Search Results

Search found 22900 results on 916 pages for 'pascal case'.

Page 699/916 | < Previous Page | 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706  | Next Page >

  • Does GC guarantee that cleared References are enqueued to ReferenceQueue in topological order?

    - by Dimitris Andreou
    Say there are two objects, A and B, and there is a pointer A.x --> B, and we create, say, WeakReferences to both A and B, with an associated ReferenceQueue. Assume that both A and B become unreachable. Intuitively B cannot be considered unreachable before A is. In such a case, do we somehow get a guarantee that the respective references will be enqueued in the intuitive (topological when there are no cycles) order in the ReferenceQueue? I.e. ref(A) before ref(B). I don't know - what if the GC marked a bunch of objects as unreachable, and then enqueued them in no particular order? I was reviewing Finalizer.java of guava, seeing this snippet: private void cleanUp(Reference<?> reference) throws ShutDown { ... if (reference == frqReference) { /* * The client no longer has a reference to the * FinalizableReferenceQueue. We can stop. */ throw new ShutDown(); } frqReference is a PhantomReference to the used ReferenceQueue, so if this is GC'ed, no Finalizable{Weak, Soft, Phantom}References can be alive, since they reference the queue. So they have to be GC'ed before the queue itself can be GC'ed - but still, do we get the guarantee that these references will be enqueued to the ReferenceQueue at the order they get "garbage collected" (as if they get GC'ed one by one)? The code implies that there is some kind of guarantee, otherwise unprocessed references could theoretically remain in the queue. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Wizard form in Struts

    - by Kuntal Basu
    I am creating a wizard in Struts. It cotains 4 steps. For Each step I have separate ActionClass say:- Step1Action.java Step2Action.java Step3Action.java Step4Action.java and in each class there are 2 methods input() and process(). input() method is for showing the page in input mode process() method is will be use for processing the submitted data (if validation is ok) I am carrying all data upto the last step in a session. And saving all of them in database in the last step Similaly 4 action tags in struts.xml like :- <action name="step1" class="com.mycomp.myapp.action.Step1Action1" method="input"> <result name="success" type="redirectAction">step2</result> <result name="input">/view/step1.jsp</result> </action> <action name="step2" class="com.mycomp.myapp.action.Step1Action2" method="input"> <result name="success" type="redirectAction">step3</result> <result name="input">/view/step2.jsp</result> </action> But I think I am going wrong. Please Tell me How will I handle This case?

    Read the article

  • ruby gem not found although it is installed

    - by Eimantas
    I found some similar problems here on SO, but none seem to match my case (sorry if I overlooked). Here's my problem: I installed oauth-plugin gem to ruby gems dir, but trying to use it in rails app tells me that it's not being found. Here's the output of relevant commands: Instalation % s gem install oauth-plugin Successfully installed oauth-plugin-0.3.14 1 gem installed Installing ri documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... Installing RDoc documentation for oauth-plugin-0.3.14... gem which oauth-plugin output: % gem which oauth-plugin /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/oauth-plugin-0.3.14/lib/oauth-plugin.rb gem env output: % gem env RubyGems Environment: - RUBYGEMS VERSION: 1.3.6 - RUBY VERSION: 1.8.7 (2009-12-24 patchlevel 248) [i686-darwin10.2.0] - INSTALLATION DIRECTORY: /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - RUBY EXECUTABLE: /usr/bin/ruby - EXECUTABLE DIRECTORY: /usr/bin - RUBYGEMS PLATFORMS: - ruby - x86-darwin-10 - GEM PATHS: - /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8 - /Users/eimantas/.gem/ruby/1.8 - GEM CONFIGURATION: - :update_sources => true - :verbose => true - :benchmark => false - :backtrace => true - :bulk_threshold => 1000 - :gem => ["--no-ri", "--no-rdoc"] - :sources => ["http://gems.ruby.lt/", "http://rubygems.org/"] - REMOTE SOURCES: - http://gems.ruby.lt/ - http://rubygems.org/ Doing ls -l /usr/lib/ruby shows this: % ls -l /usr/lib/ruby lrwxr-xr-x 1 root wheel 76 Aug 14 2009 /usr/lib/ruby -> ../../System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/Current/usr/lib/ruby And the gem in question is in intended location. This is not a single gem that is not being found by rubygems (although it's located where it should be). Any guidance towards the solution is much appreciated.

