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  • Amazon S3 and swfaddress

    - by justinbach
    I recently migrated a large AS3 site (lots of swfs, lots of flvs) to Amazon S3. Pretty much everything but HTML and JS files is being stored/served from Amazon, and it's working well. The only problem I'm having is that I built the site using SWFaddress (actually, via the Gaia framework which uses SWFaddress), and for some reason, SWFaddress is no longer updating the address bar correctly as users navigate from page to page. In other words, the URL persistently remains http://www.mysite.com, not http://www.mysite.com/#/section as would be the case were SWFaddress functioning correctly (and as it was functioning prior to the migration). Stranger yet, if I go to (e.g.) http://www.mysite.com/#/section directly, the deeplinking functions as you'd expect--I arrive directly at the correct section. However, navigating away from that section doesn't have any effect on the address bar, despite the fact that it should be dynamically updated. I've got a crossdomain.xml file set up on the site that allows access from all domains, so that's not the issue, and I don't know what else might be. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! P.S. I integrated S3 by putting pretty much the entire site in an S3 bucket and then just changing the initial swfobject embed to point to the S3 instance of main.swf, passing in the S3 path as the "base" param to the embedded swf so that all dynamically loaded assets and swfs would also be sourced from s3. Dunno if that's related to the troubles I'm having.

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  • iPhone OpenGL Splash Screen? How?

    - by Kyle
    My app is based pretty much on the EAGLView in the SDK. It doesn't incorporate a ViewController. Rather it simply inits GL and starts painting immediately.. Currently, my app will load a very small PNG and displays it as quickly as possible. On a 3GS this is rather instant, but on a 3G it can take about 2 seconds. In the latter case of the 3G, the user is looking at a black screen for that time. Is this behavior allowed by Apple? Is there any way to alter this SDK example so that it makes use of 'default.png'? It doesn't seem so straight forward to me. I want my user to see an image as quickly as possible, and I also don't want to be rejected for such a little quirk like this as well. In the guidelines, they encourage you to use default.png for standard applications to show a sort of mockup of the interface while it actually loads. I want to initialize OpenGL, and ALSO display this. This default.png is loaded before the app screen launches. This is EXACLTY what I want to make use of. Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

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  • Using the groupby method in Python, example included

    - by randombits
    Trying to work with groupby so that I can group together files that were created on the same day. When I say same day in this case, I mean the dd part in mm/dd/yyyy. So if a file was created on March 1 and April 1, they should be grouped together because the "1" matches. Here's the code I have so far: #!/usr/bin/python import os import datetime from itertools import groupby def created_ymd(fn): ts = os.stat(fn).st_ctime dt = datetime.date.fromtimestamp(ts) return dt.year, dt.month, dt.day def get_files(): files = [] for f in os.listdir(os.getcwd()): if not os.path.isfile(f): continue y,m,d = created_ymd(f) files.append((f, d)) return files files = get_files() for key, group in groupby(files, lambda x: x[1]): for file in group: print "file: %s, date: %s" % (file[0], key) print " " The problem is, I get lots of files that get grouped together based on the day. But then I'll see multiple groups with the same day. Meaning I might have 4 files grouped that were created on the 17th. Later on I'll see another unique set of 2 files that are also created on the 17th. Where am I going wrong?

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  • WCF: How can I send data while gracefully closing a connection?

    - by mafutrct
    I've got a WCF service that offers a Login method. A client is required to call this method (due to it being the only IsInitiating=true). This method should return a string that describes the success of the call in any case. If the login failed, the connection should be closed. The issue is with the timing of the close. I'd like to send the return value, then immediately close the connection. string Login (string name, string pass) { if (name != pass) { OperationContext.Current.Channel.Close (); return "fail"; } else { return "yay"; } } The MSDN states that calling Close on the channel causes an ICommunicationObject to gracefully transition from the Opened state to the Closed state. The Close method allows any unfinished work to be completed before returning. For example, finish sending any buffered messages). This did not work for me (or my understanding is wrong), as the close is executed immediately - WCF does not wait for the Login method to finish executing and return a string but closes the connection earlier. Therefore I assume that calling Close does not wait for the running method to finish. Now, how can I still return a value, then close?

