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• How big can I make an Android application's canvas in terms of pixels?

  - by user279112

  I've determined an estimate of the size of my Android emulator's screen in pixels, although I think its resolution can be changed to other numbers. Quite frankly though that doesn't eliminate the general problem of not knowing how many pixels on each axis I have to work with on my Android applications in general. The main problem I'm trying to solve is this: How do I make sure I don't use a faulty resolution on Android applications if I want to keep things' sizes constant (so that if the application screen shrinks, for instances, objects will still show up just as big - there just won't be as many of them being shown) if I wish to do this with a single universal resolution for each program? Failing that, how do I make sure everything's alright if I try to do everything the same way with maybe a few different pre-set resolutions? Mainly it seems like a relevant question that must be answered before I can come across a complete answer for the general problem is how big can I always make my application in pixels, NOT regarding if and when a user resizes the application's screen to something smaller than the maximum size permitted by the phone and its operating system. I really want to try to keep this simple. If I were doing this for a modern desktop, for instance, I know that if I design the application with a 800x600 canvas, the user can still shrink the application to the point they're not doing themselves any favors, but at least I can basically count on it working right and not being too big for the monitor or something. Is there such a magic resolution for Android, assuming that I'm designing for API levels 3+ (Android 1.5+)? Thanks

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• Generating a canonical path

  - by Joel

  Does any one know of any Java libraries I could use to generate canonical paths (basically remove back-references). I need something that will do the following: Raw Path - Canonical Path /../foo/ -> /foo /foo/ -> /foo /../../../ -> / /./foo/./ -> /foo //foo//bar -> /foo/bar //foo/../bar -> /bar etc... At the moment I lazily rely on using: new File("/", path).getCanonicalPath(); But this resolves the path against the actual file system, and is synchronised. java.lang.Thread.State: BLOCKED (on object monitor) at java.io.ExpiringCache.get(ExpiringCache.java:55) - waiting to lock <0x93a0d180> (a java.io.ExpiringCache) at java.io.UnixFileSystem.canonicalize(UnixFileSystem.java:137) at java.io.File.getCanonicalPath(File.java:559) The paths that I am canonicalising do not exist on my file system, so just the logic of the method will do me fine, thus not requiring any synchronisation. I'm hoping for a well tested library rather than having to write my own.

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• "for" loop inside another "for" loop

  - by jnkrois

  Hello everybody. I have quick question, and I'm sure some of you guys will be able to point out what I'm doing wrong. Basically, I want to create a table with (calendar), with the months and days of an entire year, and Im using php to do it, my code is doing something weird. What happens is that January is empty and the days for January are being put in february. My code so far is as follows: $months = 12; $monthsOfTheyear = array("Januany","February","March","April","May","June","July","August","September","October","November","December"); $currentMonth = date("n"); $currentYear = date("Y"); $daysOfTheMonth = cal_days_in_month(CAL_GREGORIAN, $currentMonth, $currentYear); for($i = 0; $i < $months; $i++){ echo " <tbody class='month'>"; echo " <tr> <td colspan='".$daysOfTheMonth."'> ".$monthsOfTheyear[$i]." </td> </tr> <tr> "; $daysOfEachMonth = cal_days_in_month(CAL_GREGORIAN, $i, $currentYear); for($d = 1; $d <= $daysOfEachMonth; $d++){ echo " <td> ".$d." </td> "; } echo " </tr> </tbody"; } I'm obviously doing something wrong, but I've been staring at the monitor for about an hour trying to figure it out. I'd appreciate any advice. Thanks

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• Error with MySQL Query

  - by Ken

  Okay, I must be an idiot, because this is my 3rd question for today. Here's my code: date_default_timezone_set("America/Los_Angeles"); include("mainmenu.php"); $con = mysql_connect("localhost", "root", "********"); if(!$con){ die(mysql_error()); } $usrname = $_POST['usrname']; $fname = $_POST['fname']; $lname = $_POST['lname']; $password = $_POST['password']; $email = $_POST['email']; mysql_select_db("`users`, $con) or die(mysql_error()"); $query = ("INSERT INTO `users`.`data` (`id`, `usrname`, `fname`, `lname`, `email`, `password`) VALUES (NULL, '$usrname', '$fname', '$lname', '$email', 'password'))"); mysql_query('$query') or die(mysql_error()); mysql_close($con); echo("Thank you for registering!"); I always get the error returned as: "You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near '$query' at line 1. Help a newbie. I'm about to stab my monitor.