    Read the article

  • merge() multiple data frames (do.call ?)

    - by Vincent
    Hi everyone, here's my very simple question: merge() only takes two data frames as input. I need to merge a series of data frames from a list, using the same keys for every merge operation. Given a list named "test", I want to do something like: do.call("merge", test). I could write some kind of loop, but I'm wondering if there's a standard or built-in way to do this more efficiently. Any advice is appreciated. Thanks! Here's a subset of the dataset in dput format (note that merging on country is trivial in this case, but that there are more countries in the original data): test <- list(structure(list(country = c("United States", "United States", "United States", "United States", "United States"), NY.GNS.ICTR.GN.ZS = c(13.5054687, 14.7608697, 14.1115876, 13.3389063, 12.9048351), year = c(2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003)), .Names = c("country", "NY.GNS.ICTR.GN.ZS", "year"), row.names = c(NA, 5L), class = "data.frame"), structure(list( country = c("United States", "United States", "United States", "United States", "United States"), NE.TRD.GNFS.ZS = c(29.3459277, 28.352838, 26.9861939, 25.6231246, 23.6615328), year = c(2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003)), .Names = c("country", "NE.TRD.GNFS.ZS", "year"), row.names = c(NA, 5L), class = "data.frame"), structure(list( country = c("United States", "United States", "United States", "United States", "United States"), NY.GDP.MKTP.CD = c(1.37416e+13, 1.31165e+13, 1.23641e+13, 1.16309e+13, 1.0908e+13), year = c(2007, 2006, 2005, 2004, 2003)), .Names = c("country", "NY.GDP.MKTP.CD", "year"), row.names = c(NA, 5L), class = "data.frame"))

    Read the article

  • Core Data + Core Animation/CALayer together??

    - by ivanTheTerrible
    I am making an Cocoa app with custom interfaces. So far I have implemented one version of the app using CALayer doing the rendering, which has been great given the hierarchical structure of CALayers, and its [hitTest:] function for handling mouse events. In this early version, the model of the app are my custom classes. However, as the program grows I feel the urge of using Core Data for the model, not just for the ease of binding/undo management, but also want to try out the new technology. My method so far: In Core Data: creating a Block entity, with attributes xPos, yPos, width, height...etc. Then, creating a BlockView : CALayer class for drawing, which uses methods such as self.position.x = [self valueForKey:@"xPos"] to fetch the values from the model. In this case, every BlockView object has to also keep a local copy of xPos, which is NOT good. Do any of you guys have better suggestions? Edit: This app is a information visualization tool. So the positions, dimensions of the blocks are important, and should be persisted for later analysis.

    Read the article

  • How to mmap the stack for the clone() system call on linux?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    The clone() system call on Linux takes a parameter pointing to the stack for the new created thread to use. The obvious way to do this is to simply malloc some space and pass that, but then you have to be sure you've malloc'd as much stack space as that thread will ever use (hard to predict). I remembered that when using pthreads I didn't have to do this, so I was curious what it did instead. I came across this site which explains, "The best solution, used by the Linux pthreads implementation, is to use mmap to allocate memory, with flags specifying a region of memory which is allocated as it is used. This way, memory is allocated for the stack as it is needed, and a segmentation violation will occur if the system is unable to allocate additional memory." The only context I've ever heard mmap used in is for mapping files into memory, and indeed reading the mmap man page it takes a file descriptor. How can this be used for allocating a stack of dynamic length to give to clone()? Is that site just crazy? ;) In either case, doesn't the kernel need to know how to find a free bunch of memory for a new stack anyway, since that's something it has to do all the time as the user launches new processes? Why does a stack pointer even need to be specified in the first place if the kernel can already figure this out?