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  • Counting the number of objects that meets a certain criteria

    - by Candy Chiu
    The title doesn't tell the complete story. Please read the message. I have two objects: Adult and Child. Child has a boolean field isMale, and a reference to Adult. Adult doesn't reference Child. public class Adult { long id; } public class Child { long id; boolean isMale; Adult parent; } I want to create a query to list the number of sons each adult has including adults who don't have any sons. I tried: Query 1 SELECT adult, COUNT(child) FROM Child child RIGHT OUTER JOIN child.parent as adult WHERE child.isMale='true' GROUP BY adult which translates to sql select adult.id as col_0_0_, count(child.id) as col_1_0_, ... {omit properties} from Child child right outer join Adult adult on child.parentId=adult.id where child.isMale = 'true' group by adult.id Query 1 doesn't pick up adults that don't have any sons. Query 2: SELECT adult, COUNT(child.isMale) FROM Child child RIGHT OUTER JOIN child.parent as adult GROUP BY adult translates to sql: select adult.id as col_0_0_, count(child.id) as col_1_0_, ... {omit properties} from Child child right outer join Adult adult on child.parentId=adult.id group by adult.id Query 2 doesn't have the right count of sons. Basically COUNT doesn't evaluate isMale. The where clause in Query 1 filtered out Adults with no sons. How do I build a HQL or a Criteria query for this use case? Thanks.

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  • Invalidating Memcached Keys on save() in Django

    - by Zack
    I've got a view in Django that uses memcached to cache data for the more highly trafficked views that rely on a relatively static set of data. The key word is relatively: I need invalidate the memcached key for that particular URL's data when it's changed in the database. To be as clear as possible, here's the meat an' potatoes of the view (Person is a model, cache is django.core.cache.cache): def person_detail(request, slug): if request.is_ajax(): cache_key = "%s_ABOUT_%s" % settings.SITE_PREFIX, slug # Check the cache to see if we've already got this result made. json_dict = cache.get(cache_key) # Was it a cache hit? if json_dict is None: # That's a negative Ghost Rider person = get_object_or_404(Person, display = True, slug = slug) json_dict = { 'name' : person.name, 'bio' : person.bio_html, 'image' : person.image.extra_thumbnails['large'].absolute_url, } cache.set(cache_key) # json_dict will now exist, whether it's from the cache or not response = HttpResponse() response['Content-Type'] = 'text/javascript' response.write(simpljson.dumps(json_dict)) # Make sure it's all properly formatted for JS by using simplejson return response else: # This is where the fully templated response is generated What I want to do is get at that cache_key variable in it's "unformatted" form, but I'm not sure how to do this--if it can be done at all. Just in case there's already something to do this, here's what I want to do with it (this is from the Person model's hypothetical save method) def save(self): # If this is an update, the key will be cached, otherwise it won't, let's see if we can't find me try: old_self = Person.objects.get(pk=self.id) cache_key = # Voodoo magic to get that variable old_key = cache_key.format(settings.SITE_PREFIX, old_self.slug) # Generate the key currently cached cache.delete(old_key) # Hit it with both barrels of rock salt # Turns out this doesn't already exist, let's make that first request even faster by making this cache right now except DoesNotExist: # I haven't gotten to this yet. super(Person, self).save() I'm thinking about making a view class for this sorta stuff, and having functions in it like remove_cache or generate_cache since I do this sorta stuff a lot. Would that be a better idea? If so, how would I call the views in the URLconf if they're in a class?

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  • BackgroundWorker From ASP.Net Application

    - by Kevin
    We have an ASP.Net application that provides administrators to work with and perform operations on large sets of records. For example, we have a "Polish Data" task that an administrator can perform to clean up data for a record (e.g. reformat phone numbers, social security numbers, etc.) When performed on a small number of records, the task completes relatively quickly. However, when a user performs the task on a larger set of records, the task may take several minutes or longer to complete. So, we want to implement these kinds of tasks using some kind of asynchronous pattern. For example, we want to be able to launch the task, and then use AJAX polling to provide a progress bar and status information. I have been looking into using the BackgroundWorker class, but I have read some things online that make me pause. I would love to get some additional advice on this. For example, I understand that the BackgroundWorker will actually use the thread pool from the current application. In my case, the application is an ASP.Net web site. I have read that this can be a problem because when the application recycles, the background workers will be terminated. Some of the jobs I mentioned above may take 3 minutes, but others may take a few hours. Also, we may have several hundred administrators all performing similar operations during the day. Will the ASP.Net application thread pool be able to handle all of these background jobs efficiently while still performing it's normal request processing? So, I am trying to determine if using the BackgroundWorker class and approach is right for our needs. Should I be looking at an alternative approach? Thanks and sorry for such a long post! Kevin

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  • Game login authentication and security.