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• Is it possible to Kick off a java process under Windows Service with C#?

  - by Wing C. Chen

  I would like to wrap a java program into a windows service with C# using System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase. So I came up with the following code: /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> static void Main() { System.ServiceProcess.ServiceBase.Run(new JavaLauncher()); } protected override void OnStart(string[] args) { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StartService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStart(args); } protected override void OnStop() { Thread _thread; _thread = new Thread(StopService); _thread.Start(); base.OnStop(); } static public void StartService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = config.generateLaunchCommand(); proc.Start(); } static public void StopService() { System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "javaw"; proc.StartInfo.Arguments = "-jar stop.jar"; proc.Start(); } Firstly I had to use Threads in OnStart and OnStop. If not, an exception occurs complaining that the service is terminated because of doing nothing. Secondly, the service can be hooked up to windows smoothly. However, the service terminates a short while after it is started. I looked into the process monitor, only the service process stays alive for that short while, the javaw process never showed up, however. Is there anyone who knows how this can be fixed? It works fine in an ordinary console environment. I think it has something to do with Windows service.

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• What is the best way to find a processed memory allocations in terms of C# objects

  - by Shantaram

  I have written various C# console based applications, some of them long running some not, which can over time have a large memory foot print. When looking at the windows perofrmance monitor via the task manager, the same question keeps cropping up in my mind; how do I get a break down of the number objects by type that are contributing to this footprint; and which of those are f-reachable and those which aren't and hence can be collected. On numerous occasions I've performed a code inspection to ensure that I am not unnecessarily holding on objects longer than required and disposing of objects with the using construct. I have also recently looked at employing the CG.Collect method when I have released a large number of objects (for example held in a collection which has just been cleared). However, I am not so sure that this made that much difference, so I threw that code away. I am guessing that there are tools in sysinternals suite than can help to resolve these memory type quiestions but I am not sure which and how to use them. The alternative would be to pay for a third party profiling tool such as JetBrains dotTrace; but I need to make sure that I've explored the free options first before going cap in hand to my manager.

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• How to access a web service behind a NAT?

  - by jr

  We have a product we are deploying to some small businesses. It is basically a RESTful API over SSL using Tomcat. This is installed on the server in the small business and is accessed via an iPhone or other device portable device. So, the devices connecting to the server could come from any number of IP addresses. The problem comes with the installation. When we install this service, it seems to always become a problem when doing port forwarding so the outside world can gain access to tomcat. It seems most time the owner doesn't know router password, etc, etc. I am trying to research other ways we can accomplish this. I've come up with the following and would like to hear other thoughts on the topic. Setup a SSH tunnel from each client office to a central server. Basically the remote devices would connect to that central server on a port and that traffic would be tunneled back to Tomcat in the office. Seems kind of redundant to have SSH and then SSL, but really no other way to accomplish it since end-to-end I need SSL (from device to office). Not sure of performance implications here, but I know it would work. Would need to monitor the tunnel and bring it back up if it goes done, would need to handle SSH key exchanges, etc. Setup uPNP to try and configure the hole for me. Would likely work most of the time, but uPNP isn't guaranteed to be turned on. May be a good next step. Come up with some type of NAT transversal scheme. I'm just not familiar with these and uncertain of how they exactly work. We have access to a centralized server which is required for the authentication if that makes it any easier. What else should I be looking at to get this accomplished?

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• getting an exception when refreshing the configuration in memory on change to external config file

  - by RKP

  Hi, I have a windows service which reads the config settings from an external file which is located at a different path than the path to the executable for the windows service. the windows service uses a FileSystemWatcher to monitor the changes to the external config file and when it the config file is changed, it should refresh the settings in memory by reading the updated settings from the config file. but this is where I am getting an exception "ConfigurationErrorsException" and the message is "An error occurred creating the configuration section handler for appSettings: The process cannot access the file 'M:\somefolder\WindowsService1.Config' because it is being used by another process." and the inner exception is actually "IOException" with same message. here is the code. I am not sure what is wrong with the code. Please help. protected void watcher_Changed(object sender, FileSystemEventArgs e) { ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection(ConfigSectionName); WriteToEventLog(ConfigKeyCheck); if (FileChanged != null) FileChanged(this, EventArgs.Empty); } private void WriteToEventLog(string key) { if (EventLog.SourceExists(ServiceEventSource)) { EventLog.WriteEntry(ServiceEventSource, string.Format("key:{0}, value:{1}", key, ConfigurationManager.AppSettings[key])); } }

