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  • Linux configurations that would affect Java memory usage?

    - by wmacura
    Hi, Background: I have a set of java background workers I start as part of my webapp. I develop locally on Ubuntu 10.10 and deploy to an Ubuntu 10.04LTS server (a media temple (ve) instance). They're both running the same JVM: Sun JVM 1.6.0_22-b04. As part of the initialization script each worker is started with explicit Xmx, Xms, and XX:MaxPermGen settings. Yet somehow locally all 10 workers use 250MB, while on the server they use more than 2.7GB. I don't know how to begin to track this down. I thought the Ubuntu (and thus, kernel) version might make a difference, but I tried an old 10.04 VM and it behaves as expected. I've noticed that the machine does not seem to ever use memory for buffer or cache (according to htop), which seems a bit strange, but perhaps normal for a server? (edited) Some info: (server) root@devel:/app/axir/target# uname -a Linux devel 2.6.18-028stab069.5 #1 SMP Tue May 18 17:26:16 MSD 2010 x86_64 GNU/Linux (local) wiktor@beastie:~$ uname -a Linux beastie 2.6.35-25-generic #44-Ubuntu SMP Fri Jan 21 17:40:44 UTC 2011 x86_64 GNU/Linux (edited) Comparing PS output: (ps -eo "ppid,pid,cmd,rss,sz,vsz") PPID PID CMD RSS SZ VSZ (local) 1588 1615 java -cp axir-distribution. 25484 234382 937528 1615 1631 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 83472 163059 652236 1615 1657 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 70624 89135 356540 1615 1658 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 37652 77625 310500 1615 1669 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38096 77733 310932 1615 1675 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 37420 61395 245580 1615 1684 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38000 77736 310944 1615 1703 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 39180 78060 312240 1615 1712 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38488 93882 375528 1615 1719 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38312 77874 311496 1615 1726 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 38656 77958 311832 1615 1727 java -cp /home/wiktor/Code/ 78016 89429 357716 (server) 22522 23560 java -cp axir-distribution. 24860 285196 1140784 23560 23585 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 100764 161629 646516 23560 23667 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 72408 92682 370728 23560 23670 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 39948 97671 390684 23560 23674 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 40140 81586 326344 23560 23739 java -cp /app/axir/target/a 39688 81542 326168 They look very similar. In fact, the question now is why, if I add up the virtual memory usage on the server (3.2GB) does it more closely reflect 2.4GB of memory used (according to free), yet locally the virtual memory used adds up to a much more substantial 4.7GB but only actually uses ~250MB. It seems that perhaps memory isn't being shared as aggressively. (if that's even possible) Thank you for your help, Wiktor

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  • How to query data from a password protected https website

    - by Addie
    I'd like my application to query a csv file from a secure website. I have no experience with web programming so I'd appreciate detailed instructions. Currently I have the user login to the site, manually query the csv, and have my application load the file locally. I'd like to automate this by having the user enter his login information, authenticating him on the website, and querying the data. The application is written in C# .NET. The url of the site is: https://www2.emidas.com/default.asp. I've tested the following code already and am able to access the file once the user has already authenticated himself and created a manual query. System.Net.WebClient Client = new WebClient(); Stream strm = Client.OpenRead("https://www3.emidas.com/users/<username>/file.csv"); Here is the request sent to the site for authentication. I've angle bracketed the real userid and password. POST /pwdVal.asp HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/jpeg, application/x-ms-application, image/gif, application/xaml+xml, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-xbap, application/vnd.ms-excel, application/vnd.ms-powerpoint, application/msword, application/x-shockwave-flash, */* User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.1; Trident/4.0; SLCC2; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; .NET CLR 3.0.30729; Media Center PC 6.0; InfoPath.2; Tablet PC 2.0; OfficeLiveConnector.1.4; OfficeLivePatch.1.3; .NET4.0C; .NET4.0E) Content-Type: application/x-www-form-urlencoded Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Cookie: ASPSESSIONID<unsure if this data contained password info so removed>; ClientId=<username> Host: www3.emidas.com Content-Length: 36 Connection: Keep-Alive Cache-Control: no-cache Accept-Language: en-US client_id=<username>&password=<password>

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  • Instance Failure in asp.net

    - by user85511
    I have a web application that is working perfectly in my system. However, when I copied it to another system, I couldn't login to the application. There is an error: Server Error in '/' Application. -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Instance failure. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.InvalidOperationException: Instance failure. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [InvalidOperationException: Instance failure.] System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Connect(ServerInfo serverInfo, SqlInternalConnectionTds connHandler, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, Boolean encrypt, Boolean trustServerCert, Boolean integratedSecurity, SqlConnection owningObject) +4858423 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.AttemptOneLogin(ServerInfo serverInfo, String newPassword, Boolean ignoreSniOpenTimeout, Int64 timerExpire, SqlConnection owningObject) +90 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.LoginNoFailover(String host, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance, SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Int64 timerStart) +257 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds.OpenLoginEnlist(SqlConnection owningObject, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, String newPassword, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +221 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnectionTds..ctor(DbConnectionPoolIdentity identity, SqlConnectionString connectionOptions, Object providerInfo, String newPassword, SqlConnection owningObject, Boolean redirectedUserInstance) +189 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnectionFactory.CreateConnection(DbConnectionOptions options, Object poolGroupProviderInfo, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnection owningConnection) +4859187 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.CreatePooledConnection(DbConnection owningConnection, DbConnectionPool pool, DbConnectionOptions options) +31 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.CreateObject(DbConnection owningObject) +433 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.UserCreateRequest(DbConnection owningObject) +66 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionPool.GetConnection(DbConnection owningObject) +499 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionFactory.GetConnection(DbConnection owningConnection) +65 System.Data.ProviderBase.DbConnectionClosed.OpenConnection(DbConnection outerConnection, DbConnectionFactory connectionFactory) +117 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.Open() +122 System.Web.DataAccess.SqlConnectionHolder.Open(HttpContext context, Boolean revertImpersonate) +87 System.Web.DataAccess.SqlConnectionHelper.GetConnection(String connectionString, Boolean revertImpersonation) +221 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.GetPasswordWithFormat(String username, Boolean updateLastLoginActivityDate, Int32& status, String& password, Int32& passwordFormat, String& passwordSalt, Int32& failedPasswordAttemptCount, Int32& failedPasswordAnswerAttemptCount, Boolean& isApproved, DateTime& lastLoginDate, DateTime& lastActivityDate) +815 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.CheckPassword(String username, String password, Boolean updateLastLoginActivityDate, Boolean failIfNotApproved, String& salt, Int32& passwordFormat) +105 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.CheckPassword(String username, String password, Boolean updateLastLoginActivityDate, Boolean failIfNotApproved) +42 System.Web.Security.SqlMembershipProvider.ValidateUser(String username, String password) +78 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.AuthenticateUsingMembershipProvider(AuthenticateEventArgs e) +60 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.OnAuthenticate(AuthenticateEventArgs e) +119 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.AttemptLogin() +115 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Login.OnBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs e) +101 System.Web.UI.Control.RaiseBubbleEvent(Object source, EventArgs args) +37 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.OnCommand(CommandEventArgs e) +118 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +166 System.Web.UI.WebControls.Button.System.Web.UI.IPostBackEventHandler.RaisePostBackEvent(String eventArgument) +10 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(IPostBackEventHandler sourceControl, String eventArgument) +13 System.Web.UI.Page.RaisePostBackEvent(NameValueCollection postData) +36 System.Web.UI.Page.ProcessRequestMain(Boolean includeStagesBeforeAsyncPoint, Boolean includeStagesAfterAsyncPoint) +1565 -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Version Information: Microsoft .NET Framework Version:2.0.50727.3053; ASP.NET Version:2.0.50727.3053 What could be the reason for such an error? How could I solve this?

