that are in a PostgreSQL database. The code snippets are below (left out the database connection, query, etc - but that part isn't needed because specific issue is that the resulting HTML shows nothing between the <body> and </body> tags). As a test, I tried hard-coding the string in the call to main-layout, like this: (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" "Haircut<br>Study Clojure<br>Answer a question on Stackoverfolw")) - and it works fine. So the real issue is that I do not believe I know how to build up a string in Clojure. Not the idiomatic way, and not by calling out to Java's StringBuilder either - as I have attempted to do in the code below. A virtual beer, and a big upvote to whoever can solve it! Many thanks! ============================================================= ;The master template (a very simple POC for now, but can expand on it later) (defn main-layout "This is one of the html layouts for the pages assets - just like a master page" [title body] (html [:html [:head [:title title] (include-js "todos.js") (include-css "todos.css")] [:body body]])) (defn show-all-todos "This function will generate the todos HTML table and call the layout function" [] (let [rs (select-all-todos) sbHTML (new StringBuilder)] (for [rec rs] (.append sbHTML (str rec "<br><br>"))) (html (main-layout "Aki's Todos" (.toString sbHTML))))) ============================================================= Again, the result is a web page but with nothing between the body tags. If I replace the code in the for loop with println statements, and direct the code to the repl - forgetting about the web page stuff (ie. the call to main-layout), the resultset gets printed - BUT - the issue is with building up the string. Thanks again. ~Aki

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  • Extract data from PostgreSQL DB without using pg_dump

    - by John Horton
    There is a PostgreSQL database on which I only have limited access (e.g, I can't use pg_dump). I am trying to create a local "mirror" by exporting certain tables from the database. I do not have the permissions needed to just dump a table as SQL from within psql. Right now, I just have a Python script that iterates through my table_names, selects all fields and then exports them as a CSV: for table_name, file_name in zip(table_names, file_names): cmd = """echo "\\\copy (select * from %s)" to stdout WITH CSV HEADER | psql -d remote_db | gzip > ./%s/%s.gz"""%(table_name,dir_name,file_name) os.system(cmd) I would like to not use CSV if possible, as I lose the field types and the encoding can get messed up. First best would probably be some way of getting the generating SQL code for the table using \copy. Next best would be XML, ideally with some way of preserving the field types. If that doesn't work, I think the final option might be two queries---one to get the field data types, the other to get the actual data. Any thoughts or advice would be greatly appreciated - thanks!

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  • AJAX Post Not Sending Data?

    - by Jascha
    I can't for the life of me figure out why this is happening. This is kind of a repost, so forgive me, but I have new data. I am running a javascript log out function called logOut() that has make a jQuery ajax call to a php script... function logOut(){ var data = new Object; data.log_out = true; $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'http://www.mydomain.com/functions.php', data: data, success: function() { alert('done'); } }); } the php function it calls is here: if(isset($_POST['log_out'])){ $query = "INSERT INTO `token_manager` (`ip_address`) VALUES('logOutSuccess')"; $connection->runQuery($query); // <-- my own database class... // omitted code that clears session etc... die(); } Now, 18 hours out of the day this works, but for some reason, every once in a while, the POST data will not trigger my query. (this will last about an hour or so). I figured out the post data is not being set by adding this at the end of my script... $query = "INSERT INTO `token_manager` (`ip_address`) VALUES('POST FAIL')"; $connection->runQuery($query); So, now I know for certain my log out function is being skipped because in my database is the following data: if it were NOT being skipped, my data would show up like this: I know it is being skipped for two reasons, one the die() at the end of my first function, and two, if it were a success a "logOutSuccess" would be registered in the table. Any thoughts? One friend says it's a janky hosting company (hostgator.com). I personally like them because they are cheap and I'm a fan of cpanel. But, if that's the case??? Thanks in advance. -J

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  • Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

    - by Derick
    Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

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  • DBTransactions between stateless calls using GUIDs