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• Setting hidden input value in Javascript, then accessing it in codebehind

  - by Siegesmith

  I have been trying to set the value of a hidden input by using Javascript and then access the value from within my C# codebehind. When I run the code that is copied below, the value that is assigned to assignedIDs is "", which I assume is the default value for a hidden input. If I manually set the value in the html tag, then assignedIDs is set to that value. This behavior suggests to me that the value of the input is being reset (re-rendered?) between the onClientClick and onClick events firing. I would appreciate any help with the matter. I have spent hours trying to solve what seems like a very simple problem. html/javascript: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Admin Page - Manage Tasks</title> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> function PopulateAssignedIDHiddenInput() { var source = document.getElementById('assignedLinguistListBox'); var s = ""; var count = source.length; for (var i = count - 1; i >= 0; i--) { var item = source.options[i]; if (s == "") { s = source.options[i].value; } else { s = s.concat(",",source.options[i].value); } } document.getElementById('assignedIDHiddenInput').Value = s; // I have confirmed that, at this point, the value of // the hidden input is set properly } </script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:Panel id="EditMode" runat="server"> <table style="border: none;"> <tr> <td> <asp:Label ID="availableLinguistLabel" runat="server" Text="Available"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:ListBox ID="availableLinguistListBox" runat="server" Rows="10" SelectionMode="Multiple"></asp:ListBox> </td> <td> <input type="button" name="right" value="&gt;&gt;" onclick="Javascript:MoveItem('availableLinguistListBox', 'assignedLinguistListBox');" /><br /><br /> <input type="button" name="left" value="&lt;&lt;" onclick="Javascript:MoveItem('assignedLinguistListBox', 'availableLinguistListBox');" /> </td> <td> <asp:Label ID="assignedLinguistLabel" runat="server" Text="Assigned To"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:ListBox ID="assignedLinguistListBox" runat="server" Rows="10" SelectionMode="Multiple"></asp:ListBox> </td> </tr> </table> //-snip- <asp:Button ID="save_task_changes_button" runat="server" ToolTip="Click to save changes to task" Text="Save Changes" OnClick="save_task_changes_button_click" OnClientClick="Javascript:PopulateAssignedIDHiddenInput()" /> </asp:Panel> <!-- Hidden Inputs --> <!-- Note that I have also tried setting runat="server" with no change --> <input id="assignedIDHiddenInput" name="assignedIDHiddenInput" type="hidden" /> </div> </form> </body> c# protected void save_task_changes_button_click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string assignedIDs = Request.Form["assignedIDHiddenInput"]; // Here, assignedIDs == ""; also, Request.Params["assignedIDHiddenInput"] == "" // -snip- }

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• How can I programmatically determine if my workstation is locked?

  - by AgentConundrum

  I'm writing up some productivity/metrics tools for myself to help monitor my focus throughout the day. Recently, I've noticed that I tend to get off track more than usual and feel the need to get up and go for walks/drinks/etc and I'm concerned that I'm "wasting" too much time. Since I always lock my computer when I go anywhere, and I unlock it as soon as I return (even if I'm just reading at my desk, etc), I was wondering how I can determine, in code, how long the machine is locked. I'm writing this in C# if that helps, but I'm open to other ideas. I like the windows service idea (and have accepted it) for simplicity and cleanliness, but unfortunately I don't think it will work for me in this particular case. I wanted to run this on my workstation at work rather than home (or in addition to home, I suppose), but it's locked down pretty hard courtesy of the DoD. That's part of the reason I'm rolling my own, actually. I'll write it up anyway and see if it works. Thanks everyone!

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• Wicket application + Apache + mod_jk - AJP queues are filling up!