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  • CSS selectors : should I minimise my use of the class attribute in the HTML or optimise the speed

    - by Laurent Bourgault-Roy
    As I was working on a small website, I decided to use the PageSpeed extension to check if their was some improvement I could do to make the site load faster. However I was quite surprise when it told me that my use of CSS selector was "inefficient". I was always told that you should keep the usage of the class attribute in the HTML to a minimum, but if I understand correctly what PageSpeed tell me, it's much more efficient for the browser to match directly against a class name. It make sense to me, but it also mean that I need to put more CSS classes in my HTML. It also make my .css file a little harder to read. I usually tend to mark my CSS like this : #mainContent p.productDescription em.priceTag { ... } Which make it easy to read : I know this will affect the main content and that it affect something in a paragraph tag (so I wont start to put all sort of layout code in it) that describe a product and its something that need emphasis. However it seem I should rewrite it as .priceTag { ... } Which remove all context information about the style. And if I want to use differently formatted price tag (for example, one in a list on the sidebar and one in a paragraph), I need to use something like that .paragraphPriceTag { ... } .listPriceTag { ... } Which really annoy me since I seem to duplicate the semantic of the HTML in my classes. And that mean I can't put common style in an unqualified .priceTag { ... } and thus I need to replicate the style in both CSS rule, making it harder to make change. (Altough for that I could use multiple class selector, but IE6 dont support them) I believe making code harder to read for the sake of speed has never been really considered a very good practice . Except where it is critical, of course. This is why people use PHP/Ruby/C# etc. instead of C/assembly to code their site. It's easier to write and debug. So I was wondering if I should stick with few CSS classes and complex selector or if I should go the optimisation route and remove my fancy CSS selectors for the sake of speed? Does PageSpeed make over the top recommandation? On most modern computer, will it even make a difference?

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  • Need Google Map InfoWindow Hyperlink to Open Content in Overlay (Fusion Table Usage)

    - by McKev
    I have the following code established to render the map in my site. When the map is clicked, the info window pops up with a bunch of content including a hyperlink to open up a website with a form in it. I would like to utilize a function like fancybox to open up this link "form" in an overlay. I have read that fancybox doesn't support calling the function from within an iframe, and was wondering if there was a way to pass the link data to the DOM and trigger the fancybox (or another overlay option) in another way? Maybe a callback trick - any tips would be much appreciated! <style> #map-canvas { width:850px; height:600px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=true"></script> <script src="http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/src/fusiontips.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> var map; var tableid = "1nDFsxuYxr54viD_fuH7fGm1QRZRdcxFKbSwwRjk"; var layer; var initialLocation; var browserSupportFlag = new Boolean(); var uscenter = new google.maps.LatLng(37.6970, -91.8096); function initialize() { map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('map-canvas'), { zoom: 4, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }); layer = new google.maps.FusionTablesLayer({ query: { select: "'Geometry'", from: tableid }, map: map }); //http://gmaps-utility-gis.googlecode.com/svn/trunk/fusiontips/docs/reference.html layer.enableMapTips({ select: "'Contact Name','Contact Title','Contact Location','Contact Phone'", from: tableid, geometryColumn: 'Geometry', suppressMapTips: false, delay: 500, tolerance: 8 }); ; // Try W3C Geolocation (Preferred) if(navigator.geolocation) { browserSupportFlag = true; navigator.geolocation.getCurrentPosition(function(position) { initialLocation = new google.maps.LatLng(position.coords.latitude,position.coords.longitude); map.setCenter(initialLocation); //Custom Marker var pinColor = "A83C0A"; var pinImage = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_letter&chld=%E2%80%A2|" + pinColor, new google.maps.Size(21, 34), new google.maps.Point(0,0), new google.maps.Point(10, 34)); var pinShadow = new google.maps.MarkerImage("http://chart.apis.google.com/chart?chst=d_map_pin_shadow", new google.maps.Size(40, 37), new google.maps.Point(0, 0), new google.maps.Point(12, 35)); new google.maps.Marker({ position: initialLocation, map: map, icon: pinImage, shadow: pinShadow }); }, function() { handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); }); } // Browser doesn't support Geolocation else { browserSupportFlag = false; handleNoGeolocation(browserSupportFlag); } function handleNoGeolocation(errorFlag) { if (errorFlag == true) { //Geolocation service failed initialLocation = uscenter; } else { //Browser doesn't support geolocation initialLocation = uscenter; } map.setCenter(initialLocation); } } google.maps.event.addDomListener(window, 'load', initialize); </script>

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  • Does CakePHP treat all INT fields as ID's for join tables?