    - by Marty Trenouth
    I'm looking to add transactional support to my DB engine and providing to Abstract Transaction Handling down to passing in Guids with the DB Action Command. The DB engine would run similar to: private static Database DB; public static Dictionary<Guid,DBTransaction> Transactions = new ...() public static void DoDBAction(string cmdstring,List<Parameter> parameters,Guid TransactionGuid) { DBCommand cmd = BuildCommand(cmdstring,parameters); if(Transactions.ContainsKey(TransactionGuid)) cmd.Transaction = Transactions[TransactionGuid]; DB.ExecuteScalar(cmd); } public static BuildCommand(string cmd, List<Parameter> parameters) { // Create DB command from EntLib Database and assign parameters } public static Guid BeginTransaction() { // creates new Transaction adding it to "Transactions" and opens a new connection } public static Guid Commit(Guid g) { // Commits Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } public static Guid Rollback(Guid g) { // Rolls back Transaction and removes it from "Transactions" and closes connection } The Calling system would run similar to: Guid g try { g = DBEngine.BeginTransaction() DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring1, parameters,g) // do some other stuff DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring2, parameters2,g) // sit here and wait for a response from other item DBEngine.DoDBAction(cmdstring3, parameters3,g) DBEngine.Commit(g) } catch(Exception){ DBEngine.Rollback(g);} Does this interfere with .NET connection pooling (other than a connection be accidently left open)? Will EntLib keep the connection open until the commit or rollback?

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  • Can I use foreign key restrictions to return meaningful UI errors with PHP

    - by Shane
    I want to start by saying that I am a big fan of using foreign keys and have a tendency to use them even on small projects to keep my database from being filled with orphaned data. On larger projects I end up with gobs of keys which end up covering upwards of 8 - 10 layers of data. I want to know if anyone could suggest a graceful way of handling 'expected errors' from the MySQL database in a way that I can construct meaningful messages for the end user. I will explain 'expected errors' with an example. Lets say I have a set of tables used for basic discussions: discussion questions responses users Hierarchically they would probably look something like this: -users --discussion ---questions ----responses When I attempt to delete a user the FKs will check discussions and if any discussion exist the deletion is restricted, deleting discussion checks questions, deleting questions checks responses. An 'expected error' in this case would be attempting to delete a user--unless they are newly created I can anticipate that one or more foreign keys will fail causing an error. What I WANT to do is to catch that error on deletion and be able to tell the end user something like 'We're sorry, but all discussions must be removed before you can delete this user...'. Now I know I can keep and maintain matching arrays in PHP and map specific errors to messages but that is messy and prone to becoming stagnant, or I could manually run a set of selects prior to attempting the deletion, but then I am doing just as much work as without using FKs. Any help here would be greatly appreciated, or if I am just looking at this completely wrong then please let me know. On a side note I generally use CodeIgniter for my application development, so if that would open up an avenue through that framework please consider that in your answers. Thanks in Advance

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  • entity framework vNext wish list

    - by Fred Yang
    I have been intensively studying and use ef4 in my project. I do feel the improvement that it has over version 1. But I found that I have something I cannot get around easily. Here is a list I want it to be better in ef vNext. the model designer should allow multiple view of the same model, so that I don't need cram all my entity into a single view. respect user's manual edit of edmx. Currently, the some database view object simply can not be imported to the model because the designer "smartly" think that the view does not have a primary key, so that I have to manually edit the edmx to correct designer's behavior. But in the next "update from database" task, designer will revert my customization. For now, I simply fallback to manually edit the edmx file at all, or I have to use compare tool to keep the new update, and rollback and put the new update into my old edmx file manually. Designer should be improved to allow default behavior and user's manual control. I want control not to let the designer refresh the change of imported object. support user defined table function. linq is about Composability, stored proc dos not support composability. I wish I could use user defined table function which support this. What are you wishes for EF vNext?