    - by Charles
    First off I will say I am completely new to security in coding. I am currently helping a friend develop a small game (in Python) which will have a login server. I don't have much knowledge regarding security, but I know many games do have issues with this. Everything from 3rd party applications (bots) to WPE packet manipulation. Considering how small this game will be and the limited user base, I doubt we will have serious issues, but would like to try our best to limit problems. I am not sure where to start or what methods I should use, or what's worth it. For example, sending data to the server such as login name and password. I was told his information should be encrypted when sending, so in-case someone was viewing it (with whatever means), that they couldn't get into the account. However, if someone is able to capture the encrypted string, wouldn't this string always work since it's decrypted server side? In other words, someone could just capture the packet, reuse it, and still gain access to the account? The main goal I am really looking for is to make sure the players are logging into the game with the client we provide, and to make sure it's 'secure' (broad, I know). I have looked around at different methods such as Public and Private Key encryption, which I am sure any hex editor could eventually find. There are many other methods that seem way over my head at the moment and leave the impression of overkill. I realize nothing is 100% secure. I am just looking for any input or reading material (links) to accomplish the main goal stated above. Would appreciate any help, thanks.

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  • PostgreSQL: Rolling back a transaction within a plpgsql function?

    - by jamieb
    Coming from the MS SQL world, I tend to make heavy use of stored procedures. I'm currently writing an application uses a lot of PostgreSQL plpgsql functions. What I'd like to do is rollback all INSERTS/UPDATES contained within a particular function if I get an exception at any point within it. I was originally under the impression that each function is wrapped in it's own transaction and that an exception would automatically rollback everything. However, that doesn't seem to be the case. I'm wondering if I ought to be using savepoints in combination with exception handling instead? But I don't really understand the difference between a transaction and a savepoint to know if this is the best approach. Any advice please? CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION do_something( _an_input_var int ) RETURNS bool AS $$ DECLARE _a_variable int; BEGIN INSERT INTO tableA (col1, col2, col3) VALUES (0, 1, 2); INSERT INTO tableB (col1, col2, col3); VALUES (0, 1, 'whoops! not an integer'); -- The exception will cause the function to bomb, but the values -- inserted into "tableA" are not rolled back. RETURN True; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql;

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  • Jquery datatable Hidden column showing after calling another script .how can i hide the column specified permanently?

    - by Sreenath Plakkat
    My table is <table id="EmployeesTable" style="width: 100%;" class="grid-table06 border-one"> <thead> <tr> <th width="80%" align="left" valign="middle">Name</th> <th width="20%" align="left" valign="middle">Department</th> <th>Id</th> </tr> </thead> </table> My script as follows $(function () { $(".switchDate").click(function () { var id = $(this).attr("rel"); fetchEmployeedetails(id); }); fetchEmployeedetails(@model.Id); //on load function fetchEmployeedetails(id) { $("#EmployeesTable").dataTable({ "bProcessing": true, "bServerSide": true, "sAjaxSource": "/Employees/FetchDetails?Deptid=" + id + "&thresholdLow=4&threshold=100", "sPaginationType": "full_numbers", "bDestroy": true, "aaSorting": [[1, 'desc']], "asStripClasses": ['color01', 'color03'], "aoColumnDefs": [{ "aTargets": [2], "bVisible": false }, { "aTargets": [1], "fnRender": function (oObj) { return "<a href='#showemployees' rel='" + oObj.aData[2] + "'></a>"; } }] }); } }); On load it works fine not showing the hidden "Id" column but in case when I choose the id by switchDate on click function it causes the hidden column to be visible for second. How can I hide the column permanently?