    - by Jonnie
    I am trying to save a User, their Profile, and some tags and my join table that links the profile and the tags keeps getting messed up. The profile model is called Instructor, the tag model is called Subject. The Instructor has a phone number and a zip code and for some reason CakePHP thinks these are the fields it should use when creating entries in my join table. My Join table always comes out as: id | instructor_id | subject_id | 1 | 90210 | 1 | // thinks that the zip code is an instructor_id 2 | 1112223333 | 1 | // thinks that the phone number is an instructor_id 3 | 1 | 1 | // thinks that user_id is an instructor_id 4 | 1 | 1 | // the actual instructor_id, this one's correct 5 | 90210 | 2 | 6 | 1112223333 | 2 | 3 | 1 | 2 | 4 | 1 | 2 | My Models: class Instructor extends AppModel { var $name = 'Instructor'; var $belongsTo = array('User', 'State'); var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Subject' = array( 'className' = 'Subject', 'joinTable' = 'instructors_subjects', 'foreignKey' = 'instructor_id', 'associationForeignKey' = 'subject_id', 'unique' = true, 'conditions' = '', 'fields' = '', 'order' = '', 'limit' = '', 'offset' = '', 'finderQuery' = '', 'deleteQuery' = '', 'insertQuery' = '' ) ); } class Subject extends AppModel { var $name = 'Subject'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Instructor' = array( 'className' = 'Instructor', 'joinTable' = 'instructors_subjects', 'foreignKey' = 'subject_id', 'associationForeignKey' = 'instructor_id', 'unique' = true, 'conditions' = '', 'fields' = '', 'order' = '', 'limit' = '', 'offset' = '', 'finderQuery' = '', 'deleteQuery' = '', 'insertQuery' = '' ) ); } My Model Associations: User hasOne Instructor Instructor belongsTo User Instructor hasAndBelongsToMany Subject Subject hasAndBelongsToMany Instructor My form data looks like: Array ( [User] = Array ( [username] = MrInstructor [password] = cddb06c93c72f34eb9408610529a34645c29c55d [group_id] = 2 ) [Instructor] = Array ( [name] = Jimmy Bob [email] = [email protected] [phone] = 1112223333 [city] = Beverly Hills [zip_code] = 90210 [states] = 5 [website] = www.jimmybobbaseballschool.com [description] = Jimmy Bob is an instructor. [user_id] = 1 [id] = 1 ) [Subject] = Array ( [name] = hitting, pitching ) ) My function for processing the form looks like: function instructor_register() { $this-set('groups', $this-User-Group-find('list')); $this-set('states', $this-User-Instructor-State-find('list')); if (!empty($this-data)) { // Set the group to Instructor $this-data['User']['group_id'] = 2; // Save the user data $user = $this-User-save($this-data, true, array( 'username', 'password', 'group_id' )); // If the user was saved, save the instructor's info if (!empty($user)) { $this-data['Instructor']['user_id'] = $this-User-id; $instructor = $this-User-Instructor-save($this-data, true, array( 'user_id', 'name', 'email', 'phone', 'city', 'zip_code', 'state_id', 'website', 'description' )); // If the instructor was saved, save the rest if(!empty($instructor)) { $instructorId = $this-User-Instructor-id; $this-data['Instructor']['id'] = $instructorId; // Save each subject seperately $subjects = explode(",", $this-data['Subject']['name']); foreach ($subjects as $_subject) { // Get the correct subject format $_subject = strtolower(trim($_subject)); $this-User-Instructor-Subject-create($this-data); $this-User-Instructor-Subject-set(array( 'name' = $_subject )); $this-User-Instructor-Subject-save(); echo ''; print_r($this-data); echo ''; } } } } }

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  • Why the parent page get refreshed when I click the link to open thickbox-styled form?

    - by user333205
    Hi, all: I'm using Thickbox 3.1 to show signup form. The form content comes from jquery ajax post. The jquery lib is of version 1.4.2. I placed a "signup" link into a div area, which is a part of my other large pages, and the whole content of that div area is ajax+posted from my server. To make thickbox can work in my above arangement, I have modified the thickbox code a little like that: //add thickbox to href & area elements that have a class of .thickbox function tb_init(domChunk){ $(domChunk).live('click', function(){ var t = this.title || this.name || null; var a = this.href || this.alt; var g = this.rel || false; tb_show(t,a,g); this.blur(); return false; });} This modification is the only change against the original version. Beacause the "signup" link is placed in ajaxed content, so I Use live instead of binding the click event directly. When I tested on my pc, the thickbox works well. I can see the signup form quickly, without feeling the content of the parent page(here, is the other large pages) get refreshed. But after transmiting my site files into VHost, when I click the "signup" link, the signup form get presented very slowly. The large pages get refreshed evidently, because the borwser(ie6) are reloading images from server incessantly. These images are set as background images in CSS files. I think that's because the slow connection of network. But why the parent pages get refreshed? and why the browser reloads those images one more time? Havn't those images been placed in local computer's disk? Is there one way to stop that reloadding? Because the signup form can't get displayed sometimes due to slow connection of network. To verified the question, you can access http://www.juliantec.info/track-the-source.html and click the second link in left grey area, that is the "signup" link mentioned above. Thinks!

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  • Settings designer file complains when protecting configuration for connectionStrings in App.Config i

    - by Joe
    Hi, I am trying to encrypt Configuration Information Using Protected Configuration in Visual Studio 2010. I have the following info speicifed in the App.Config file: <connectionStrings configProtectionProvider="TheProviderName"> <EncryptedData> <CipherData> <CipherValue>VALUE GOES HERE</CipherValue> </CipherData> </EncryptedData> </connectionStrings> <appSettings configProtectionProvider="TheProviderName"> <EncryptedData> <CipherData> <CipherValue>VALUE GOES HERE</CipherValue> </CipherData> </EncryptedData> </appSettings> However, when I then go to the Settings area of the Projects Properties to view the settings in the Designer, I get prompted with the following error "An error occured while reading the App.config file. The file might be corrupted or contain invalid XML." I understand that my changes are causing the error, however, is there anyway I can bypass that the information is not read into at design view? (Of course the best way would be to make the tags be recognized by the designer, is there any way to do this?) I tried adding <connectionStrings configProtectionProvider="TheProviderName" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/.NetConfiguration/v2.0"> to connectionStrings as well as to the appSettings, but with no luck, the intellisense is bypassed in the config file, but the designer still complains. I would be satisfied if the designer would not complain about this "error", which is not actually an error because Microsoft states here that it should work. ASP.NET 2.0 provides a new feature, called protected configuration, that enables you to encrypt sensitive information in a configuration file. Although primarily designed for ASP.NET, protected configuration can also be used to encrypt configuration file sections in Windows applications. For a detailed description of the new protected configuration capabilities, see Encrypting Configuration Information Using Protected Configuration. And yes, it does work to encrypt it and to decrypt it and use it, it is just very annoying and frustrating that the designer complains about it. Anyone who knows which xsd file that is used (if used) to verify the contents of the App.config file in the design view? Any help appreciated.

