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  • Find out what resource is triggering bad password attempt?

    - by Craig Tataryn
    Background: Have a problem at work where I am constantly being locked out of my computer. We are in an environment that has a Domain Controller and we use Active Directory for authentication. By going through my normal workflow while on the phone with Desktop Support we were able to track the bad password attempts that were causing the lockouts to an application: "Eclipse". This is the application I use to do software development. I immediately thought it was a cached password for our SVN server that's the culprit, however the desktop support person couldn't tell me which resource the password attempt was being made against (i.e. which URL for instance). Question: Is there a way that I can monitor bad authentication requests made by an application on my desktop and find out what resource they are attempting it against?

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  • VPN with VLANs? [closed]

    - by Craig
    As usual, I'm sure I'm in way over my head on this one. My networking skills are limited; so, bear with me if you will. What I have are a few testing servers at my house as well as at a friends house that I want to link together so they can see each other (VPN right? I've done those before). We want to be able to see all the servers and work with them from either location. All the servers also need to be able to see each other. But, we don't want to see each others PCs, printers, PS3s etc. How do we pull that trick off? Multiple VLAN?... subnets?... what? If hardware matters, I have an old PC I was planning on loading pfSense onto because my current el-cheapo router doesn't support VPN. The VPN linking the houses is about the only thing I'm sure on. Beyond that, I'm lost. I'm not a complete noob; but, like I said, I'm not so sharp with the more complex networking. I do however read well... So use lots of descriptive words and feel free to link away to long dry articles if necessary. :-)

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  • ??????????Oracle?

    - by katsumii
    ????2???????????????????????????????????Oracle Days Tokyo 2013?????????????????? ? ?  (?????????????(???????)???)????????????? "Exadata" ?????????????????????????????????????????????????????Oracle?????????????????????????1????????Forecasting Oracle Performance: Craig Shallahamer: 9781590598023: Amazon.com: BooksIf you are more management-minded (or want to be), you will be delighted with the service level management focus.???????????????????? "????·???" ?????????????”??????”???????????? ???????Oracle Database?????????????????????  

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  • How to set SGEN toolpath in Msbuild to target 3.5 framework

    - by Craig Shearer
    I've just upgraded a project from VS2008 to VS2010 but I'm still targeting the 3.5 framework. In my project file I have a custom task to run SGEN to generate my XmlSerializers.dll. However the version of sgen being run targets the 4.0 framework. As a result, when I run my application I get the error message: "Could not load file or assembly 'XXXX.XXXX.XmlSerializers' or one of its dependencies. This assembly is built by a runtime newer than the currently loaded runtime and cannot be loaded." The Sgen task looks like this: <Target Name="AfterBuild" DependsOnTargets="AssignTargetPaths;Compile;ResolveKeySource" Inputs="$(MSBuildAllProjects);@(IntermediateAssembly)" Outputs="$(OutputPath)$(_SGenDllName)"> <!-- Delete the file because I can't figure out how to force the SGen task. --> <Delete Files="$(TargetDir)$(TargetName).XmlSerializers.dll" ContinueOnError="true" /> <SGen BuildAssemblyName="$(TargetFileName)" BuildAssemblyPath="$(OutputPath)" References="@(ReferencePath)" ShouldGenerateSerializer="true" UseProxyTypes="false" KeyContainer="$(KeyContainerName)" KeyFile="$(KeyOriginatorFile)" DelaySign="$(DelaySign)" ToolPath="$(SGenToolPath)"> <Output TaskParameter="SerializationAssembly" ItemName="SerializationAssembly" /> </SGen> </Target> There's the ToolPath="$(SGenToolPath)". How do I make it run the version that targets 3.5? There's a similar question here but it doesn't help me much.