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  • What's the best way to store Logon User information for Web Application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I was once in a project of web application developed on ASP.NET. For each logon user, there is an object (let's call it UserSessionObject here) created and stored in RAM. For each HTTP request of given user, matching UserSessoinObject instance is used to visit user state information and connection to database. So, this UserSessionObject is pretty important. This design brings several problems found later: 1) Since this UserSessionObject is cached in ASP.NET memory space, we have to config load balancer to be sticky connection. That is, HTTP request in single session would always be sent to one web server behind. This limit scalability and maintainability. 2) This UserSessionObject is accessed in every HTTP request. To keep the consistency, there is a exclusive lock for the UserSessionObject. Only one HTTP request can be processed at any given time because it must to obtain the lock first. The performance and response time is affected. Now, I'm wondering whether there is better design to handle such logon user case. It seems Sharing-Nothing-Architecture helps. That means long user info is retrieved from database each time. I'm afraid that would hurt performance. Is there any design pattern for long user web app? Thanks.

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  • Interesting LinqToSql behaviour

    - by Ben Robinson
    We have a database table that stores the location of some wave files plus related meta data. There is a foreign key (employeeid) on the table that links to an employee table. However not all wav files relate to an employee, for these records employeeid is null. We are using LinqToSQl to access the database, the query to pull out all non employee related wav file records is as follows: var results = from Wavs in db.WaveFiles where Wavs.employeeid == null; Except this returns no records, despite the fact that there are records where employeeid is null. On profiling sql server i discovered the reason no records are returned is because LinqToSQl is turning it into SQL that looks very much like: SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE 1=0 Obviously this returns no rows. However if I go into the DBML designer and remove the association and save. All of a sudden the exact same LINQ query turns into SELECT Field1, Field2 //etc FROM WaveFiles WHERE EmployeeID IS NULL I.e. if there is an association then LinqToSql assumes that all records have a value for the foreign key (even though it is nullable and the property appears as a nullable int on the WaveFile entity) and as such deliverately constructs a where clause that will return no records. Does anyone know if there is a way to keep the association in LinqToSQL but stop this behaviour. A workaround i can think of quickly is to have a calculated field called IsSystemFile and set it to 1 if employeeid is null and 0 otherwise. However this seems like a bit of a hack to work around strange behaviour of LinqToSQl and i would rather do something in the DBML file or define something on the foreign key constraint that will prevent this behaviour.

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  • How SQLite on Android handles long strings?

    - by Levara
    I'm wondering how Android's implementation of SQLite handles long Strings. Reading from online documentation on sqlite, it said that strings in sqlite are limited to 1 million characters. My strings are definitely smaller. I'm creating a simple RSS application, and after parsing a html document, and extracting text, I'm having problem saving it to a database. I have 2 tables in database, feeds and articles. RSS feeds are correctly saved and retrieved from feeds table, but when saving to the articles table, logcat is saying that it cannot save extracted text to it's column. I don't know if other columns are making problems too, no mention of them in logcat. I'm wondering, since text is from an article on web, are signs like (",',;) creating problems? Is Android automaticaly escaping them, or I have to do that. I'm using a technique for inserting similar to one in notepad tutorial: public long insertArticle(long feedid, String title, String link, String description, String h1,tring h2, String h3, String p, String image, long date) { ContentValues initialValues = new ContentValues(); initialValues.put(KEY_FEEDID, feedid); initialValues.put(KEY_TITLE, title); initialValues.put(KEY_LINK, link); initialValues.put(KEY_DESCRIPTION, description ); initialValues.put(KEY_H1, h1 ); initialValues.put(KEY_H2, h2); initialValues.put(KEY_H3, h3); initialValues.put(KEY_P, p); initialValues.put(KEY_IMAGE, image); initialValues.put(KEY_DATE, date); return mDb.insert(DATABASE_TABLE_ARTICLES,null, initialValues); } Column P is for extracted text, h1, h2 and h3 are for headers from a page. Logcat reports only column p to be the problem. The table is created with following statement: private static final String DATABASE_CREATE_ARTICLES = "create table articles( _id integer primary key autoincrement, feedid integer, title text, link text not null, description text," + "h1 text, h2 text, h3 text, p text, image text, date integer);";

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  • Best Method For High Data Availability for SQL Server