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  • Security review of an authenticated Diffie Hellman variant

    - by mtraut
    EDIT I'm still hoping for some advice on this, i tried to clarify my intentions... When i came upon device pairing in my mobile communication framework i studied a lot of papers on this topic and and also got some input from previous questions here. But, i didn't find a ready to implement protocol solution - so i invented a derivate and as i'm no crypto geek i'm not sure about the security caveats of the final solution: The main questions are Is SHA256 sufficient as a commit function? Is the addition of the shared secret as an authentication info in the commit string safe? What is the overall security of the 1024 bit group DH I assume at most 2^-24 bit probability of succesful MITM attack (because of 24 bit challenge). Is this plausible? What may be the most promising attack (besides ripping the device out off my numb, cold hands) This is the algorithm sketch For first time pairing, a solution proposed in "Key agreement in peer-to-peer wireless networks" (DH-SC) is implemented. I based it on a commitment derived from: A fix "UUID" for the communicating entity/role (128 bit, sent at protocol start, before commitment) The public DH key (192 bit private key, based on the 1024 bit Oakley group) A 24 bit random challenge Commit is computed using SHA256 c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || Chall) Both parties exchange this commitment, open and transfer the plain content of the above values. The 24 bit random is displayed to the user for manual authentication DH session key (128 bytes, see above) is computed When the user opts for persistent pairing, the session key is stored with the remote UUID as a shared secret Next time devices connect, commit is computed by additionally hashing the previous DH session key before the random challenge. For sure it is not transfered when opening. c = sha256( UUID || DH pub || DH sess || Chall) Now the user is not bothered authenticating when the local party can derive the same commitment using his own, stored previous DH session key. After succesful connection the new DH session key becomes the new shared secret. As this does not exactly fit the protocols i found so far (and as such their security proofs), i'd be very interested to get an opinion from some more crypto enabled guys here. BTW. i did read about the "EKE" protocol, but i'm not sure what the extra security level is.

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  • Adding Insert Row in tableView

    - by user333624
    Hello everyone, I have a tableView that loads its data directly from a Core Data table with a NSFetchedResultsController. I'm not using an intermediate NSMutableArray to store the objects from the fetch results; I basically implemented inside my UITableViewController the protocol method numberOfRowsInSection and it returns the numberOfObjects inside a NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo. id <NSFetchedResultsSectionInfo> sectionInfo = [[fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section]; and then I configure the cell content by implementing configureCell:atIndexPath and retrieving object info from the fetchedResultController but right now I have a generic configuration for any object (to avoid complications) cell.textLabel.text = @"categoria"; I also have a NavigationBar with a custom edit button at the right that loads my own selector called customSetEditing. What I'm trying to accomplish is to load an "Insert Cell" at the beginning of the tableView so when I tap it, it creates a new record. This last part is easy to implement the problem is that I dont's seem to be able to load the insert row or any row when I tap on the navigation bar edit button. this is the code for my customSetEditing: - (void) customSetEditing { [super setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [self.tableView setEditing:YES animated:YES]; [[self tableView] beginUpdates]; //[[self tableView] beginUpdates]; UIBarButtonItem *customDoneButtonItem = [[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithBarButtonSystemItem:UIBarButtonSystemItemDone target:self action:@selector(customDone)]; [self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem release]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = customDoneButtonItem; //[categoriasArray insertObject:[NSNull null] atIndex:0]; NSMutableArray *indexPaths = [[NSMutableArray alloc] initWithObjects:[NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:0 inSection:0],nil ]; [self.tableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:indexPaths withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; //[indexPaths release]; [self.tableView reloadData];} Before adding the:[self.tableView reloadData]; I was getting an out of bounds error plus a program crash and although the program is not crashing it is not loading anything. I have seen many examples of similar situations in stackoverflow (by the way is an excellent forum with very helpful and nice people) none of the examples seems to work for me. Any ideas?

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  • CSS Graph- Bars not showing correctly

    - by Olivia
    I'm trying to create a CSS/HTML based graph using this tutorial here. However instead of putting the data directly into the html code I'm importing it from a CSV file using PHP with the following code. <?PHP /* Open CSV file */ $handle = fopen("defects.csv", "r"); $c = 0; /* gets data from csv file */ while (($data = fgetcsv($handle, 1000, ",")) !== FALSE) { /* stores dates as variable $date */ $date[$c] = $data[0]; $c++; /* inserts defect data into html code */ echo "<dd class=\"p" . $data[2] . "\"><span><b>" . $data[2] . "</b></span></dd>"; echo "<dd class=\"sub p" . $data[3] . "\" ><span><b>" . $data[3] . "</b></span></dd>"; } echo "</dl>"; echo "<ul class=\"xAxis\">"; /* X AXIS */ /* inserts date data into html code for x axis */ for ($d=0; $d < $c; $d++) { echo "<li>" . $date[$d] . "</li>"; } ?> The values are being placed correctly on the chart, but the bars aren't appearing. The CSS code I have for the bars is: /* default column styling */ dl#csschart span{ height:50%; background:url(../images/barx.png) repeat-y; } dl#csschart .sub{ margin-left:-33px; } dl#csschart .sub span{ background:url(../images/subBarx.png) repeat-y; } Just in case it helps, I've print screened how the graph should look. You can see it at: http://allured.info/graph/failgraph.png

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  • I need help converting a C# string from one character encoding to another?

    - by Handleman
    According to Spolsky I can't call myself a developer, so there is a lot of shame behind this question... Scenario: From a C# application, I would like to take a string value from a SQL db and use it as the name of a directory. I have a secure (SSL) FTP server on which I want to set the current directory using the string value from the DB. Problem: Everything is working fine until I hit a string value with a "special" character - I seem unable to encode the directory name correctly to satisfy the FTP server. The code example below uses "special" character é as an example uses WinSCP as an external application for the ftps comms does not show all the code required to setup the Process "_winscp". sends commands to the WinSCP exe by writing to the process standardinput for simplicity, does not get the info from the DB, but instead simply declares a string (but I did do a .Equals to confirm that the value from the DB is the same as the declared string) makes three attempts to set the current directory on the FTP server using different string encodings - all of which fail makes an attempt to set the directory using a string that was created from a hand-crafted byte array - which works Process _winscp = new Process(); byte[] buffer; string nameFromString = "Sinéad O'Connor"; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + nameFromString + "\""); buffer = Encoding.UTF8.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.UTF8.GetString(buffer) + "\""); buffer = Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(nameFromString); _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer) + "\""); byte[] nameFromBytes = new byte[] { 83, 105, 110, 130, 97, 100, 32, 79, 39, 67, 111, 110, 110, 111, 114 }; _winscp.StandardInput.WriteLine("cd \"" + Encoding.Default.GetString(nameFromBytes) + "\""); The UTF8 encoding changes é to 101 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. The ASCII encoding changes é to 63 (decimal) but the FTP server doesn't like it. When I represent é as value 130 (decimal) the FTP server is happy, except I can't find a method that will do this for me (I had to manually contruct the string from explicit bytes). Anyone know what I should do to my string to encode the é as 130 and make the FTP server happy and finally elevate me to level 1 developer by explaining the only single thing a developer should understand?