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  • How to organize Python modules for PyPI to support 2.x and 3.x

    - by Craig McQueen
    I have a Python module that I would like to upload to PyPI. So far, it is working for Python 2.x. It shouldn't be too hard to write a version for 3.x now. But, after following guidelines for making modules in these places: Distributing Python Modules The Hitchhiker’s Guide to Packaging it's not clear to me how to support multiple source distributions for different versions of Python, and it's not clear if/how PyPI could support it. I envisage I would have separate code for: 2.x 2.6 (maybe, as a special case to use the new buffer API) 3.x How is it possible to set up a Python module in PyPI so that someone can do: easy_install modulename and it will install the right thing whether the user is using 2.x or 3.x?

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  • How to organize Python modules for PyPI to support 2.x and 3.x

    - by Craig McQueen
    I have a Python module that I would like to upload to PyPI. So far, it is working for Python 2.x. It shouldn't be too hard to write a version for 3.x now. But, after following guidelines for making modules in these places: Distributing Python Modules The Hitchhiker’s Guide to Packaging it's not clear to me how to support multiple source distributions for different versions of Python, and it's not clear if/how PyPI could support it. I envisage I would have separate code for: 2.x 2.6 (maybe, as a special case to use the new buffer API) 3.x How is it possible to set up a Python module in PyPI so that someone can do: easy_install modulename and it will install the right thing whether the user is using 2.x or 3.x?

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  • InnerHTML IE 8 doesn't work properly? Resetting form.

    - by Craig Whitley
    Yeah this works in FF and Chrome, but for some reason wont work in IE 8. I'm using a radio button to clear a section of a form.. that section is a select box, but I don't want to leave the area empty - instead I want to reset it to what it was when the page loaded. At the moment IE8 is just leaving me with an empty small select box. Html: <select id="city_select" disabled="true" name="location_id" onchange="show_search_button();"><option selected>Select your city</option> </select> Javascript: document.getElementById('city_select').innerHTML = "<option selected>Select your city</option>"; I've also tried using location_id instead of city_select in the javascript but to no avail.. innerText and innerContent dont work either.. though the inner.HTML works in IE8 for an earlier function, but that isnt trying to innerHTML into a form. Does anybody know why this works in Chrome and FF but not IE8? and is there a solution to this? Any help appreciated thanks!

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  • Use JQuery UI Datepicker with Icons from Jquery UI Theme

    - by Craig McGuff
    I have a datepicker control setup using the JQuery UI, I am also using the JQuery UI themes which provide a bunch of default icons that I want to use. The DatePicker allows for specifying a specific image, i.e.: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#DateFrom").datepicker({ showOn: 'button', buttonImageOnly: true, buttonImage: 'images/ui-icon-calendar.png' }); }); </script> To display an icon from the icon set you use something like: <span class="ui-icon ui-icon-calendar"></span> Is there an easy to integrate the two or do I just need to hack out the styles/images manually?

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  • Creating ViewResults outside of Controllers in ASP.NET MVC

    - by Craig Walker
    Several of my controller actions have a standard set of failure-handling behavior. In general, I want to: Load an object based on the Route Data (IDs and the like) If the Route Data does not point to a valid object (ex: through URL hacking) then inform the user of the problem and return an HTTP 404 Not Found Validate that the current user has the proper permissions on the object If the user doesn't have permission, inform the user of the problem and return an HTTP 403 Forbidden If the above is successful, then do something with that object that's action-specific (ie: render it in a view). These steps are so standardized that I want to have reusable code to implement the behavior. My current plan of attack was to have a helper method to do something like this: public static ActionResult HandleMyObject(this Controller controller, Func<MyObject,ActionResult> onSuccess) { var myObject = MyObject.LoadFrom(controller.RouteData). if ( myObject == null ) return NotFound(controller); if ( myObject.IsNotAllowed(controller.User)) return NotAllowed(controller); return onSuccess(myObject); } # NotAllowed() is pretty much the same as this public static NotFound(Controller controller){ controller.HttpContext.Response.StatusCode = 404 # NotFound.aspx is a shared view. ViewResult result = controller.View("NotFound"); return result; } The problem here is that Controller.View() is a protected method and so is not accessible from a helper. I've looked at creating a new ViewResult instance explicitly, but there's enough properties to set that I'm wary about doing so without knowing the pitfalls first. What's the best way to create a ViewResult from outside a particular Controller?