    Read the article

  • Runtime binding of XML Schema to Java code

    - by Yaneeve
    Hi all, The situation is thus: I have an application which provides editing capabilities to XML an file. This file follows a certain Schema. The Schema belongs to a subset of Schemas which actually follow a line of evolution from one to another - so they are not so different from one another. The main difference between the schemas is an enumeration of string labels. I now have need to save "meta data" in XML format (This is a second type of XML file). This "meta data" contains a list of labels from the set enumerated in the schema. The application can accept a new schema at runtime and adjust itself. Therefore I have an XML file that must be validated by two schemas one static containing the basic structure of the "meta data" stored in the XML and one which contains the 'proper' label enumeration. The latter schema is determined at runtime. I have glanced over JAXB, XMLBeans and JiBX. I can't figure out what technology to choose that would allow for a runtime bind of code and schema in the way that would most benefit my use-case. Any suggestions? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Fluent NHibernate Automap does not take into account IList<T> collections as indexed

    - by Francisco Lozano
    I am using automap to map a domain model (simplified version): public class AppUser : Entity { [Required] public virtual string NickName { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.Password)] public virtual string PassKey { get; set; } [Required] [DataType(DataType.EmailAddress)] public virtual string EmailAddress { get; set; } public virtual IList<PreferencesDescription> PreferencesDescriptions { get; set; } } public class PreferencesDescription : Entity { public virtual AppUser AppUser { get; set; } public virtual string Content{ get; set; } } The PreferencesDescriptions collection is mapped as an IList, so is an indexed collection (when I require standard unindexed collections I use ICollection). The fact is that fluent nhibernate's automap facilities map my domain model as an unindexed collection (so there's no "position" property in the DDL generated by SchemaExport). ¿How can I make it without having to override this very case - I mean, how can I make Fluent nhibernate's automap make always indexed collections for IList but not for ICollection

    Read the article

  • Why not systematically attach event in WPF instead of using delegate ?

    - by user310291
    For a button to handle event, we can add a delegate to the click property of the button: this.button1.Click += new System.EventHandler(this.button1_Click); But in WPF contrary to Winform, you can also attach a handler http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc785480.aspx So why not do so for the button ? Is performance better in first case maybe ? Update: I mean this Attached Events In order to enable elements to handle events that are declared in a different element, WPF supports something called attached events. Attached events are routed events that support a hookup in XAML on elements other than the type on which the event is declared. For example, if you want the Grid element to listen for a Button.Click event to bubble past, you would simply hook it up like the following: <Grid Button.Click="myButton_Click"> <Button Name="myButton" >Click Me</Button> </Grid> The resulting code in the compile-time-generated partial class now looks like this: #line 5 "..\..\Window1.xaml" ((System.Windows.Controls.Grid)(target)).AddHandler( System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.ButtonBase.ClickEvent, new System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler(this.myButton_Click));

    Read the article

  • wxWidgets EVT_KILL_FOCUS

    - by Wallter
    Q1:I am using wxWidgets (C++) and have come accost a problem that i can not locate any help. I have created several wxTextCtrl boxes and would like the program to update the simple calculations in them when the user 'kills the focus.' I could not find any documentation on this subject on the wxWidgets webpage and Googling it only brought up wxPython. The two events i have found are: EVT_COMMAND_KILL_FOCUS - EVT_KILL_FOCUS for neither of which I could find any snippet for. Could anyone give me a short example or lead me to a page that would be helpful? Q2:Would i have to create an event to handle the focus being killed for each of my 8 wxTextCtrl boxes? In the case that i have to create a different event: How would i get each event to differentiate from each other? Will i have to create new wxID's for each of the wxTextCtrl boxes? class BasicPanel : public wxPanel { ... wxTextCtrl* one; wxTextCtrl* two; wxTextCtrl* three; wxTextCtrl* four; ... }

    Read the article

  • How can one setup a version control system on a local network, without a server?