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  • PHP running as a FastCGI application (php-cgi) - how to issue concurrent requests?

    - by Sbm007
    Some background information: I'm writing my own webserver in Java and a couple of days ago I asked on SO how exactly Apache interfaces with PHP, so I can implement PHP support. I learnt that FastCGI is the best approach (since mod_php is not an option). So I have looked at the FastCGI protocol specification and have managed to write a working FastCGI wrapper for my server. I have tested phpinfo() and it works, in fact all PHP functions seem to work just fine (posting data, sessions, date/time, etc etc). My webserver is able to serve requests concurrently (ie user1 can retrieve file1.html at the same time as user2 requesting some_large_binary_file.zip), it does this by spawning a new Java thread for each user request (terminating when completed or user connection with client is cancelled). However, it cannot deal with 2 (or more) FastCGI requests at the same time. What it does is, it queues them up, so when request 1 is completed immediately thereafter it starts processing request 2. I tested this with 2 PHP pages, one contains sleep(10) and the other phpinfo(). How would I go about dealing with multiple requests as I know it can be done (PHP under IIS runs as FastCGI and it can deal with multiple requests just fine). Some more info: I am coding under windows and my batch file used to execute php-cgi.exe contains: set PHP_FCGI_CHILDREN=8 set PHP_FCGI_MAX_REQUESTS=500 php-cgi.exe -b 9000 But it does not spawn 8 children, the service simply terminates after 500 requests. I have done research and from Wikipedia: Processing of multiple requests simultaneously is achieved either by using a single connection with internal multiplexing (ie. multiple requests over a single connection) and/or by using multiple connections Now clearly the multiple connections isn't working for me, as everytime a client requests something that involves FastCGI it creates a new socket to the FastCGI application, but it does not work concurrently (it queues them up instead). I know that internal multiplexing of FastCGI requests under the same connection is accomplished by issuing each unique FastCGI request with a different request ID. (also see the last 3 paragraphs of 'The Communication Protocol' heading in this article). I have not tested this, but how would I go about implementing that? I take it I need some kind of FastCGI Java thread which contains a Map of some sort and a static function which I can use to add requests to. Then in the Thread's run() function it would have a while loop and for every cycle it would check whether the Map contains new requests, if so it would assign them a request ID and write them to the FastCGI stream. And then wait for input etc etc, As you can see this becomes too complicated. Does anyone know the correct way of doing this? Or any thoughts at all? Thanks very much. Note, if required I can supply the code for my FastCGI wrapper.

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  • Best practices for displaying large number of images as thumbnails in c#

    - by andySF
    I got to a point where it's very difficult to get answers by debugging and tracing object, so i need some help. What I'm trying to do: A history form for my screen capture pet project. The history must list all images as thumbnails (ex: picasa). What I've done: I created a HistoryItem:UserControl. This history item has a few buttons, a check box, a label and a picture box. The buttons are for delete/edit/copy image. The check box is used for selecting one or more images and the label is for some info text. The picture box is getting the image from a public property that is a path and a method creates a proportional thumbnail to display it when the control has been loaded. This user control has two public events. One for deleting the image and one for bubbling the events for mouse enter and mouse leave trough all controls. For this I use EventBroadcastProvider. The bubbling is useful because wherever I move the mouse over the control, the buttons appear. The dispose method has been extended and I manually remove the events. All images are loaded by looping a xml file that contains the path of all images. For each image in this XML I create a new HitoryItem that is added (after a little coding to sort and limit the amount of images loaded) to a flow layout panel. The problem: When I lunch the history form, and the flow layout panel is populated with my HistoryItem custom control, my memory usage increases drastically.From 14Mb to around 100MB with 100 images loaded. By closing the history form and disposing whatever I could dispose and even trying to call GC.Collect() the memory increase remain. I search for any object that could not be disposed properly like an image or event but wherever I used them they are disposed. The problem seams to be from multiple sources. One is that the events for bubbling are not disposing properly, and the other is from the picture box itself. All of this i could see by commenting all the code to a limited version when only the custom control without any image processing and even events is loaded. Without the events the memory consumption is reduced by axiomatically 20%. So my real question is if this logic, flow layout panels and custom controls with picture boxes, is the best solution for displaying large amounts of images as thumbnails. Thank you!

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  • Perl - Calling subclass constructor from superclass (OO)

    - by Emmel
    This may turn out to be an embarrassingly stupid question, but better than potentially creating embarrassingly stupid code. :-) This is an OO design question, really. Let's say I have an object class 'Foos' that represents a set of dynamic configuration elements, which are obtained by querying a command on disk, 'mycrazyfoos -getconfig'. Let's say that there are two categories of behavior that I want 'Foos' objects to have: Existing ones: one is, query ones that exist in the command output I just mentioned (/usr/bin/mycrazyfoos -getconfig`. Make modifications to existing ones via shelling out commands. Create new ones that don't exist; new 'crazyfoos', using a complex set of /usr/bin/mycrazyfoos commands and parameters. Here I'm not really just querying, but actually running a bunch of system() commands. Affecting changes. Here's my class structure: Foos.pm package Foos, which has a new($hashref-{name = 'myfooname',) constructor that takes a 'crazyfoo NAME' and then queries the existence of that NAME to see if it already exists (by shelling out and running the mycrazyfoos command above). If that crazyfoo already exists, return a Foos::Existing object. Any changes to this object requires shelling out, running commands and getting confirmation that everything ran okay. If this is the way to go, then the new() constructor needs to have a test to see which subclass constructor to use (if that even makes sense in this context). Here are the subclasses: Foos/Existing.pm As mentioned above, this is for when a Foos object already exists. Foos/Pending.pm This is an object that will be created if, in the above, the 'crazyfoo NAME' doesn't actually exist. In this case, the new() constructor above will be checked for additional parameters, and it will go ahead and, when called using -create() shell out using system() and create a new object... possibly returning an 'Existing' one... OR As I type this out, I am realizing it is perhaps it's better to have a single: (an alternative arrangement) Foos class, that has a -new() that takes just a name -create() that takes additional creation parameters -delete(), -change() and other params that affect ones that exist; that will have to just be checked dynamically. So here we are, two main directions to go with this. I'm curious which would be the more intelligent way to go.