  - by nojyarg

  Dear community, We are having a Wicket-based Java application deployed in a production server cluster using Apache (2.2.3) with mod_jk (1.2.30) as load balancing component w/ sticky session and Jboss 5 as application container for the Java application. We are inconsistently seeing an issue in our production environment where our AJP queues between Apache and Jboss as shown in the JMX console fill up with requests to the point where the application server is no longer taking on any new requests. When looking at all involved system components (overall traffic, load db, process list db, load of all clustered application server nodes) nothing points towards a capacity issue which would explain why the calls are being stalled in the AJP queue. Instead all systems appear sufficiently idle. So far, our only remedy to this issue is to restart the appservers and the load balancer which only occasionally clears the AJP queues. We are trying to figure out why the queues are filling up to the point that no calls get returned to the end user although the system is not under a high load. Has anyone else experienced similar problems? Are there any other system metrics we should monitor that could explain the queuing behavior? Is this potentially a mod_jk issue? If so, is it advisable to swap mod_jk with mod_cluster to resolve the issue? Any advice is highly appreciated. If I can provide additional information for the sake of troubleshooting I would be more than willing to do so. /Ben

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• Automatically restarting Erlang applications

  - by Nick

  I recently ran into a bug where an entire Erlang application died, yielding a log message that looked like this: =INFO REPORT==== 11-Jun-2010::11:07:25 === application: myapp exited: shutdown type: temporary I have no idea what triggered this shutdown, but the real problem I have is that it didn't restart itself. Instead, the now-empty Erlang VM just sat there doing nothing. Now, from the research I've done, it looks like there are other "start types" you can give an application: 'transient' and 'permanent'. If I start a Supervisor within an application, I can tell it to make a particular process transient or permanent, and it will automatically restart it for me. However, according to the documentation, if I make an application transient or permanent, it doesn't restart it when it dies, but rather it kills all the other applications as well. What I really want to do is somehow tell the Erlang VM that a particular application should always be running, and if it goes down, restart it. Is this possible to do? (I'm not talking about implementing a supervisor on top of my application, because then it's a catch 22: what if my supervisor process crashes? I'm looking for some sort of API or setting that I can use to have Erlang monitor and restart my application for me.) Thanks!

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• Why won't my Setup Project Perform my Custom Registration Process

  - by Jordan S

  I am trying to write an Setup Project/Installer for a class library driver that I wrote in C# using Visual Studio 2008. The driver project has a section of code that looks like this... [ComRegisterFunction] public static void RegisterASCOM(Type t) { Trace.WriteLine("Registration Started."); DoRegistration(true); } In the driver project Properties - "Assembly Information" I have set checked the box that says Make COM-Visible = true. I added a Setup Project to the solution in VS, added the output dll from the driver project so that it installs on the target machine and set the Register property of the dll to "vsdraCOM". So, my understanding is that when the installer runs it SHOULD execute the methods of the dll that are marked with [COMRegisterFunction]. Using SysInternals Debug View I can monitor when the above code snippet is hit by watching for the "Registration started" text to show up in the window. When I build the solution, I can see the text show up so I know the driver is registering properly. The problem is that when I run the installer, I don't think it is doing the registration bit. I see nothing show up in Debug View. And if i try to access my driver via another application I get an error saying it "Cannot create ActiveX object". Why does the registration not occur during the install process? The driver does register for COM but it does NOT call my custom registration method. Does anyone have and suggestions of what I could be missing? Is there another way I can debug this? (I can provide more code if anyone want's to take a look!!)

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• What happens when we say "listen to a port" ?

  - by smwikipedia

  Hi, When we start a server application, we always need to speicify the port number it listens to. But how is this "listening mechanism" implemented under the hood? My current imagination is like this: The operating system associate the port number with some buffer. The server application's responsibiligy is to monitor this buffer. If there's no data in this buffer, the server application's listen operation will just block the application. When some data arrives from the wire, the operating system will know that check the data and see if it is targed at this port number. And then it will fill the buffer. And then OS will notify the blocked server application and the server application will get the data and continue to run. Question is: If the above scenario is correct, how could the opearting system know there's data arriving from wire? It cannot be a busy pooling. Is it some kind of interrupt-based mechanism? If there's too much data arriving and the buffer is not big enough, will there be data loss? Is the "listen to a port" operation really a blocking operation? Many thanks.

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• tk: how to invoke it just to display something, and return to the main program?