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  • Nullable One To One Relationships with Integer Keys in LINQ-to-SQL

    - by Craig Walker
    I have two objects (Foo and Bar) that have a one-to-zero-or-one relationship between them. So, Foo has a nullable foreign key reference to Bar.ID and a (nullbusted) unique index to enforce the "1" side. Bar.ID is an int, and so Foo.BarID is a nullable int. The problem occurs in the LINQ-to-SQL DBML mapping of .NET types to SQL datatypes. Since int is not a nullable type in .NET, it gets wrapped in a Nullable<int>. However, this is not the same type as int, and so Visual Studio gives me this error message when I try to create the OneToOne Association between them: Cannot create an association "Bar_Foo". Properties do not have matching types: "ID", "BarID". Is there a way around this?

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  • SQL Server Express 2005 Merge Replication using RMO causes Null Reference exception

    - by Craig Shearer
    I'm trying to use RMO to programmatically perform merge synchronization. I've basically copied the SQL Server example code, as follows: // Create a connection to the Subscriber. ServerConnection conn = new ServerConnection(subscriberName); MergePullSubscription subscription; try { // Connect to the Subscriber. conn.Connect(); // Define the pull subscription. subscription = new MergePullSubscription(subscriptionDbName, publisherName, publicationDbName, publicationName, conn, false); // If the pull subscription exists, then start the synchronization. if (subscription.LoadProperties()) { // Check that we have enough metadata to start the agent. if (subscription.PublisherSecurity != null || subscription.DistributorSecurity != null) { subscription.SynchronizationAgent.Synchronize(); } else { throw new ApplicationException("There is insufficent metadata to " + "synchronize the subscription. Recreate the subscription with " + "the agent job or supply the required agent properties at run time."); } } else { // Do something here if the pull subscription does not exist. throw new ApplicationException(String.Format( "A subscription to '{0}' does not exist on {1}", publicationName, subscriberName)); } } catch (Exception ex) { // Implement appropriate error handling here. throw new ApplicationException("The subscription could not be " + "synchronized. Verify that the subscription has " + "been defined correctly.", ex); } finally { conn.Disconnect(); } I've got the server merge publication defined correctly, but when I run the above code, I get a null reference exception on the call to: subscription.SynchronizationAgent.Synchronize(); The stack trace is as follows: at Microsoft.SqlServer.Replication.MergeSynchronizationAgent.StatusEventSinkMethod(String message, Int32 percent, Int32* returnValue) at Test.ConsoleTest.Program.SynchronizePullSubscription() in F:\Visual Studio Projects\Test\source\Test.ConsoleTest\Program.cs:line 124 It seems, from the stack trace, like something to do with the Status event, but I don't have a handler defined, and defining one makes no difference.

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  • Defining an Entity Framework 1:1 association

    - by Craig Fisher
    I'm trying to define a 1:1 association between two entities (one maps to a table and the other to a view - using DefinedQuery) in an Entity Framework model. When trying to define the mapping for this in the designer, it makes me choose the (1) table or view to map the association to. What am I supposed to choose? I can choose either of the two tables but then I am forced to choose a column from that table (or view) for each end of the relationship. I would expect to be able to choose a column from one table for one end of the association and a column from the other table for the other end of the association, but there's no way to do this. Here I've chosen to map to the "DW_ WF_ClaimInfo" view and it is forcing me to choose two columns from that view - one for each end of the relationship. I've also tried defining the mapping manually in the XML as follows: <AssociationSetMapping Name="Entity1Entity2" TypeName="ClaimsModel.Entity1Entity2" StoreEntitySet="Entity1"> <EndProperty Name="Entity2"> <ScalarProperty Name="DOCUMENT" ColumnName="DOCUMENT" /> </EndProperty> <EndProperty Name="Entity1"> <ScalarProperty Name="PK_DocumentId" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> </AssociationSetMapping> But this gives: Error 2010: The Column 'DOCUMENT' specified as part of this MSL does not exist in MetadataWorkspace. Seems like it still expects both columns to come from the same table, which doesn't make sense to me. Furthermore, if I select the same key for each end, e.g.: <AssociationSetMapping Name="Entity1Entity2" TypeName="ClaimsModel.Entity1Entity2" StoreEntitySet="Entity1"> <EndProperty Name="Entity2"> <ScalarProperty Name="DOCUMENT" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> <EndProperty Name="Entity1"> <ScalarProperty Name="PK_DocumentId" ColumnName="PK_DocumentId" /> </EndProperty> </AssociationSetMapping> I then get: Error 3021: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 675: Each of the following columns in table AssignedClaims is mapped to multiple conceptual side properties: AssignedClaims.PK_DocumentId is mapped to <AssignedClaimDW_WF_ClaimInfo.DW_WF_ClaimInfo.DOCUMENT, AssignedClaimDW_WF_ClaimInfo.AssignedClaim.PK_DocumentId> What am I not getting?