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  • Grails bean-fields plugin

    - by Don
    Hi, I'm having problems using the Grails bean-fields plugin with a class this is annotated Validateable, but is not a domain/command class. The root cause of the problem appears to be in this method of BeanTagLib.groovy private def getBeanConstraints(bean) { if (bean?.metaClass?.hasProperty(bean, 'constraints')) { def cons = bean.constraints if (cons != null) { if (log.debugEnabled) { log.debug "Bean is of type ${bean.class} - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } // Safety check for the case where bean is no a proper domain/command object // This avoids confusing errors where constraints comes back as a Closure if (!(cons instanceof Map)) { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } } } else { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} has no constraints" } } return cons } else return null } I tested out this method above in the grails console and when I pass an instance of MyBean into this method, it logs: Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}] Because the constraints are returned as an instance of Closure instead of a Map. If I could figue out how to get a Map reference to the constraints of a @Validateable class (that is not a domain/command class), I guess I could resolve the problem. Thanks, Don

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  • ai: Determining what tests to run to get most useful data

    - by Sai Emrys
    This is for http://cssfingerprint.com I have a system (see about page on site for details) where: I need to output a ranked list, with confidences, of categories that match a particular feature vector the binary feature vectors are a list of site IDs & whether this session detected a hit feature vectors are, for a given categorization, somewhat noisy (sites will decay out of history, and people will visit sites they don't normally visit) categories are a large, non-closed set (user IDs) my total feature space is approximately 50 million items (URLs) for any given test, I can only query approx. 0.2% of that space I can only make the decision of what to query, based on results so far, ~10-30 times, and must do so in <~100ms (though I can take much longer to do post-processing, relevant aggregation, etc) getting the AI's probability ranking of categories based on results so far is mildly expensive; ideally the decision will depend mostly on a few cheap sql queries I have training data that can say authoritatively that any two feature vectors are the same category but not that they are different (people sometimes forget their codes and use new ones, thereby making a new user id) I need an algorithm to determine what features (sites) are most likely to have a high ROI to query (i.e. to better discriminate between plausible-so-far categories [users], and to increase certainty that it's any given one). This needs to take into balance exploitation (test based on prior test data) and exploration (test stuff that's not been tested enough to find out how it performs). There's another question that deals with a priori ranking; this one is specifically about a posteriori ranking based on results gathered so far. Right now, I have little enough data that I can just always test everything that anyone else has ever gotten a hit for, but eventually that won't be the case, at which point this problem will need to be solved. I imagine that this is a fairly standard problem in AI - having a cheap heuristic for what expensive queries to make - but it wasn't covered in my AI class, so I don't actually know whether there's a standard answer. So, relevant reading that's not too math-heavy would be helpful, as well as suggestions for particular algorithms. What's a good way to approach this problem?

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  • TextBox should display text in hexadecimal in a specific format

    - by Owais Wani
    I have a textbox in my xaml file which is editable. Now according to my project requirements content in textbox should only be 0-9 and a-f (hexadecimal values) and textbox should take the input based on hexadecimal values. Demonstratation: 12 ab 32 a5 64 Now if my cursor is at the end and i go on pressing backspace, it shud remove the values as it happens in a general text box. Now If my cursor is at the beginning of a5, and i press "delete key", the value should become like: 12 ab 32 56 4 If my cursor is at the end of a5 and i press the 'delete key" nothing should happen. I had done this successful in my C++ application as follows: void CMSP430CommPanel::textEditorTextChanged (TextEditor& editor) { if(&editor == m_texti2cWrite) { int count = 0; int location; String text1 = m_texti2cWrite->getText(); String text = m_texti2cWrite->getText().removeCharacters(" "); String hexString = String::empty; int countCaret = m_texti2cWrite->getCaretPosition(); for(int i=0; i < text.length(); i++) { hexString = hexString + String (&text[i], 1); if((i+1) % 2 == 0) { if(i != text.length()-1) { hexString = hexString + T(" "); count ++; } } count ++; } m_texti2cWrite->setText(hexString,false); if(text1.length() == m_texti2cWrite->getCaretPosition()) { m_texti2cWrite->setCaretPosition(count); } else { m_texti2cWrite->setCaretPosition(countCaret); } } } where m_texti2cWrite is the name given to textbox. How can i implement the same case in my wpf application which is MVVM based. I have a textbox which shud take inputs as I said above. please help!!!

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  • Ways std::stringstream can set fail/bad bit?