    - by omatase
    I have a web service that runs 24/7. Periodically it needs to refresh its database with data from another web service. There is a lot of data. It's tens of thousands of rows. (no, I don't mean this is a lot of data for SQL Server, just trying to point out that I expect it to take some time to come down the pipe from the other web service) The data refresh can take between 5 and 10 minutes. The actual data update portion of that is between 1 and 2 minutes. This means the service would be down for all intents and purposes when consumers would be requesting this type of data. I would like to implement a system where data is always available. The only thing that comes to mind is some type of system where I maintain two separate databases. I populate the inactive one, swapping it to active before populating the other one. I'm not sure I know the best way to do this. My current ideas just revolve around two sets of the schema in a single database (using views to access the active set) or two databases each with the same schema. The application would rotate between the two databases. Any suggestions from someone who has done something like this before?

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  • PHP Class Question

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I am trying to build a PHP class to check the username and password in MySql. I am getting "mysql_query(): supplied argument is not a valid MySQL-Link resource in D:\2010Portfolio\football\main.php on line 38" database has errors:" message. When I move my userQuery code out of my Class, it works fine. Only if it is inside my Class. I am not sure if the problem is that I don't build the connection to mysql inside my Class or not. Thanks for any helps!! Here is my code <?php $userName=$_POST['userName']; $userPw=$_POST['password']; class checkUsers { public $userName; public $userPw; function checkUsers($userName='', $userPw=''){ $this->userName=$userName; $this->userPw=$userPw; } function check1(){ if (empty($this->userName) || empty($this->userPw)){ $message="<strong>Please Enter Username and Password</strong>"; }else{ //line 38 is next line $userQuery=mysql_query("SELECT userName, userPw FROM user WHERE userName='$this->userName' and userPw='$this->userPw'", $connection); if (!$userQuery){ die("database has errors: ". mysql_error()); } if(mysql_num_rows($userQuery)==0){ $message="Please enter valid username and password"; } }//end empty check return $message; }//end check1 method }//end Class $checkUser=new checkUsers($userName, $userPw); echo $checkUser->check1(); ?> I appreciate any helps!!!!

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  • Creating PHP strings using other variables...works manually, can't figure out how automatically

    - by Matt
    Hello, I'm trying to get a variable to be formed automatically using data pulled from a mysql database. I know the data is being pulled from the database in some form resembling its original form, but that data does not act the same as data that is manually typed and assigned to a string. For example, if a cell in a mysql table says... I said "goodbye" before I left. She also said "goodbye." ...and I manually copy/paste it and add the necessary escapes... $string1 = " I said \"goodbye\" before I left. She also said \"goodbye.\" "; ...that does not equal... $string1 = $mysqlResultArray['specificCellWithQuoteShownAbove'] Interestingly, if I echo both versions of $string1 and view the output, they appear to be exactly the same. But they do not function the same when put through various functions I've created. The functions only work if I do the manual copy/paste method--which is not what I want, obviously. I'm not sure if it has to do with the line breaks or the escapes--or some combination of the two. But while both strings are superficially the same, they are apparently functionally different and I don't know why. So how can I create $string1 without manually copy/pasting the contents from the mysql entry and instead querying for the data and assigning it to $string1 in such a way that it's exactly functionally equivalent as the manual copy/pasted string?

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  • Can't diagnose my MySQL root user problem

    - by George Crawford
    Hi all, I have a problem with the MySQL root user in My MySQL setup, and I just can't for the life of me work out how to fix it. It seems that I have somehow messed up the root user, and my access to databases is now very erratic. For reference, I'm using MAMP on OS X to provide the MySQL server. I'm not sure how much that matters though - I'd guess that whatever I've done will require a command-line fix to solve it. I can start MySQL using MAMP as usual, and access databases using the 'standard' users I have created for my PHP apps. However, the root user, which I use in my MySQL GUI client, and also in phpMyAdmin, can only access the "information_schema" database, as well as two I have created manually, and presumably (and mistakenly) left permissions wide open for. My 15 or so other databases cannot be accessed my the root user. When I load up phpMyAdmin, the home screen says: "Create new database: No Privileges". I certainly did at some stage change my root user's password using the MAMP dialog. But I don't remember if I did anything else which might have caused this problem. I've tried changing the password again, and there seems to be no change in the issue. I've also tried resetting root password using the command line, including starting mysql manually with --skip-grant-tables then flushing privs, but again, nothing seems to fix the issue. I've come to the end of my ideas, and would very much appreciate some step-by-step advice and diagnosis from one of the experts here! Many thanks for your help.