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  • Casting objects in C# (ASP.Net MVC)

    - by Mortanis
    I'm coming from a background in ColdFusion, and finally moving onto something modern, so please bear with me. I'm running into a problem casting objects. I have two database tables that I'm using as Models - Residential and Commercial. Both of them share the majority of their fields, though each has a few unique fields. I've created another class as a container that contains the sum of all property fields. Query the Residential and Commercial, stuff it into my container, cunningly called Property. This works fine. However, I'm having problems aliasing the fields from Residential/Commercial onto Property. It's quite easy to create a method for each property: fillPropertyByResidential(Residential source) and fillPropertyByCommercial(Commercial source), and alias the variables. That also works fine, but quite obviously will copy a bunch of code - all those fields that are shared between the two main Models. So, I'd like a generic fillPropertyBySource() that takes the object, and detects if it's Residential or Commercial, fills the particular fields of each respective type, then do all the fields in common. Except, I gather in C# that variables created inside an If are only in the scope of the if, so I'm not sure how to do this. public property fillPropertyBySource(object source) { property prop = new property(); if (source is Residential) { Residential o = (Residential)source; //Fill Residential only fields } else if (source is Commercial) { Commercial o = (Commercial)source; //Fill Commercial only fields } //Fill fields shared by both prop.price = (int)o.price; prop.bathrooms = (float)o.bathrooms; return prop; } "o" being a Commercial or Residential only exists within the scope of the if. How do I detect the original type of the source object and take action? Bear with me - the shift from ColdFusion into a modern language is pretty..... difficult. More so since I'm used to procedural code and MVC is a massive paradigm shift. Edit: I should include the error: The name 'o' does not exist in the current context For the aliases of price and bathrooms in the shared area.

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  • Haskell data serialization of some data implementing a common type class

    - by Evan
    Let's start with the following data A = A String deriving Show data B = B String deriving Show class X a where spooge :: a -> Q [ Some implementations of X for A and B ] Now let's say we have custom implementations of show and read, named show' and read' respectively which utilize Show as a serialization mechanism. I want show' and read' to have types show' :: X a => a -> String read' :: X a => String -> a So I can do things like f :: String -> [Q] f d = map (\x -> spooge $ read' x) d Where data could have been [show' (A "foo"), show' (B "bar")] In summary, I wanna serialize stuff of various types which share a common typeclass so I can call their separate implementations on the deserialized stuff automatically. Now, I realize you could write some template haskell which would generate a wrapper type, like data XWrap = AWrap A | BWrap B deriving (Show) and serialize the wrapped type which would guarantee that the type info would be stored with it, and that we'd be able to get ourselves back at least an XWrap... but is there a better way using haskell ninja-ery? EDIT Okay I need to be more application specific. This is an API. Users will define their As, and Bs and fs as they see fit. I don't ever want them hacking through the rest of the code updating their XWraps, or switches or anything. The most i'm willing to compromise is one list somewhere of all the A, B, etc. in some format. Why? Here's the application. A is "Download a file from an FTP server." B is "convert from flac to mp3". A contains username, password, port, etc. information. B contains file path information. A and B are Xs, and Xs shall be called "Tickets." Q is IO (). Spooge is runTicket. I want to read the tickets off into their relevant data types and then write generic code that will runTicket on the stuff read' from the stuff on disk. At some point I have to jam type information into the serialized data.

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  • Difference between Cloud and Virtualization

    - by Akash Kava
    Ops: This does not belong to ServerFault because it focuses on Programing Architecture. I have following questions regarding differences between Cloud and Virtualization.. How Cloud is different then Virtualization? Currently I tried to find out pricing of Rackspace, Amazone and all similar cloud providers, I found that our current 6 dedicated servers came cheaper then their pricing. So how one can claim cloud is cheaper? Is it cheaper only in comparison of normal hosting? We re organized our infrastructure in virtual environment to reduce or configuration overhead at time of failure, we did not have to rewrite any peice of code that is already written for earlier setup. So moving to virtualization does not require any re programming. But cloud is absoltely different and it will require entire reprogramming right? Is it really worth to recode when our current IT costs are 3-4 times lower then cloud hosting including raid backups and all sort of clustering for high availability? New programming architecture means new overheads of training staff, new methods of testing and new deployment schemes, does it justify over "on demand resource usage" words of cloud? We are having current development architecture with simple Server side ASP.NET WebServices with no local context and on client side Flex/Silverlight which offers pretty good REST architecture and its highly scalable. How does cloud differs from REST model of deployment? On storage, SQL Server or MySQL offers pretty good replication and high availibility then what is advantage in cloud? Data guarantee, one of our vendor hosting some other customer's app on cloud (one of most used), lost Entire Hard Disk (the virtual) and entire module in first 6 months. Second provider said its your duty to take backup, fine I agree, but no provider gives SLA for data guarantee, they give 99% uptime. However in most business apps, uptime is less important then data integrity. In our 10 years of dedicated hosting experience we had only one hard disk crash. This makes me little skeptical to go for cloud and loosing control over data. And I feel its just a big marketing buzz to sell virtulization in different form. Size of data, currently all providers charge very heavy for large data, if you are hosting only below 100GB cloud can be good alternative, but I think virtual servers and dedicated servers above 100GB to few TBs are still cheaper. Why would want to pay so high on cloud when there is no data guarentee as well as it doesnt say anything about redundancy. (I wish SO had something for spell check for Internet Explorer, sorry for wrong spellings in my post)

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  • No unique bean of type [javax.persistence.EntityManager] is defined

    - by sebajb
    I am using JUnit 4 to test Dao Access with Spring (annotations) and JPA (hibernate). The datasource is configured through JNDI(Weblogic) with an ORacle(Backend). This persistence is configured with just the name and a RESOURCE_LOCAL transaction-type The application context file contains notations for annotations, JPA config, transactions, and default package and configuration for annotation detection. I am using Junit4 like so: ApplicationContext <bean id="entityManagerFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.LocalContainerEntityManagerFactoryBean"> <property name="persistenceUnitName" value="workRequest"/> <property name="dataSource" ref="dataSource" /> <property name="jpaVendorAdapter"> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.vendor.HibernateJpaVendorAdapter"> <property name="databasePlatform" value="${database.target}"/> <property name="showSql" value="${database.showSql}" /> <property name="generateDdl" value="${database.generateDdl}" /> </bean> </property> </bean> <bean id="dataSource" class="org.springframework.jndi.JndiObjectFactoryBean"> <property name="jndiName"> <value>workRequest</value> </property> <property name="jndiEnvironment"> <props> <prop key="java.naming.factory.initial">weblogic.jndi.WLInitialContextFactory</prop> <prop key="java.naming.provider.url">t3://localhost:7001</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.JpaTransactionManager"> <property name="entityManagerFactory" ref="entityManagerFactory" /> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.dao.annotation.PersistenceExceptionTranslationPostProcessor"/> <bean class="org.springframework.orm.jpa.support.PersistenceAnnotationBeanPostProcessor" /> JUnit TestCase @RunWith(SpringJUnit4ClassRunner.class) @ContextConfiguration(locations = { "classpath:applicationContext.xml" }) public class AssignmentDaoTest { private AssignmentDao assignmentDao; @Test public void readAll() { assertNotNull("assignmentDao cannot be null", assignmentDao); List assignments = assignmentDao.findAll(); assertNotNull("There are no assignments yet", assignments); } } regardless of what changes I make I get: No unique bean of type [javax.persistence.EntityManager] is defined Any hint on what this could be. I am running the tests inside eclipse.