    - by Evan Teran
    A common piece of code I use for simple string splitting looks like this: inline std::vector<std::string> split(const std::string &s, char delim) { std::vector<std::string> elems; std::stringstream ss(s); std::string item; while(std::getline(ss, item, delim)) { elems.push_back(item); } return elems; } Someone mentioned that this will silently "swallow" errors occurring in std::getline. And of course I agree that's the case. But it occurred to me, what could possibly go wrong here in practice that I would need to worry about. basically it all boils down to this: inline std::vector<std::string> split(const std::string &s, char delim) { std::vector<std::string> elems; std::stringstream ss(s); std::string item; while(std::getline(ss, item, delim)) { elems.push_back(item); } if(ss.fail()) { // *** How did we get here!? *** } return elems; } A stringstream is backed by a string, so we don't have to worry about any of the issues associated with reading from a file. There is no type conversion going on here since getline simply reads until it sees a newline or EOF. So we can't get any of the errors that something like boost::lexical_cast has to worry about. I simply can't think of something besides failing to allocate enough memory that could go wrong, but that'll just throw a std::bad_alloc well before the std::getline even takes place. What am I missing?

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  • JVM segmentation faults due to "Invalid memory access of location"

    - by Dan
    I have a small project written in Scala 2.9.2 with unit tests written using ScalaTest. I use SBT for compiling and running my tests. Running sbt test on my project makes the JVM segfault regularly, but just compiling and running my project from SBT works fine. Here is the exact error message: Invalid memory access of location 0x8 rip=0x10959f3c9 [1] 11925 segmentation fault sbt I cannot locate a core dump anywhere, but would be happy to provide it if it can be obtained. Running java -version results in this: java version "1.6.0_37" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_37-b06-434-11M3909) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 20.12-b01-434, mixed mode) But I've also got Java 7 installed (though I was never able to actually run a Java program with it, afaik). Another issue that may be related: some of my test cases contain titles including parentheses like ( and ). SBT or ScalaTest (not sure) will consequently insert square parens in the middle of the output. For example, a test case with the name (..)..(..) might suddenly look like (..[)..](..). Any help resolving these issues is much appreciated :-) EDIT: I installed the Java 7 JDK, so now java -version shows the right thing: java version "1.7.0_07" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.7.0_07-b10) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 23.3-b01, mixed mode) This also means that I now get a more detailed segfault error and a core dump: # # A fatal error has been detected by the Java Runtime Environment: # # SIGSEGV (0xb) at pc=0x000000010a71a3e3, pid=16830, tid=19459 # # JRE version: 7.0_07-b10 # Java VM: Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (23.3-b01 mixed mode bsd-amd64 compressed oops) # Problematic frame: # V [libjvm.dylib+0x3cd3e3] And the dump.

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  • Using Word COM objects in .NET, InlineShapes not copied from template to document

    - by Keith
    Using .NET and the Word Interop I am programmatically creating a new Word doc from a template (.dot) file. There are a few ways to do this but I've chosen to use the AttachedTemplate property, as such: Dim oWord As New Word.Application() oWord.Visible = False Dim oDocuments As Word.Documents = oWord.Documents Dim oDoc As Word.Document = oDocuments.Add() oDoc.AttachedTemplate = sTemplatePath oDoc.UpdateStyles() (I'm choosing the AttachedTemplate means of doing this over the Documents.Add() method because of a memory leak issue I discovered when using Documents.Add() to open from templates.) This works fine EXCEPT when there is an image (represented as an InlineShape) in the template footer. In that case the image does not appear in the resulting document. Specifically the image should appear in the oDoc.Sections.Item(1).Footers.Item(WdHeaderFooterIndex.wdHeaderFooterPrimary).Range.InlineShapes collection but it does not. This is not a problem when using Documents.Add(), however as I said that method is not an option for me. Is there an extra step I have to take to get the images from the template? I already discovered that when using AttachedTemplate I have to explicitly call UpdateStyles() (as you can see in my code snippet) to apply the template styles to the document, whereas that is done automatically when using Documents.Add(). Or maybe there's some crazy workaround? Your help is much appreciated! :)

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  • python-xmpp and looping through list of recipients to receive and IM message