    - by Andrew
    Edit: Ok so I learned that I guess I need an distributed source control, however are there any UI based ones, and do they allow you to merge with other users on the network? This is kind of a two part question, so here it goes. I want to start developing a web application at home (with multiple developers). However, I don't have a dedicated server nor want to pay for on. So first, I don't know which version control system to use for this case, as at work we mostly have TFS setup, so I am not to familiar with whats out there. What are the best free CVS/SVN tools out there? Second, is it possible to somehow setup the CVS/SVN where there is no dedicated server and both clients store up to one week of the source code from the last check-in? Also, it would be helpful if it could integrate with visual studio, again this isn't that important at all. Problem: There are Five users, one is a Server. Server Connected: All Ok Server Disconnected: No one can share. What I am looking for: No Server: Users still have versioning based on version id of last check-in. Users must check all version on network to make sure they aren't outdated based on their last version id. If not check-in, otherwise merge/get latest. If they are update checkin, and set current version id +1.

    Read the article

  • How to figure out what error my Java Eclipse project has?

    - by Greg Mattes
    I've created a Java project from existing source with an Ant build script in Eclipse. I cannot run my project because Eclipse tells me that there is at least one error in it. Now, I know that the project runs fine on the command line, so I suspect an Eclipse configuration error. As far as I can tell, the only feedback that I have from Eclipse is a little red X on my project in the Package Explorer window and dialog window when I try to run the project says there are errors in the project This is all wonderful, but what is the error? Is there a "show me the next error" button somewhere? In the past, on other Eclipse projects, I've notice other little red X's on folders containing source files with errors, the little red X's appear on the source files as well. I scanned (manually) through all of the source files and I haven't found any other red X's (again, where is the "next error" button?). If I select the "Proceed" button I am greeted with a java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError for my main class, which makes me suspect a classpath issue. I've checked the classpath, and I'm fairly certain that it's correct. Is there a way to see the exact jvm command line that Eclipse is invoking? I realize that it might be invoking the JVM programmatically, and not on a "real" command line. In any case, is there a way, other than the run configuration dialog, to see what is actually happening when I hit the "Proceed" button?

    Read the article

  • Problem using custom HttpHandler to process requests for both .aspx and non-extension pages in IIS7

    - by Noel
    I am trying to process both ".aspx" and non-extension page requests (i.e. both contact.aspx and /contact/) using a custom HttpHandler in IIS7. My handler works just fine in either one case or the other, but as soon as I try to process both cases, it only works for one. Please see Handlers snippet from my web.config below: If i keep only mapping to "*.aspx" then all .aspx requests are processed correctly, but obviously extensionless requests won't work: <add name="AllPages.ASPX" path="*.aspx" verb="*" type="Test.PageHandlerFactory, Test" preCondition="" /> If i change the mapping to "*" then all extensionless requests are processed correctly, but ".aspx" requests that should still be handled by this handler stop working. Note that i added the StaticFiles entry in order to process files that are on disk like images, css, js, etc. <add name="WebResource" path="WebResource.axd" verb="GET" type="System.Web.Handlers.AssemblyResourceLoader" /> <add name="StaticFiles" verb="GET,HEAD" path="*.*" type="System.Web.StaticFileHandler" resourceType="File" /> <add name="AllPages" path="*" verb="*" type="Test.PageHandlerFactory, Test" preCondition="" /> The crazy thing is that when i load an ".aspx" request (with the 2nd configuration shown) IIS7 gives a 404 not found error. The error also says that the request is processed by the StaticFiles handler. But I made sure to add resourceType="File" to the StaticFileHandler in order to avoid this. According to MS this means the request is only for "physical files on disk". Am i misreading/interpreting the "on disk" part? My .aspx file isn't on disk, that's why i want to use the handler in the first place.