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  • Avoiding explicit recursion in Haskell

    - by Travis Brown
    The following simple function applies a given monadic function iteratively until it hits a Nothing, at which point it returns the last non-Nothing value. It does what I need, and I understand how it works. lastJustM :: (Monad m) => (a -> m (Maybe a)) -> a -> m a lastJustM g x = g x >>= maybe (return x) (lastJustM g) As part of my self-education in Haskell I'm trying to avoid explicit recursion (or at least understand how to) whenever I can. It seems like there should be a simple non-explicitly recursive solution in this case, but I'm having trouble figuring it out. I don't want something like a monadic version of takeWhile, since it could be expensive to collect all the pre-Nothing values, and I don't care about them anyway. I checked Hoogle for the signature and nothing shows up. The m (Maybe a) bit makes me think a monad transformer might be useful here, but I don't really have the intuitions I'd need to come up with the details (yet). It's probably either embarrassingly easy to do this or embarrassingly easy to see why it can't or shouldn't be done, but this wouldn't be the first time I've used self-embarrassment as a pedagogical strategy. Background: Here's a simplified working example for context: suppose we're interested in random walks in the unit square, but we only care about points of exit. We have the following step function: randomStep :: (Floating a, Ord a, Random a) => a -> (a, a) -> State StdGen (Maybe (a, a)) randomStep s (x, y) = do (a, gen') <- randomR (0, 2 * pi) <$> get put gen' let (x', y') = (x + s * cos a, y + s * sin a) if x' < 0 || x' > 1 || y' < 0 || y' > 1 then return Nothing else return $ Just (x', y') Something like evalState (lastJustM (randomStep 0.01) (0.5, 0.5)) <$> newStdGen will give us a new data point.

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  • Database schema for simple stats project

    - by Bubnoff
    Backdrop: I have a file hierarchy of cvs files for multiple locations named by dates they cover ...by month specifically. Each cvs file in the folder is named after the location. eg', folder name: 2010-feb contains: location1.csv location2.csv Each CSV file holds records like this: 2010-06-28, 20:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 08:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 09:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 10:30:00 , 0 2010-06-29, 11:30:00 , 0 meaning of record columns ( column names ): Date, time, # of sessions I have a perl script that pulls the data from this mess and originally I was going to store it as json files, but am thinking a database might be more appropriate long term ...comparing year to year trends ...fun stuff like that. Pt 2 - My question/problem: So I now have a REST service that coughs up json with a test database. My question is [ I suck at db design ], how best to design a database backend for this? I am thinking the following tables would suffice and keep it simple: Location: (PK)location_code, name session: (PK)id, (FK)location_code, month, hour, num_sessions I need to be able to average sessions (plus min and max) for each hour across days of week in addition to days of week in a given month or months. I've been using perl hashes to do this and am trying to decide how best to implement this with a database. Do you think stored procedures should be used? As to the database, depending on info gathered here, it will be postgresql or sqlite. If there is no compelling reason for postgresql I'll stick with sqlite. How and where should I compare the data to hours of operation. I am storing the hours of operation in a yaml file. I currently 'match' the hour in the data to a hash from the yaml to do this. Would a database open simpler methods? I am thinking I would do this comparison as I do now then insert the data. Can be recalled with: SELECT hour, num_sessions FROM session WHERE location_code=LOC1 Since only hours of operation are present, I do not need to worry about it. Should I calculate all results as I do now then store as a stats table for different 'reports'? This, rather than processing on demand? How would this look? Anyway ...I ramble. Thanks for reading! Bubnoff

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  • First record does not show in pagination script

    - by whitstone86
    This is my pagination script which extracts info for my TV guide project that I am working on. Currently I've been experimenting with different PHP/MySQL before it becomes a production site. This is my current script: <?php /*********************************** * PhpMyCoder Paginator * * Created By PhpMyCoder * * 2010 PhpMyCoder * * ------------------------------- * * You may use this code as long * * as this notice stays intact and * * the proper credit is given to * * the author. * ***********************************/ // set the default timezone to use. Available since PHP 5.1 putenv("TZ=US/Eastern") ?> <head> <title> Pagination Test - Created By PhpMyCoder</title> <style type="text/css"> #nav { font: normal 13px/14px Arial, Helvetica, sans-serif; margin: 2px 0; } #nav a { background: #EEE; border: 1px solid #DDD; color: #000080; padding: 1px 7px; text-decoration: none; } #nav strong { background: #000080; border: 1px solid #DDD; color: #FFF; font-weight: normal; padding: 1px 7px; } #nav span { background: #FFF; border: 1px solid #DDD; color: #999; padding: 1px 7px; } </style> </head> <?php //Require the file that contains the required classes include("pmcPagination.php"); //PhpMyCoder Paginator $paginator = new pmcPagination(20, "page"); //Connect to the database mysql_connect("localhost","root","PASSWORD"); //Select DB mysql_select_db("mytvguide"); //Select only results for today and future $result = mysql_query("SELECT programme, channel, airdate, expiration, episode, setreminder FROM lagunabeach where expiration >= now() order by airdate, 3 ASC LIMIT 0, 100;"); //You can also add reuslts to paginate here mysql_data_seek($queryresult,0) ; while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $paginator->add(new paginationData($row['programme'], $row['channel'], $row['airdate'], $row['expiration'], $row['episode'], $row['setreminder'])); } ?> <?php //Show the paginated results $paginator->paginate (); ?><? include("pca-footer1.php"); ?> <?php //Show the navigation $paginator->navigation(); ?> Despite me having two records for the programmes airing today, it only shows records from the second one onwards - the programme that airs at 8:35pm UK time GMT does not show, but the later 11:25pm UK time GMT one does show. How should I fix this? Above is my code if that is of any use! Thanks

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  • Can MySQL reasonably perform queries on billions of rows?