  - by max

  Sorry for the noob question but I really don't understand this. I'm using python / tkinter and I want to display something (say, a canvas with a few shapes on it), and keep it displayed until the program quits. I understand that no widgets would be displayed until I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(). However, if I call tkinter.tk.mainloop(), I won't be able to do anything else until the user closes the main window. I don't need to monitor any user input events, just display some stuff. What's a good way to do this without giving up control to mainloop? EDIT: Is this sample code reasonable: class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.loop() def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after(0, self.loop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen EDIT2 (added after_idle): class App(tk.Tk): def __init__(self, sim): self.sim = sim # link to the simulation instance self.after_idle(self.preloop) def preloop(): self.after(0, self.loop) def loop(): self.redraw() # update all the GUI to reflect new simulation state sim.next_step() # advance simulation another step self.after_idle(self.preloop) def redraw(): # get whatever we need from self.sim, and put it on the screen

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• How to implement a log window in a web browser?

  - by Jeremy Friesner

  Hi all, I'm interested in adding an HTML/web-browser based "log window" to my net-enabled device. Specifically, my device has a customized web server and an event log, and I'd like to be able to leave a web browser window open to e.g. http://my.devices.ip.address/system_log and have events show up as text in the web browser window as they happen. People could then use this as a quick way to monitor what the system is doing, without needing run any special software. My question is, what is the best way to implement this? I've tried the obvious approach -- just have my device's embedded web server hold the HTTP/TCP connection open indefinitely, and write the necessary text to the TCP socket when an event occurs -- but the problem with that is that most web browsers (e.g. Safari) don't display the web page until the server has closed the TCP connection has been closed, and so the result is that the log data never appears in the web browser, it just acts as if the page is taking forever to load. Is there some trick to make this work? I could implement it as a Java applet, but I'd much prefer something more lightweight/simple, either using only HTML or possibly HTML+JavaScript. Also I'd like to avoid having the web browser 'poll' the server, since that would either introduce too much latency (if the reload delay was large) or put load on the system (if the delay was small)

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• How do I fix the alpha value after calling GDI text functions?

  - by Daniel Stutzbach

  I have a application that uses the Aero glass effect, so each pixel has an alpha value in addition to red, green, and blue values. I have one custom-draw control that has a solid white background (alpha = 255). I would like to draw solid text on the control using the GDI text functions. However, these functions set the alpha value to an arbitrary value, causing the text to translucently show whatever window is beneath my application's. After calling rendering the text, I would like to go through all of the pixels in the control and set their alpha value back to 255. What's the best way to do that? I haven't had any luck with the BitBlt, GetPixel, and SetPixel functions. They appear to be oblivious to the alpha value. Here are other solutions that I have considered and rejected: Draw to a bitmap, then copy the bitmap to the device: With this approach, the text rendering does not make use of the characteristics of the monitor (e.g., ClearText). Use GDI+ for text rendering: This application originally used GDI+ for text rendering (before I started working on Aero support). I switched to GDI because of difficulties I encountered trying to accurately measure strings with GDI+. I'd rather not switch back. Set the Aero region to avoid the control in question: My application's window is actually a child window of a different application running in a different process. I don't have direct control over the Aero settings on the top-level window. The application is written in C# using Windows Forms, though I'm not above using Interop to call Win32 API functions.

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• WPF C# Client/Server announcement system

  - by manemawanna

  I'm currently in the process of creating an announcement system at my place of work. The role of this system will be to replace all users email due to people misusing it and generally abusing the facility. The system will consist of: Web Portal: Will allow staff to enter any important announcements (this will be restricted via AD). SQL Server 2k5 DB: Will hold the announcements along with records of staff members and if they've read the announcements etc. Front End: Created in WPF & C# which is nearly complete, it will display the announcements to the users. Web Page: Client will contact every so often, which will return an xml file for the client to read. However my boss has now shifted the goal posts and would like the announcements to appear to the user once they are written to the database, rather than waiting on the client to contact the webpage. So now I'm a bit unsure as to how to go about this. I have one idea where I would create a small server application to monitor for new announcements then contact the clients to inform them to approach the website for the information they need. But I'm just looking to see if theres a better or more efficient way to do this or if someone else has a more appropriate idea or suggestion.