    Read the article

  • Should the entity framework + self tracking entities be saving me time

    - by sipwiz
    I've been using the entity framework in combination with the self tracking entity code generation templates for my latest silverlight to WCF application. It's the first time I've used the entity framework in a real project and my hope was that I would save myself a lot of time and effort by being able to automatically update the whole data access layer of my project when my database schema changed. Happily I've found that to be the case, updating my database schema by adding a new table, changing column names, adding new columns etc. etc. can be propagated to my business object classes by using the update from database option on the entity framework model. Where I'm hurting is the CRUD operations within my WCF service in response to actions on my Silverlight client. I use the same self tracking entity framework business objects in my Silverlight app but I find I'm continually having to fight against problems such as foreign key associations not being handled correctly when updating an object or the change tracker getting confused about the state of an object at the Silverlight end and the data access operation within the WCF layer throwing a wobbly. It's got to a point where I have now spent more time dealing with this quirks than I have on my previous project where I used Linq-to-SQL as the starting point for rolling my own business objects. Is it just me being hopeless or is the self tracking entities approach something that should be avoided until it's more mature?

    Read the article

  • How do I access variable values from one view controller in another?

    - by Thomas
    Hello all, I have an integer variable (time) in one view controller whose value I need in another view controller. Here's the code: MediaMeterViewController // TRP - On Touch Down event, start the timer -(IBAction) startTimer { time = 0; // TRP - Start a timer timer = [NSTimer scheduledTimerWithTimeInterval:1 target:self selector:@selector(updateTimer) userInfo:nil repeats:YES]; [timer retain]; // TRP - Retain timer so it is not accidentally deallocated } // TRP - Method to update the timer display -(void)updateTimer { time++; // NSLog(@"Seconds: %i ", time); if (NUM_SECONDS == time) [timer invalidate]; } // TRP - On Touch Up Inside event, stop the timer, decide stress level, display results -(IBAction) btn_MediaMeterResults { [timer invalidate]; NSLog(@"Seconds: %i ", time); ResultsViewController *resultsView = [[ResultsViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ResultsViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview:resultsView.view]; } And in ResultsViewController, I want to process time based on its value ResultsViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { if(time < 3) {// Do something} else if ((time > 3) && (time < 6)) {// Do something else} //etc... [super viewDidLoad]; } I'm kind of unclear on when @property and @synthesize is necessary. Is that the case in this situation? Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Thomas

    Read the article

  • Amazon S3 and swfaddress

    - by justinbach
    I recently migrated a large AS3 site (lots of swfs, lots of flvs) to Amazon S3. Pretty much everything but HTML and JS files is being stored/served from Amazon, and it's working well. The only problem I'm having is that I built the site using SWFaddress (actually, via the Gaia framework which uses SWFaddress), and for some reason, SWFaddress is no longer updating the address bar correctly as users navigate from page to page. In other words, the URL persistently remains http://www.mysite.com, not http://www.mysite.com/#/section as would be the case were SWFaddress functioning correctly (and as it was functioning prior to the migration). Stranger yet, if I go to (e.g.) http://www.mysite.com/#/section directly, the deeplinking functions as you'd expect--I arrive directly at the correct section. However, navigating away from that section doesn't have any effect on the address bar, despite the fact that it should be dynamically updated. I've got a crossdomain.xml file set up on the site that allows access from all domains, so that's not the issue, and I don't know what else might be. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated! P.S. I integrated S3 by putting pretty much the entire site in an S3 bucket and then just changing the initial swfobject embed to point to the S3 instance of main.swf, passing in the S3 path as the "base" param to the embedded swf so that all dynamically loaded assets and swfs would also be sourced from s3. Dunno if that's related to the troubles I'm having.