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  • Using the Ocean Browsercaps files with .NET 4

    - by Craig
    I have been trying to use the Ocean browsercaps files from http://owenbrady.net/browsercaps/ in a ASP.NET 4 application. When I drop the files into the App_Browsers folder I get the error The browser or gateway element with ID 'docomon505i' cannot be found. Are these files compatible with .NET4 or am I doing something wrong. The documentation is sparse.

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  • How to organize modules for PyPI to support 2.x and 3.x

    - by Craig McQueen
    I have a Python module that I would like to upload to PyPI. So far, it is working for Python 2.x. It shouldn't be too hard to write a version for 3.x now. But, after following guidelines for making modules in these places: Distributing Python Modules The Hitchhiker’s Guide to Packaging it's not clear to me how to support multiple source distributions for different versions of Python, and it's not clear if/how PyPI could support it. I envisage I would have separate code for: 2.x 2.6 (maybe, as a special case to use the new buffer API) 3.x How is it possible to set up a Python module in PyPI so that someone can do: easy_install modulename and it will install the right thing whether the user is using 2.x or 3.x?

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  • How do you debug a XamlParseException?

    - by Craig Shearer
    I'm trying to use a 3rd party component in my Silverlight application and when I try to create an instance of the control, I get a XamlParseException: {System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: Set property 'System.Windows.FrameworkElement.Style' threw an exception. [Line: 0 Position: 0] --- System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: Elements in the same ResourceDictionary cannot have the same x:Key [Line: 1739 Position: 47] at MS.Internal.XcpImports.CreateFromXaml(UnmanagedMemoryStream stream, String sourceAssemblyName, Boolean createNamescope, Boolean requireDefaultNamespace, Boolean allowEventHandlers) at System.Windows.Controls.Control.GetBuiltInStyle(IntPtr nativeTarget, IntPtr& nativeStyle) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- at System.Windows.Application.LoadComponent(Object component, Uri resourceLocator) at SpellCheckerSample.StandardSpellDialog.InitializeComponent() at SpellCheckerSample.StandardSpellDialog..ctor()} How can I debug this? How do I know what file line 1739, Position 47 is in?

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  • Scroll Position in a Table Body

    - by Craig Walker
    I want to implement infinite scrolling (with an AJAX-based loader) in an HTML table body. My HTML looks something like this: <table> <thead> <tr><th>Column</th></tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr><td>Row 1</td></tr> <tr><td>Row 2</td></tr> </tbody> </table> I get a scroll bar on the <tbody> like so: tbody { height:10em; /* Otherwise the tbody expands to fit all rows */ overflow:auto; } To be able to do anything when the user scrolls to the bottom, I need to be able to get the scroll position of the <tbody>. In all of the (jQuery) infinite scroll implementations I've seen (such as this one), they subtract the content height from the container height and compare it to the .scrollTop() value. Unfortunately this may not work with <tbody>, which is both the viewport and the container for the scrolled content. $("tbody").height() returns the viewable (ie: "shrunken") size, but I don't know how I can get the full (viewable + hidden) size of the table body. (FWIW, $("tbody").scrollTop() returns a "large" number when scrolled to the bottom, exactly as I would expect it to). Is there any way to accomplish this?

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