    - by David
    I can't figure out the problem and want some input as to whether my Python code is incorrect, or if this is an issue or design limitation of Python XMPP library. I'm new to Python by the way. Here's snippets of code in question below. What I'd like to do is read in a text file of IM recipients, one recipient per line, in XMPP/Jabber ID format. This is read into a Python list variable. I then instantiate an XMPP client session and loop through the list of recipients and send a message to each recipient. Then sleep some time and repeat test. This is for load testing the IM client of recipients as well as IM server. There is code to alternately handle case of taking only one recipient from command line input instead of from file. What ends up happening is that Python does iterate/loop through the list but only last recipient in list receives message. Switch order of recipients to verify. Kind of looks like Python XMPP library is not sending it out right, or I'm missing a step with the library calls, because the debug print statements during runtime indicate the looping works correctly. recipient = "" delay = 60 useFile = False recList = [] ... elif (sys.argv[i] == '-t'): recipient = sys.argv[i+1] useFile = False elif (sys.argv[i] == '-tf'): fil = open(sys.argv[i+1], 'r') recList = fil.readlines() fil.close() useFile = True ... # disable debug msgs cnx = xmpp.Client(svr,debug=[]) cnx.connect(server=(svr,5223)) cnx.auth(user,pwd,'imbot') cnx.sendInitPresence() while (True): if useFile: for listUser in recList: cnx.send(xmpp.Message(listUser,msg+str(msgCounter))) print "sending to "+listUser+" msg = "+msg+str(msgCounter) else: cnx.send(xmpp.Message(recipient,msg+str(msgCounter))) msgCounter += 1 time.sleep(delay)

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  • Forcing CLLocationManager updates - does it help or hurt?

    - by Steve N
    I've been trying to find any way to optimize the performance of my location-based iPhone application and have seen some people mention that you can force location updates by starting and stopping your CLLocationManager. I need the best accuracy I can get, and the user in my case would probably like to see updates every few seconds (say, 10 seconds) as they walk around. I've set the filters accordingly, but I notice that sometimes I don't get any updates on the device for quite some time. I'm testing the following approach, which forces an update when a fixed time interval passes (I'm using 20 seconds). My gut tells me this really won't help me provide more accurate updates to the user, and that just leaving CLLocationManager running all the time is probably the best approach. - (void)forceLocationUpdate { [[LocationManager locationManager] stopUpdates]; [[LocationManager locationManager] startUpdates]; [self performSelector:@selector(forceLocationUpdate) withObject:nil afterDelay:20.0]; } My question is- does forcing updates from CLLocationManager actually improve core location performance? Does it hurt performance? If I'm outside in an open field with good GPS reception, will this help then? Does anyone have experience trying this? Thanks in advance, Steve

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  • merge() multiple data frames (do.call ?)

    - by Vincent
    Hi everyone, here's my very simple question: merge() only takes two data frames as input. I need to merge a series of data frames from a list, using the same keys for every merge operation. Given a list named "test", I want to do something like: do.call("merge", test). I could write some kind of loop, but I'm wondering if there's a standard or built-in way to do this more efficiently. Any advice is appreciated. Thanks! Here's a subset of the dataset in dput format (note that merging on country is trivial in this case, but that there are more countries in the original data): test <- list(structure(list(country = c("United States", "United States", "United States", "United States", "United States"), NY.GNS.ICTR.GN.ZS = c(13.5054687, 14.7608697, 14.1115876, 13.3389063, 12.9048351), year = c(2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003)), .Names = c("country", "NY.GNS.ICTR.GN.ZS", "year"), row.names = c(NA, 5L), class = "data.frame"), structure(list( country = c("United States", "United States", "United States", "United States", "United States"), NE.TRD.GNFS.ZS = c(29.3459277, 28.352838, 26.9861939, 25.6231246, 23.6615328), year = c(2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003)), .Names = c("country", "NE.TRD.GNFS.ZS", "year"), row.names = c(NA, 5L), class = "data.frame"), structure(list( country = c("United States", "United States", "United States", "United States", "United States"), NY.GDP.MKTP.CD = c(1.37416e+13, 1.31165e+13, 1.23641e+13, 1.16309e+13, 1.0908e+13), year = c(2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003)), .Names = c("country", "NY.GDP.MKTP.CD", "year"), row.names = c(NA, 5L), class = "data.frame"))

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  • Magento - Authorize.net - Get Payment Update for expired transactions