    Read the article

  • JVM segmentation faults due to "Invalid memory access of location"

    - by Dan
    I have a small project written in Scala 2.9.2 with unit tests written using ScalaTest. I use SBT for compiling and running my tests. Running sbt test on my project makes the JVM segfault regularly, but just compiling and running my project from SBT works fine. Here is the exact error message: Invalid memory access of location 0x8 rip=0x10959f3c9 [1] 11925 segmentation fault sbt I cannot locate a core dump anywhere, but would be happy to provide it if it can be obtained. Running java -version results in this: java version "1.6.0_37" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.6.0_37-b06-434-11M3909) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 20.12-b01-434, mixed mode) But I've also got Java 7 installed (though I was never able to actually run a Java program with it, afaik). Another issue that may be related: some of my test cases contain titles including parentheses like ( and ). SBT or ScalaTest (not sure) will consequently insert square parens in the middle of the output. For example, a test case with the name (..)..(..) might suddenly look like (..[)..](..). Any help resolving these issues is much appreciated :-) EDIT: I installed the Java 7 JDK, so now java -version shows the right thing: java version "1.7.0_07" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.7.0_07-b10) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 23.3-b01, mixed mode) This also means that I now get a more detailed segfault error and a core dump: # # A fatal error has been detected by the Java Runtime Environment: # # SIGSEGV (0xb) at pc=0x000000010a71a3e3, pid=16830, tid=19459 # # JRE version: 7.0_07-b10 # Java VM: Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (23.3-b01 mixed mode bsd-amd64 compressed oops) # Problematic frame: # V [libjvm.dylib+0x3cd3e3] And the dump.

    Read the article

  • python-xmpp and looping through list of recipients to receive and IM message

    - by David
    I can't figure out the problem and want some input as to whether my Python code is incorrect, or if this is an issue or design limitation of Python XMPP library. I'm new to Python by the way. Here's snippets of code in question below. What I'd like to do is read in a text file of IM recipients, one recipient per line, in XMPP/Jabber ID format. This is read into a Python list variable. I then instantiate an XMPP client session and loop through the list of recipients and send a message to each recipient. Then sleep some time and repeat test. This is for load testing the IM client of recipients as well as IM server. There is code to alternately handle case of taking only one recipient from command line input instead of from file. What ends up happening is that Python does iterate/loop through the list but only last recipient in list receives message. Switch order of recipients to verify. Kind of looks like Python XMPP library is not sending it out right, or I'm missing a step with the library calls, because the debug print statements during runtime indicate the looping works correctly. recipient = "" delay = 60 useFile = False recList = [] ... elif (sys.argv[i] == '-t'): recipient = sys.argv[i+1] useFile = False elif (sys.argv[i] == '-tf'): fil = open(sys.argv[i+1], 'r') recList = fil.readlines() fil.close() useFile = True ... # disable debug msgs cnx = xmpp.Client(svr,debug=[]) cnx.connect(server=(svr,5223)) cnx.auth(user,pwd,'imbot') cnx.sendInitPresence() while (True): if useFile: for listUser in recList: cnx.send(xmpp.Message(listUser,msg+str(msgCounter))) print "sending to "+listUser+" msg = "+msg+str(msgCounter) else: cnx.send(xmpp.Message(recipient,msg+str(msgCounter))) msgCounter += 1 time.sleep(delay)

    Read the article

  • Entity framework entity class mapping with plain .net class

    - by Elan
    I have following in entity framework Table - Country Fields List item Country_ID Dialing_Code ISO_Alpha2 ISO_Alpha3 ISO_Full I would like to map only selected fields from this entity model to my domain class. My domain model class is public class DomainCountry { public int Country_ID { get; set; } public string Dialing_Code { get; set; } public string ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 { get; set; } } The following will work however insert or update is not possible. In order to get insert or update we need to use ObjectSet< but it will not support in my case. IQueryable<DomainCountry> countries = context.Countries.Select( c => new DomainCountry { Country_ID = c.Country_Id, Dialing_Code = c.Dialing_Code, ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 = c.ISO_3166_1_Alpha_2 }); It will be really fantastic could someone provide a nice solution for this. Ideally it will be kind of proxy class which will support all the futures however highly customizable i.e. only the columns we want to expose to the outer world