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  • How can I share an entity framework model across website users

    - by richardmoss
    Hello, Currently my website is based around MVC and the Entity Framework running against a SQL Server 2005 database. So far, it has all been running very smoothly, and I really enjoy MVC and its slimmer more concise code (and no huge viewstates or soul destroying postbacks ;)) Recently I was working on upgrading the site to use a simple forum system, and this is where I started running into problems. When I was testing the site using two different browsers, if I created or replied to a post in one browser, the other browser couldn't see the post. At the moment, each visitor to the site gets their own copy of the entity model, which I store in their session data. Obviously this is the problem as updates to one model aren't getting carried to the other. As a test, I tried storing a single copy of the model which all visitors would access by assigning the model to a static variable. This worked, and both browsers could see each others modifications. However, it had its side effects. For example, if I fired up both browsers at the same time and the model was initialized, one browser would crash, and the other would work fine, despite me using a locking object so in theory one of them should have been delayed until the model was ready (of course I could have implemented this wrong ;)). Also, originally this site did use one model for all visitors and when it was live, it frequently shut down - killing the IIS application pool while it did. Now I'm not sure if this was related, but I don't really want to reintroduce whatever bug I had that caused this shut down. So, my question is a simple one really - what is the best way of either using the same model for all website users so they all see updates, or if they do have separate copies (which I imagine will have a performance impact in time) how can the models detect changes in the database and update themselves according. Thanks in advance for any advice! Regards; Richard Moss

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  • Passing session between jsf backing bean and model

    - by Rachel
    Background : I am having backing bean which has upload method that listen when file is uploaded. Now I pass this file to parser and in parser am doing validation check for row present in csv file. If validation fails, I have to log information and saving in logging table in database. My end goal : Is to get session information in logging bean so that I can get initialContext and make call to ejb to save data to database. What is happening : In my upload backing bean, am getting session but when i call parser, I do not pass session information as I do not want parser to be dependent on session as I want to unit test parser individually. So in my parser, I do not have session information, from parser am making call to logging bean(just a bean with some ejb methods) but in this logging bean, i need session because i need to get initial context. Question Is there a way in JSF, that I can get the session in my logging bean that I have in my upload backing bean? I tried doing: FacesContext ctx = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance(); HttpSession session = (HttpSession) ctx.getExternalContext().getSession(false); but session value was null, more generic question would be : How can I get session information in model bean or other beans that are referenced from backing beans in which we have session? Do we have generic method in jsf using which we can access session information throughout JSF Application?

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  • How to execute stored procedure from Access using linked tables

    - by webworm
    I have an Access 2003 database that connects to a SQL Server 2008 box via ODBC. The tables from SQL Server are connected as linked tables in Access. I have a stored procedure on the SQL Server that I am trying to execute via ADO code. The problem I have is that Access cannot seem to find the procedure. What do I have to do within Access to be able to execute this stored procedure? Some facts ... The stored procedure in question accepts one parameter which is an integer. The stored procedure returns a recordset which I am hoping to use as the datasource for a ListBox. Here is my ADO code in Access ... Private Sub LoadUserCaseList(userID As Integer) Dim cmd As ADODB.Command Set cmd = New ADODB.Command cmd.ActiveConnection = CurrentProject.Connection cmd.CommandType = adCmdStoredProc cmd.CommandText = "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList" Dim par As New ADODB.Parameter Set par = cmd.CreateParameter("userID", adInteger) cmd.Parameters.Append par cmd.Parameters("userID") = userID Dim rs As ADODB.Recordset Set rs = cmd.Execute() lstUserCases.Recordset = rs End Sub The error I get is "the microsoft jet database engine cannot find the input table or query "uspGetUserCaseSummaryList".

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