    - by pspahn
    Magento 1.6.1 I have set up Authorize.net (AIM) for the client's store. Previously they were using saved CC method and entering information manually in Authorize.net's merchant terminal. Most of it is working as expected, however for transactions that are flagged as 'Suspected Fraud' by Authorize.net, if the client does not update the transaction manually before the authorization expires, using 'Get Payment Update' in Magento fails because the transaction is expired (I believe it's five days for an authorize only transaction). For the client, it seems the only way to update this order in Magento is to simply delete the order, as it doesn't appear the Paygate model knows about expired transactions. Performing 'Get Payment Update' simply returns 'There is no update for this payment'. I have already modified the file: /app/code/core/Mage/Paygate/Model/Authorize.net to have the correct API URL as described in issue #27117 ( http://www.magentocommerce.com/bug-tracking/issue?issue=12991 - must be logged in to view ). This resolved the button not working for all other orders; however this does not fix the issue I am describing. Is anyone familiar with Authorize.net's AIM API so that we can update these orders in Magento to something that makes sense (canceled, etc.) without having to delete the order? I am thinking it should be a case of adding a new order status to Magento, checking the update for an 'Expired' status, and setting the order to the newly created order status. -- edit -- I just ran a diff for the file mentioned above and noticed that Magento 1.7.0.2 includes the _isTransactionExpired() method which seems like it would be the fix. Can it be as simple as updating this model with the newer version?

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  • Objective-C Simple Inheritance and OO Principles

    - by bleeckerj
    I have a subclass SubClass that inherits from baseclass BaseClass. BaseClass has an initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.goodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } SubClass does its initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.extraGoodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } Now, I've *never taken a proper Objective-C course, but I'm a programmer more from the Electrical Engineering side, so I make do. I've developed server-side applications mostly in Java though, so I may be seeing the OO world through Java principles. When SubClass is initialized, it calls the BaseClass init and my expectation would be — because inheritance to me implies that characteristics of a BaseClass pass through to SubClass — that the commonInit method in BaseClass would be called during BaseClass init. It is not. I can *sorta understand maybe-possibly-stretch-my-imagination why it wouldn't be. But, then — why wouldn't it be based on the principles of OOP? What does "self" represent if not the instance of the class of the running code? Okay, so — I'm not going to argue that what a well-developed edition of Objective-C is doing is wrong. So, then — what is the pattern I should be using in this case? I want SubClass to have two main bits — the goodStuff that BaseClass has as well as the extraGoodStuff that it deserves as well. Clearly, I've been using the wrong pattern in this type of situation. Am I meant to expose commonInit (which makes me wonder about encapsulation principles — why expose something that, in the Java world at least, would be considered "protected" and something that should only ever be called once for each instance)? I've run into a similar problem in the recent past and tried to muddle through it, but now — I'm really wondering if I've got my principles and concepts all straight in my head. Little help, please.

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  • Can someone describe the nested set model from a C#/LINQ perspective?

    - by Chad
    I know the nested set model doesn't pertain to the C# language or LINQ directly... it's what I'm using to develop my web app. For hierarchical data (categories with sub-categories in my case), I'm currently using something similar to the Adjacency List model. At the moment, I've only got 2 levels of categories, but I'd like to take it further and allow for n levels of categories using the nested set model. I'm not quite clear on how to use it in a C# context. Here's the article I'm reading on the nested set model. Though this article cleared up my confusion some, I still have a big ?? in my head: - Is inserting, updating or deleting categories tedious? It looks like the left and right numbers would require re-numbering... what would the LINQ queries look like for the following scenarios? Delete a child node (re-number all node's left/right values) Delete a parent node (what do you do with the orphans?) Move a child node to a different parent node (renumber again) If my understanding is correct, at all times the child node's left/right values will always be between the parent node's left/right values, am I correct? Seems easy enough, if only the categories were static... most likely I need to spend more time to get my head around the concept. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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  • Exporting/Importing events to Outlook 2007 calendar - problem