    Read the article

  • Looking for examples of "real" uses of continuations

    - by Sébastien RoccaSerra
    I'm trying to grasp the concept of continuations and I found several small teaching examples like this one from the Wikipedia article: (define the-continuation #f) (define (test) (let ((i 0)) ; call/cc calls its first function argument, passing ; a continuation variable representing this point in ; the program as the argument to that function. ; ; In this case, the function argument assigns that ; continuation to the variable the-continuation. ; (call/cc (lambda (k) (set! the-continuation k))) ; ; The next time the-continuation is called, we start here. (set! i (+ i 1)) i)) I understand what this little function does, but I can't see any obvious application of it. While I don't expect to use continuations all over my code anytime soon, I wish I knew a few cases where they can be appropriate. So I'm looking for more explicitely usefull code samples of what continuations can offer me as a programmer. Cheers!

    Read the article

  • Retrieve Flash file post in ASP.NET

    - by Quandary
    Question: In ASP.NET, I retrieve a JPEG-file as Flash post data like this Sub ProcessRequest(ByVal context As HttpContext) Implements IHttpHandler.ProcessRequest context.Response.ContentType = "text/plain" ' Retrieve a bytearray from the post buffer Dim myBuffer As Byte() = context.Request.BinaryRead(Convert.ToInt32(context.Request.InputStream.Length)) System.IO.File.WriteAllBytes("c:\temp\test.jpg", myBuffer) End Sub In Flash, I send it to an asp.net handler like this var jpgSource:BitmapData = cPrint.TakeSnapshot(MovieClip(cGlobals.ccPlanZoomView)); var bmpThisBitmap:Bitmap = new Bitmap(jpgSource); var nQuality:Number = 100; var jpgEncoder:JPGEncoder = new JPGEncoder(nQuality); var jpgStream:ByteArray = jpgEncoder.encode(jpgSource); var header:URLRequestHeader = new URLRequestHeader ("Content-type", "application/octet-stream"); // Make sure to use the correct path to jpg_encoder_download.php var strFileName:String="test.jpg"; var jpgURLRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("http://localhost/raumplaner_new/raumplaner_new/cgi-bin/SavePDF.ashx"); //var scriptVars:URLVariables = new URLVariables(); //scriptVars.fn = strFileName; //var myarr:Array= new Array(); //myarr.push(jpgStream); //scriptVars.Files = myarr; jpgURLRequest.requestHeaders.push(header); jpgURLRequest.method = URLRequestMethod.POST; //jpgURLRequest.data = scriptVars; jpgURLRequest.data = jpgStream; var loader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(); loader.dataFormat = URLLoaderDataFormat.BINARY; loader.load(jpgURLRequest); It works but I want to send a few additional variables along, via scriptVars (commented out here). How do I retrieve the JPEG file in that case ? Because if I use parameters, there is no more BinaryRead... Aspecially, how would I read an array of jpeg files (several files) ?

    Read the article

  • Android : showDialog not displayer inside onActivityResult after take photo

    - by Nicolas
    Hello, When i'm in onActivityResult and i try to show a custom progress dialog, The dialog is not show, but the function is called, but nothing is displayed If i put this dialog in Oncreate it's working i see the dialogbox, Is it possible to show a custom dialog on return of Intent.ACTION_GET_CONTENT / MediaStore.ACTION_IMAGE_CAPTURE Thanks protected void onActivityResult(int requestCode, int resultCode, Intent data) { Parseur UploadPhoto = new Parseur(); showDialog(PROGRESS_DIALOG); if (requestCode == z_const.REQUEST_INTENT_CODE_PHOTO_CHOISIR) { String selectedImagePath; Uri selectedImageUri; if (data != null){ selectedImageUri = data.getData(); selectedImagePath = getPath(selectedImageUri); Log.e(TAG, "PHOTO CHOISIR " + selectedImagePath+"Res"+resultCode); UploadPhoto.uploadPhoto(InfoPasse,selectedImagePath); } } finish(); } protected Dialog onCreateDialog(int id) { Log.e(TAG," DIAL appeller "+id); switch(id) { case PROGRESS_DIALOG: progressDialog = new ProgressDialog(Photo.this); progressDialog.setProgressStyle(ProgressDialog.STYLE_HORIZONTAL); progressDialog.setMessage("Loading..."); progressThread = new ProgressThread(handler); progressThread.start(); return progressDialog; default: return null; } }

    Read the article

  • How to specify selector when CAKeyframeAnimation is finished?