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• Passing an address inside a WordPress post to a Google Map elsewhere on the Page

  - by ael_ecurai

  Background: My client is building their own WordPress site (using a purchased feature-rich theme), and I'm modifying a child theme as necessary to achieve customizations she wants. The theme comes with a Page template that includes a full-width Google Map across the top, which pulls its marker from a single address set within the Theme Options. It's meant to be used for one main "Contact Us" page. The client's business has several locations, and she wants each location's page to include such a map. (Example linked below.) It seems that the ideal solution would be the ability to specify an address within a shortcode in the Post, and have that set the map marker. Here's how the theme makes the map (where $mapAddress is the address from the Theme Options): <?php $mapAddress = ot_get_option( 'map_address' ); $mapHeight = ot_get_option( 'map_height' ); $mapContent = ot_get_option( 'map_content' ); ?> <section id="block-map-wrapper"> <div id="block-map" class="clearfix"> <script type="text/javascript" src="https://maps.googleapis.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script> jQuery(document).ready(function(){ // Map Options var mapOptions = { zoom: 15, scrollwheel: false, zoomControl: true, zoomControlOptions: { style: google.maps.ZoomControlStyle.SMALL, position: google.maps.ControlPosition.TOP_LEFT }, mapTypeControl: true, scaleControl: false, panControl: false, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; // The Map Object var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map"), mapOptions); var address = ""; var geocoder = new google.maps.Geocoder(); geocoder.geocode({ "address" : "<?php echo $mapAddress; ?>" }, function (results, status) { if (status == google.maps.GeocoderStatus.OK) { address = results[0].geometry.location; map.setCenter(results[0].geometry.location); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: address, map: map, clickable: true, animation: google.maps.Animation.DROP }); var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: "<?php echo $mapContent; ?>" }); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, "click", function() { infowindow.open(map, marker); }); } }); }); </script> <div id="map" class = "map" style = "width: 100%; height: <?php echo $mapHeight; ?>px"></div> </div><!-- #block-map --> <div class="shadow-bottom"></div> </section><!-- #block-map-wrapper --> Here's a test page using a custom Page template I've created. Right now it's using the same map code as above. I've tried creating a shortcode that takes an address attribute and sets it as $mapAddress, but that didn't work. I believe it's because the map is already loaded by the time the Loop gets parsed. How can I tell Maps to "come back" to the post to get the proper address? My specialty lies in HTML & CSS, but Javascript befuddles me fairly easily, so please be explicit when explaining implementation. Bonus: A further goal is to have the locations' parent Page also include such a map, but have multiple markers representing the multiple locations. When taking more than one location, Google Maps only accepts latitude/longitude. I don't want my client to be concerned with coordinates, so I know there's got to be something I can do with the geocoding service so she can just input a list of addresses instead (into the same, or similar, shortcode solution developed for my main question). But I am extra-clueless about how to do that.

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• Self organizing layouts

  - by user613326

  Quite a while ago i was more in websites building then i am now. In my time there where huge debates about what to use; tables or pure CSS alternatives. I went out of the webdesigning, but now an old question re-surfaces. What i would like to create is a web page design that depending on screensize, would self organize the page into columns, so that for example on a PDA it would show 1 column On an old computer monitor, it would show 2 colomns, and on a widescreen laptop it would show 3 columns. I forgot how this was called and how it was done in the past, it had to do with XML and storing data seperate from design (if i remember well), perhaps these days better methods exist to do that, does this, anyone ring this a bell ? Also i note a lot is possible with Jquery and and brouwser depending webkits. But i need to make sure that it would run on all (modern) brouwsers : Iexplorer, Firefox, chrome And Jquery is nice too, but i am kinda woried that some day one of these brouwser vendors decides that jscript like java isnt enabled by default (or is that very unlikely ?)11 Perhaps someone can point me to a method that is the prefered way to do this.

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• File size monitoring in C#

  - by manemawanna

  Hello, I work in the Systems & admin team and have been given the task of creating a quota management application to try and encourage users to better manage there resources as we currently have issues with disc space and don't enforce hard quotas. At the moment I'm using the code below to go through all the files in a users homespace to retrieve the overall amount of space they are using. As from what I've seen else where theres no other way to do this in C#, the issue with it is theirs quite a high overhead while it retireves the size of each file then creates a total. try { long dirSize = 0; FileInfo[] FI = new DirectoryInfo("I:\\").GetFiles("*.*", SearchOption.AllDirectories); foreach (FileInfo F1 in FI) { dirSize += F1.Length; } return dirSize; } So I'm looking for a quicker way to do this or a quick way to monitor changes in the size of files while using the options avaliable through FileSystemWatcher. At the moment the only thing I can think of is creating a hashtable containing the file location and size of each file, so when a size changed event occurs I can compare the old size against the new one and update the total. Any suggestions would be greatly appreciated.