    - by haxney
    I am planning on storing scans from a mass spectrometer in a MySQL database and would like to know whether storing and analyzing this amount of data is remotely feasible. I know performance varies wildly depending on the environment, but I'm looking for the rough order of magnitude: will queries take 5 days or 5 milliseconds? Input format Each input file contains a single run of the spectrometer; each run is comprised of a set of scans, and each scan has an ordered array of datapoints. There is a bit of metadata, but the majority of the file is comprised of arrays 32- or 64-bit ints or floats. Host system |----------------+-------------------------------| | OS | Windows 2008 64-bit | | MySQL version | 5.5.24 (x86_64) | | CPU | 2x Xeon E5420 (8 cores total) | | RAM | 8GB | | SSD filesystem | 500 GiB | | HDD RAID | 12 TiB | |----------------+-------------------------------| There are some other services running on the server using negligible processor time. File statistics |------------------+--------------| | number of files | ~16,000 | | total size | 1.3 TiB | | min size | 0 bytes | | max size | 12 GiB | | mean | 800 MiB | | median | 500 MiB | | total datapoints | ~200 billion | |------------------+--------------| The total number of datapoints is a very rough estimate. Proposed schema I'm planning on doing things "right" (i.e. normalizing the data like crazy) and so would have a runs table, a spectra table with a foreign key to runs, and a datapoints table with a foreign key to spectra. The 200 Billion datapoint question I am going to be analyzing across multiple spectra and possibly even multiple runs, resulting in queries which could touch millions of rows. Assuming I index everything properly (which is a topic for another question) and am not trying to shuffle hundreds of MiB across the network, is it remotely plausible for MySQL to handle this? UPDATE: additional info The scan data will be coming from files in the XML-based mzML format. The meat of this format is in the <binaryDataArrayList> elements where the data is stored. Each scan produces = 2 <binaryDataArray> elements which, taken together, form a 2-dimensional (or more) array of the form [[123.456, 234.567, ...], ...]. These data are write-once, so update performance and transaction safety are not concerns. My naïve plan for a database schema is: runs table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | start_time | TIMESTAMP | | name | VARCHAR | |-------------+-------------| spectra table | column name | type | |----------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | name | VARCHAR | | index | INT | | spectrum_type | INT | | representation | INT | | run_id | FOREIGN KEY | |----------------+-------------| datapoints table | column name | type | |-------------+-------------| | id | PRIMARY KEY | | spectrum_id | FOREIGN KEY | | mz | DOUBLE | | num_counts | DOUBLE | | index | INT | |-------------+-------------| Is this reasonable?

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  • Unit Testing - Am I doing it right?

    - by baron
    Hi everyone, Basically I have been programing for a little while and after finishing my last project can fully understand how much easier it would have been if I'd have done TDD. I guess I'm still not doing it strictly as I am still writing code then writing a test for it, I don't quite get how the test becomes before the code if you don't know what structures and how your storing data etc... but anyway... Kind of hard to explain but basically lets say for example I have a Fruit objects with properties like id, color and cost. (All stored in textfile ignore completely any database logic etc) FruitID FruitName FruitColor FruitCost 1 Apple Red 1.2 2 Apple Green 1.4 3 Apple HalfHalf 1.5 This is all just for example. But lets say I have this is a collection of Fruit (it's a List<Fruit>) objects in this structure. And my logic will say to reorder the fruitids in the collection if a fruit is deleted (this is just how the solution needs to be). E.g. if 1 is deleted, object 2 takes fruit id 1, object 3 takes fruit id2. Now I want to test the code ive written which does the reordering, etc. How can I set this up to do the test? Here is where I've got so far. Basically I have fruitManager class with all the methods, like deletefruit, etc. It has the list usually but Ive changed hte method to test it so that it accepts a list, and the info on the fruit to delete, then returns the list. Unit-testing wise: Am I basically doing this the right way, or have I got the wrong idea? and then I test deleting different valued objects / datasets to ensure method is working properly. [Test] public void DeleteFruit() { var fruitList = CreateFruitList(); var fm = new FruitManager(); var resultList = fm.DeleteFruitTest("Apple", 2, fruitList); //Assert that fruitobject with x properties is not in list ? how } private static List<Fruit> CreateFruitList() { //Build test data var f01 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 1, etc...}; var f02 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 2, etc...}; var f03 = new Fruit {Name = "Apple",Id = 3, etc...}; var fruitList = new List<Fruit> {f01, f02, f03}; return fruitList; }

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  • Why does every thread in my application use a different hibernate session?

    - by Ittai
    Hi, I have a web-application which uses hibernate and for some reason every thread (httprequest or other threads related to queueing) uses a different session. I've implemented a HibernateSessionFactory class which looks like this: public class HibernateSessionFactory { private static final ThreadLocal<Session> threadLocal = new ThreadLocal<Session>(); private static Configuration configuration = new AnnotationConfiguration(); private static org.hibernate.SessionFactory sessionFactory; static { try { configuration.configure(configFile); sessionFactory = configuration.buildSessionFactory(); } catch (Exception e) {} } private HibernateSessionFactory() {} public static Session getSession() throws HibernateException { Session session = (Session) threadLocal.get(); if (session == null || !session.isOpen()) { if (sessionFactory == null) { rebuildSessionFactory();//This method basically does what the static init block does } session = (sessionFactory != null) ? sessionFactory.openSession(): null; threadLocal.set(session); } return session; } //More non relevant methods here. Now from my testing it seems that the threadLocal member is indeed initialized only once when the class is first loaded by the JVM but for some reason when different threads access the getSession() method they use different sessions. When a thread first accesses this class (Session) threadLocal.get(); will return null but as expected all other access requests will yeild the same session. I'm not sure how this can be happening as the threadLocal variable is final and the method threadLocal.set(session) is only used in the above context (which I'm 99.9% sure has to yeild a non null session as I would have encountered a NullPointerException at a different part of my app). I'm not sure this is relevant but these are the main parts of my hibernate.cfg.xml file: <hibernate-configuration> <session-factory> <property name="connection.url">someURL</property> <property name="connection.driver_class"> com.microsoft.sqlserver.jdbc.SQLServerDriver</property> <property name="dialect">org.hibernate.dialect.SQLServerDialect</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.isolation">1</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.username">User</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.password">Password</property> <property name="hibernate.connection.pool_size">10</property> <property name="show_sql">false</property> <property name="current_session_context_class">thread</property> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto">update</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.use_second_level_cache">false</property> <property name="hibernate.cache.provider_class">org.hibernate.cache.NoCacheProvider</property> <!-- Mapping files --> I'd appreciate any help granted and of course if anyone has any questions I'd be happy to clarify. Ittai

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