    - by darenchow
    I'm using a CAKeyframeAnimation to animate a view along a CGPath. When the animation is done, I'd like to be able to call some other method to perform another action. Is there a good way to do this? I've looked at using UIView's setAnimationDidStopSelector:, however from the docs this looks like it only applies when used within a UIView animation block (beginAnimations and commitAnimations). I also gave it a try just in case, but it doesn't seem to work. Here's some sample code (this is within a custom UIView sub-class method): // These have no effect since they're not in a UIView Animation Block [UIView setAnimationDelegate:self]; [UIView setAnimationDidStopSelector:@selector(animationDidStop:finished:context:)]; // Set up path movement CAKeyframeAnimation *pathAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"path"]; pathAnimation.calculationMode = kCAAnimationPaced; pathAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; pathAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; pathAnimation.duration = 1.0f; CGMutablePathRef path = CGPathCreateMutable(); CGPathMoveToPoint(path, NULL, self.center.x, self.center.y); // add all points to the path for (NSValue* value in myPoints) { CGPoint nextPoint = [value CGPointValue]; CGPathAddLineToPoint(path, NULL, nextPoint.x, nextPoint.y); } pathAnimation.path = path; CGPathRelease(path); [self.layer addAnimation:pathAnimation forKey:@"pathAnimation"]; A workaround I was considering that should work, but doesn't seem like the best way, is to use NSObject's performSelector:withObject:afterDelay:. As long as I set the delay equal to the duration of the animation, then it should be fine. Is there a better way? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • iPhone OpenGL Splash Screen? How?

    - by Kyle
    My app is based pretty much on the EAGLView in the SDK. It doesn't incorporate a ViewController. Rather it simply inits GL and starts painting immediately.. Currently, my app will load a very small PNG and displays it as quickly as possible. On a 3GS this is rather instant, but on a 3G it can take about 2 seconds. In the latter case of the 3G, the user is looking at a black screen for that time. Is this behavior allowed by Apple? Is there any way to alter this SDK example so that it makes use of 'default.png'? It doesn't seem so straight forward to me. I want my user to see an image as quickly as possible, and I also don't want to be rejected for such a little quirk like this as well. In the guidelines, they encourage you to use default.png for standard applications to show a sort of mockup of the interface while it actually loads. I want to initialize OpenGL, and ALSO display this. This default.png is loaded before the app screen launches. This is EXACLTY what I want to make use of. Any help is appreciated. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • JScrollPane Scrolls Down with Long Text in JEditorPane

    - by Jim
    Hello, I want to have a JEditorPane inside a JScrollPane. When the user clicks a button, the click listener will create a textEditor, call jscrollpane.setViewPort(textEditor), call textEditor.setText(String) to fill it with editable text, and call jscrollpane.getVerticalScrollBar().setValue(0). In case you're wondering, yes, the setText() must come after the setViewPort() for reasons that aren't on topic. Here is the problem: After the user clicks the button, the JScrollPane's view scrolls all the way to the bottom. I want the scrollbar to be at the top, as per the last line in my click listener. I popped open a debugger, and to my horror, discovered that the jscrollpane's viewport is being forced down to the bottom after the conclusion of the click listener (when pumping filters). It appears that Swing is delaying the population of the editor/jscrollpane until after the conclusion of the clicklistener, but is calling the scrollbar command first. Thus, the undesired behavior. Anyway, I'm wondering if there is a clean solution. It seems that wanting a scrollpane to be scrolled to the top after modification would be a reasonably common requirement, so I'm assuming this is a well-solved problem. Thanks!

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 695 696 697 698 699 700 701 702 703 704 705 706  | Next Page >