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• Actionscript: How Can I Know When The Source Property Of An Image Is Completely Updated

  - by Joshua

  var I:Image=new Image(); I.source='C:\\Abc.png'; var H:int=I.height; H is always Zero! I am presuming this is because the image hasn't finished reading the png file off the disk yet. What event can I monitor to know when it's width and height will have the right values? The 'Complete' event only seems to work for DOWNLOADED images. The 'Render' event happens EVERY FRAME. The (undocumented?) 'sourceChanged', happens as soon as source changes, and has the same problem! What event do I watch that will let me know when the image's width and height properties will have valid values? Or is there some Synchronous version of I.source='xxx.png', that I don't know about? P.S. Yes, I know I shouldn't use "C:\" in an Air Program. This was just for illustrative purposes, so that you won't suggest I use "Complete", which never even seems to fire when the file indicated by source is local.

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• Arduino variable going blank after first pass.

  - by user541597

  I have an arduino sketch that takes a timet and when that timet is equal to the current time it sets the new timet to timet + 2. For example: char* convert(char* x, String y){ int hour; int minute; sscanf(x, "%d:%d", &hour, &minute); char buf[6]; if (y == "6"){ if (hour > 17){ hour = (hour+6)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); }else if (hour < 18){ //hour = hour + 6; minute = (minute + 2); snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "12"){ if (hour > 11){ hour = (hour+12)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } else if (hour < 12){ hour = hour + 12; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute); } } if (y == "24"){ hour = (hour+24)%24; snprintf(buf, 10, "%d:%d", hour, minute ); } return buf; } sketch starts for example at 1:00am timet is set to 1:02, at system time 1:02 timet == system time my loops looks like this: if (timet == currenttime){ timet = convert(timet) } From this now when ever I check the value of timet it should equal 1:04, however I am getting the correct value at the first run after the execution of convert however everytime after that my timet value is blank. I tried changing the code instead of using the if loop I only run the convert function when I send for example t through the serial monitor, this works fine and outputs the correct timet after the execution of the convert function, So I figured the problem is in the if loop... Any ideas?

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• Update transaction in SQL Server 2008 R2 from ASP.Net not working

  - by Amarus

  Hello! Even though I've been a stalker here for ages, this is the first post I'm making. Hopefully, it won't end here and more optimistically future posts might actually be me trying to give a hand to someone else, I do owe this community that much and more. Now, what I'm trying to do is simple and most probably the reason behind it not working is my own stupidity. However, I'm stumped here. I'm working on an ASP.Net website that interacts with an SQL Server 2008 R2 database. So far everything has been going okay but updating a row (or more) just won't work. I even tried copying and pasting code from this site and others but it's always the same thing. In short: No exception or errors are shown when the update command executes (it even gives the correct count of affected rows) but no changes are actually made on the database. Here's a simplified version of my code (the original had more commands and tons of parameters each, but even when it's like this it doesn't work): protected void btSubmit_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { using (SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection(System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["ApplicationServices"].ConnectionString)) { string commandString = "UPDATE [impoundLotAlpha].[dbo].[Vehicle]" + "SET [VehicleMake] = @VehicleMake" + " WHERE [ComplaintID] = @ComplaintID"; using (SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(commandString, connection)) { SqlTransaction transaction = null; try { command.Connection.Open(); transaction = connection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable); command.Transaction = transaction; SqlParameter complaintID = new SqlParameter("@complaintID", SqlDbType.Int); complaintID.Value = HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString["complaintID"]; command.Parameters.Add(complaintID); SqlParameter VehicleMake = new SqlParameter("@VehicleMake", SqlDbType.VarChar, 20); VehicleMake.Value = tbVehicleMake.Text; command.Parameters.Add(VehicleMake); command.ExecuteNonQuery(); transaction.Commit(); } catch { transaction.Rollback(); throw; } finally { connection.Close(); } } } } I've tried this with the "SqlTransaction" stuff and without it and nothing changes. Also, since I'm doing multiple updates at once, I want to have them act as a single transaction. I've found that it can be either done like this or by use of the classes included in the System.Transactions namespace (CommittableTransaction, TransactionScope...). I tried all I could find but didn't get any different results. The connection string in web.config is as follows: <connectionStrings> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=localhost;Initial Catalog=ImpoundLotAlpha;Integrated Security=True" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient"/> </connectionStrings> So, tldr; version: What is the mistake that I did with that record update attempt? (Figured it out, check below if you're having a similar issue.) What is the best method to gather multiple update commands as a single transaction? Thanks in advance for any kind of help and/or suggestions! Edit: It seems that I was lacking some sleep yesterday cause this time it only took me 5 minutes to figure out my mistake. Apparently the update was working properly but I failed to notice that the textbox values were being overwritten in Page_Load. For some reason I had this part commented: if (IsPostBack) return; The second part of the question still stands. But should I post this as an answer to my own question or keep it like this?