    - by iandisme
    I work on a web app that involves scheduling. A user can view his schedule, and then download a meeting request file for a particular event. In Outlook 2003, simply opening this event would cause a meeting request to pop up and the user could accept, which would either add or update the event in their calendar. However, in Outlook 2007, the meeting request Accept function is disabled, and the reason given is that the user is the organizer and can't accept his own event request. The ICS file clearly shows that this is not the case. Has anyone experienced this same problem? Does anyone know how to work around it? (Using Outlook's import function is scarcely an option because it causes duplicate events to be created; the import function doesn't seem to care that the events have the same UID) Here is the ICS file: BEGIN:VCALENDAR PRODID:#{my app} VERSION:2.0 CALSCALE:GREGORIAN METHOD:REQUEST BEGIN:VEVENT DTSTAMP:20100324T150236Z UID:eeb639a1-f8e5-4eab-ab3c-232ad91364c6 SEQUENCE:2 ORGANIZER:#{myApp}.#{myDomain}.com DESCRIPTION: DTSTART;TZID=Europe/London:20110620T120010 DTEND;TZID=Europe/London:20110620T133010 SUMMARY:BREAK:Breakfast LOCATION:Room 101 END:VEVENT BEGIN:VTIMEZONE //Timezone info edited for brevity END:VTIMEZONE END:VCALENDAR

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  • SharePoint 2007 and SiteMinder

    - by pborovik
    Here is a question regarding some details how SiteMinder secures access to the SharePoint 2007. I've read a bunch of materials regarding this and have some picture for SharePoint 2010 FBA claims-based + SiteMinder security (can be wrong here, of course): SiteMinder is registered as a trusted identity provider for the SharePoint; It means (to my mind) that SharePoint has no need to go into all those user directories like AD, RDBMS or whatever to create a record for user being granted access to SharePoint - instead it consumes a claims-based id supplied by SiteMinder SiteMinder checks all requests to SharePoint resources and starts login sequence via SiteMinder if does not find required headers in the request (SMSESSION, etc.) SiteMinder creates a GenericIdentity with the user login name if headers are OK, so SharePoint recognizes the user as authenticated But in the case of SharePoint 2007 with FBA + SiteMinder, I cannot find an answer for questions like: Does SharePoint need to go to all those user directories like AD to know something about users (as SiteMinder is not in charge of providing user info like claims-based ids)? So, SharePoint admin should configure SharePoint FBA to talk to these sources? Let's say I'm talking to a Web Service of SharePoint protected by SiteMinder. Shall I make a Authentication.asmx-Login call to create a authentication ticket or this schema is somehow changed by the SiteMinder? If such call is needed, do I also need a SiteMinder authentication sequence? What prevents me from rewriting request headers (say, manually in Fiddler) before posting request to the SharePoint protected by SiteMinder to override its defence? Pity, but I do not have access to deployed SiteMinder + SharePoint, so need to investigate some question blindly. Thanks.

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  • ruby gem not found although it is installed

    - by Eimantas
    I found some similar problems here on SO, but none seem to match my case (sorry if I overlooked). Here's my problem: I installed oauth-plugin gem to ruby gems dir, but trying to use it in rails app tells me that it's not being found. Here's the output of relevant commands: Instalation % s gem install oauth-plugin Successfully installed oauth-plugin-0.3.14 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... Installing RDoc documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... gem which oauth-plugin output: % gem which oauth-plugin /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/oauth-plugin-0.3.14/lib/oauth-plugin.rb gem env output: % gem env RubyGems Environment: - RUBYGEMS VERSION: 1.3.6 - RUBY VERSION: 1.8.7 (2009-12-24 patchlevel 248) [i686-darwin10.2.0] - INSTALLATION DIRECTORY: /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - RUBY EXECUTABLE: /usr/bin/ruby - EXECUTABLE DIRECTORY: /usr/bin - RUBYGEMS PLATFORMS: - ruby - x86-darwin-10 - GEM PATHS: - /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - /Users/eimantas/.gem/ruby/1.8 - GEM CONFIGURATION: - :update_sources => true - :verbose => true - :benchmark => false - :backtrace => true - :bulk_threshold => 1000 - :gem => ["--no-ri", "--no-rdoc"] - :sources => ["http://gems.ruby.lt/", "http://rubygems.org/"] - REMOTE SOURCES: - http://gems.ruby.lt/ - http://rubygems.org/ Doing ls -l /usr/lib/ruby shows this: % ls -l /usr/lib/ruby lrwxr-xr-x 1 root wheel 76 Aug 14 2009 /usr/lib/ruby -> ../../System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/Current/usr/lib/ruby And the gem in question is in intended location. This is not a single gem that is not being found by rubygems (although it's located where it should be). Any guidance towards the solution is much appreciated.

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