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• referencing part of the composite primary key

  - by Zavael

  I have problems with setting the reference on database table. I have following structure: CREATE TABLE club( id INTEGER NOT NULL, name_short VARCHAR(30), name_full VARCHAR(70) NOT NULL ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX club_uix ON club(id); ALTER TABLE club ADD CONSTRAINT club_pk PRIMARY KEY (id); CREATE TABLE team( id INTEGER NOT NULL, club_id INTEGER NOT NULL, team_name VARCHAR(30) ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX team_uix ON team(id, club_id); ALTER TABLE team ADD CONSTRAINT team_pk PRIMARY KEY (id, club_id); ALTER TABLE team ADD FOREIGN KEY (club_id) REFERENCES club(id); CREATE TABLE person( id INTEGER NOT NULL, first_name VARCHAR(20), last_name VARCHAR(20) NOT NULL ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX person_uix ON person(id); ALTER TABLE person ADD PRIMARY KEY (id); CREATE TABLE contract( person_id INTEGER NOT NULL, club_id INTEGER NOT NULL, wage INTEGER ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX contract_uix on contract(person_id); ALTER TABLE contract ADD CONSTRAINT contract_pk PRIMARY KEY (person_id); ALTER TABLE contract ADD FOREIGN KEY (club_id) REFERENCES club(id); ALTER TABLE contract ADD FOREIGN KEY (person_id) REFERENCES person(id); CREATE TABLE player( person_id INTEGER NOT NULL, team_id INTEGER, height SMALLINT, weight SMALLINT ); CREATE UNIQUE INDEX player_uix on player(person_id); ALTER TABLE player ADD CONSTRAINT player_pk PRIMARY KEY (person_id); ALTER TABLE player ADD FOREIGN KEY (person_id) REFERENCES person(id); -- ALTER TABLE player ADD FOREIGN KEY (team_id) REFERENCES team(id); --this is not working It gives me this error: Error code -5529, SQL state 42529: a UNIQUE constraint does not exist on referenced columns: TEAM in statement [ALTER TABLE player ADD FOREIGN KEY (team_id) REFERENCES team(id)] As you can see, team table has composite primary key (club_id + id), the person references club through contract. Person has some common attributes for player and other staff types. One club can have multiple teams. Employed person has to have a contract with a club. Player (is the specification of person) - if emplyed - can be assigned to one of the club's teams. Is there better way to design my structure? I thought about excluding the club_id from team's primary key, but I would like to know if this is the only way. Thanks. UPDATE 1 I would like to have the id as team identification only within the club, so multiple teams can have equal id as long as they belong to different clubs. Is it possible? UPDATE 2 updated the naming convention as adviced by philip Some business rules to better understand the structure: One club can have 1..n teams (Main squad, Reserve squad, Youth squad or Team A, Team B... only team can play match, not club) One team belongs to one club only A player is type of person (other types (staff) are scouts, coaches etc so they do not need to belong to specific team, just to the club, if employed) Person can have 0..1 contract with 1 club (that means he is employed or unemployed) Player (if employed) belongs to one team of the club Now thinking about it - moving team_id from player to contract would solve my problem, and it could hold the condition "Player (if employed) belongs to one team of the club", but it would be redundant for other staff types. What do you think?

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